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  • Question 1 - A child presents with signs of a hormonal abnormality due to an abnormality...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with signs of a hormonal abnormality due to an abnormality of the G protein. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Correct Answer: McCune–Albright syndrome

      Explanation:

      McCune–Albright syndrome, characterised by polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café au lait spots, sexual precocity, and hyperfunction of multiple endocrine glands, is the result of G-protein abnormality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period?

      Your Answer: Mumps - 14-18 days

      Explanation:

      The incubation periods of disorders is extremely important to diagnose, treat, prevent or attenuate a disease. Chickenpox: 7-21 days. Whooping cough: 10-14 days. Hand, foot and mouth disease: 2-6 days. German measles: 14-21 days. Mumps: 14-18 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following findings is consistent with autism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings is consistent with autism?

      Your Answer: Unicoronal synostosis

      Correct Answer: Macrocephaly

      Explanation:

      Autism is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by difficulties with social interaction, language delays, and some repetitive behaviours. Autism may be associated with some dysmorphic facial features, including macrocephaly, which denotes an abnormally large head. Macrocephaly is usually most observable during early childhood. The other features mentioned are not found to be associated with autism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      58.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was...

    Incorrect

    • A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was admitted with a fever, productive cough, anorexia and weight loss. On examination she was febrile and tachycardic. Her mother said that the girl was not thriving well. Which of the following organisms is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: PCP

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas

      Explanation:

      History of recurrent infections and failure to thrive (probably due to pancreatic enzyme insufficiency) is highly suggestive of cystic fibrosis. Pseudomonas has been identified as an important respiratory pathogen in patients with cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss. Further investigations lead...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss. Further investigations lead to a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus.Which of the following does she have an increased risk of developing?

      Your Answer: Type 2 diabetes mellitus, Addison's disease, coeliac disease

      Correct Answer: Addison's disease, Grave's disease, coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      The patient has features of type 1 diabetes mellitus, a disease of autoimmune aetiology. This also puts the patient at risk of developing other autoimmune disorders like Addison’s disease, Grave’s disease, and coeliac disease.All of the other options are non-autoimmune disorders.Diabetes mellitus is an increasing problem in both developing and developed countries alike.Some of the risk factors include:ObesityFamily historyFemale sex Asian and African racesPresence of acanthosis nigricans is seen with type 2 but not type 1 diabetesThe diagnosis is mostly incidental or subacute.The treatment aims are good blood sugar control, maintenance of normal BMI, and reduction of complications. The treatment modality also includes lifestyle modifications and cessation of smoking.Even after all this, diabetic ketoacidosis can still occur.Management of diabetes mellitus – NICE guidelines (Updated, 2015): – Standard release metformin should be offered from the moment of diagnosis.- HBA1c should be measured every three months. The target HBA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower is ideal for minimising the risk of long term complications.- Children should undergo an eye examination by an optician every two years.- Annual immunisation against influenza and pneumococcal infections are essential.- There is an increased risk of psychological and psychosocial difficulties if the child with type 1 diabetes is on insulin or oral hypoglycaemic medications. These include anxiety disorder, depression, behavioural and conduct disorders and family conflict.- Annual monitoring to be done for:Hypertension starting at diagnosis.Dyslipidaemia starting at diagnosis.Screening for microalbuminuria starting at diagnosis.Diabetic retinopathy from 12 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 12-year-old girl presents with constant dripping of urine despite being able to...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with constant dripping of urine despite being able to void a full volume bladder. An ultrasound scan shows bilaterally enlarged kidneys. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Duplex kidney with ectopic ureter

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be a duplex kidney with an ectopic ureter inserting below the bladder neck. Rationale: The Weigert-Myer law states that the upper moiety ureter inserts inferior and medial to the lower moiety ureter. Other options:- Horseshoe kidney would display as a single pelvic kidney on an ultrasound scan.- Ureterocele would be a cystic lesion within the bladder or may prolapse at birth. – Continence should not be affected by polycystic kidney disease. – The overactive bladder would cause frequency and urgency, neither of which is mentioned in the history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents to the clinic with a history of swelling of both wrists. He has been complaining of painful legs and his parents are concerned about his bandy legs. The child was breastfed until 6 months of age, with solids being introduced in the diet later. At 12 months of age the child suffered from a non-stick fracture of the radius after falling at the nursery. Which condition is the child most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: X-linked hypophosphataemic rickets

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D-deficient rickets

      Explanation:

      The signs and symptoms of vitamin D-dependent rickets begin within months after birth, and most are the same for all types of the condition. The weak bones often cause bone pain and delayed growth and have a tendency to fracture. When affected children begin to walk, they may develop abnormally curved (bowed) legs because the bones are too weak to bear weight. Impaired bone development also results in widening of the metaphysis, especially in the knees, wrists, and ribs. Some people with vitamin D-dependent rickets have dental abnormalities such as thin tooth enamel and frequent cavities. Poor muscle tone (hypotonia) and muscle weakness are also common in this condition, and some affected individuals develop seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. The consequences of this deficiency are numerous electrolyte and acid-base imbalances, which include hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, and dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer: Pontine cistern

      Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      90
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains of anaesthesia of the web spaces between his first and second toes. Injury to which of the following nerves leads to this presentation?

      Your Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve lies in the anterior muscular compartment of the lower leg and can be compromised by compartment syndrome affecting this area. It provides cutaneous sensation to the first web space. The superficial peroneal nerve provides more lateral cutaneous innervation.Origin: It originates from the common peroneal nerve, at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to peroneus longus. Root values of common peroneal nerve: L4, L5, S1, and S2.Course and relation: It pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Following which, it passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.Throughout the course it innervates:- Tibialis anterior- Extensor hallucis longus- Extensor digitorum longus- Peroneus tertius- Extensor digitorum brevisAt its termination, it innervates the skin in the web space between the first and second toes.Actions performed by the muscles supplied by the nerve:- Dorsiflexion of ankle joint- Extension of all toes- Inversion of the foot

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old female was taken to her local emergency department with jerking movements in her limbs. This lasted for around 10 seconds, and then she fell unconscious. She soon regained consciousness - she was disorientated but afebrile with no symptoms of meningeal irritation. From the list of options, chose the most appropriate investigation route for this patient.

      Your Answer: 24 hour ECG

      Correct Answer: 24 hour EEG

      Explanation:

      Many of the symptoms favour an epilepsy diagnosis: uncontrollable jerking of the limbs and a loss of consciousness. A 24-hour EEG is used to diagnose epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue has most likely suffered damage to which nerve?

      Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) provides motor innervation to all of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except for the palatoglossus muscle, which is innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X). It runs superficial to the hyoglossus muscle. Lesions of the hypoglossal nerve cause deviation of the tongue to the ipsilateral (i.e., damaged) side.Taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is achieved through innervation from the chorda tympani nerve, a branch of the facial nerve (CN VII). General sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is by innervation from the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). The lingual nerve is located deep and medial to the hyoglossus muscle and is associated with the submandibular ganglion.On the other hand, taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue is accomplished through innervation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which also provides general sensation to the posterior one-third of the tongue.Taste perception also is performed by both the epiglottis and the epiglottic region of the tongue, which receives taste and general sensation from innervation by the internal laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN X). Damage to the vagus nerve (CN X) causes contralateral deviation (i.e., away from the injured side) of the uvula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following patient populations is most likely to present with primary...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following patient populations is most likely to present with primary vesicoureteric reflux?

      Your Answer: Prepubertal boys

      Correct Answer: New-born girls

      Explanation:

      Vesicoureteric reflex (VUR) is described as the retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the ureter due to an incompetent uterovesical junction. In primary VUR the lower urinary tract functions normally, while secondary VUR is associated with a poorly functioning lower urinary tract. The incidence of VUR is highest in new-born girls. They can present with hydronephrosis, or urinary tract infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      79.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide?

      Your Answer: CO increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

      Correct Answer: CO combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide is a colourless gas, which is toxic to animals. It has a high affinity for haemoglobin (around 250 times greater than oxygen). It combines with haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin, which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to a left-shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve. CO is produced endogenously in limited amounts (0.4ml per hour), but the toxic levels are higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Mean

      Correct Answer: Chi squared (X²) test

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 8 year old boy presented with pain and swelling around the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old boy presented with pain and swelling around the right eye. On examination there was no proptosis or ophthalmoplegia. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Orbital cellulitis

      Correct Answer: Peri orbital cellulitis

      Explanation:

      Infections of the superficial skin around the eyes are called periorbital, or preseptal, cellulitis. It is predominantly a paediatric disease. Erysipelas is a bacterial skin infection involving the upper dermis which extends into the superficial cutaneous lymphatics. Sinusitis is in sinuses. Orbital infections and conjunctivitis are within the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 16 year old girl presents with excess hair and amenorrhoea. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old girl presents with excess hair and amenorrhoea. She is normotensive. Her prolactin levels are normal. She has a raised 17 α-hydroxyprogesterone level.What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Partial 21-hydroxylase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase, resulting from mutations or deletions of CYP21A, is the most common form of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, accounting for more than 90% of cases.Females with mild 21-hydroxylase deficiency are identified later in childhood because of precocious pubic hair, clitoromegaly, or both, often accompanied by accelerated growth and skeletal maturation (simple virilizing adrenal hyperplasia)Diagnosis of 21-hydroxylase deficiency: High serum concentration of 17-hydroxyprogesterone (usually >1000 ng/dL) and urinary pregnanetriol (metabolite of 17-hydroxyprogesterone) in the presence of clinical features suggestive of the disease| 24-hour urinary 17-ketosteroid levels are elevated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures...

    Correct

    • A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 8 year old male presents with a history of progressive weakness. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male presents with a history of progressive weakness. He finds it harder to climb stairs or stand from a sitting position. Medical history reveals he received all his vaccinations and had chickenpox 5 years ago. Family history reveals that the father of his mother had a similar condition but died from an accident at 32 years of age. Clinical examination reveals normal cranial nerve function as well as cognitive and mental functions. He also has a normal height. However, although he has normal tone and reflexes in all his limbs, he experiences proximal weakness in his legs and arms. No muscle wasting is identified. Sensory functions are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Becker’s muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Becker’s muscular dystrophy is a disease characterised by progressive weakness and wasting of the skeletal and cardiac muscles. It is inherited and primarily affects males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 5 year old girl presents with reduced consciousness and metabolic acidosis. Additionally,...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old girl presents with reduced consciousness and metabolic acidosis. Additionally, her mother says that she had abdominal pain, vomiting, thirst, and weight loss, and is now worried that the girl’s twin brother will present with the same illness. Which of the following represents the highest chance of the brother presenting with the same illness?

      Your Answer: HLA DR3 genotype

      Correct Answer: HLA DR3/DR4 genotype

      Explanation:

      HLA-DR (3 and 4) have been associated with an increased risk for idiopathic diabetes mellitus.Type 1 diabetes has a high heritability compared to type 2Identical twins have a 30-50% risk if their twin has type 1 diabetes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      105.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month-old boy was brought to the hospital following a high-velocity road traffic accident. His car seat was thrown forward into the front passenger seat. He has sustained multiple injuries, including a fractured pelvis and suspected skull fracture.On initial assessment in the emergency department, the child was lying supine with c-spine immobilized. His eyes were closed, and he was motionless. He did not respond to voice commands. He cried and produced weak vocal sounds to pain but did not open his eyes. He tries to move away from the examining hand.What is the Paediatric Glasgow Coma Scale score of this child?

      Your Answer: 6

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale, being inappropriate for use in children (especially below the age of 5) as they are unable to elicit the verbal response as per the adult GCS. Therefore, GCS for the paediatric age group was modified to Adelaide coma scale (ACS), which is stated as follows:Best Eye Response (as in adult scale):Spontaneous – 4To speech – 3To pain – 2No response – 1Best Verbal Response:Oriented – 5Words – 4Vocal sounds – 3Cries – 2No response – 1Best Motor Response (as in adult scale):Obeys commands – 5Localises pain – 4Flexion to pain – 3 Extension to pain – 2No response – 1 The described child scores:Eye response – 1| Verbal response – 3| Motor response – 4Thus, bringing the total ACS score to 8.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been...

    Incorrect

    • As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been informed of a case of ambiguous genitalia in which the midwife was unable to decide the gender at birth. What is the most appropriate course of action in this case?

      Your Answer: Suggest to the midwife that it is likely that the baby is the gender it most looks like so she should inform the parents of this most likely gender, because it will cause them unnecessary distress to make them wait

      Correct Answer: Inform the parents that a number of investigations will need to be performed and that they will need to wait before a sex is assigned

      Explanation:

      Cases of neonatal infant ambiguous genitalia can be a great source of psychological stress for families. One of the most important next steps in managing the case is reassuring the parents that the best care will be given to the baby and then informing them about the investigations that will need to be performed before a sex can be assigned. The sex should not be guessed just by examination nor assigned by karyotyping. Thorough investigations must be completed with the help of endocrinologists for the best outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and unresponsive. He was born by emergency caesarean section. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

      Your Answer: Acute extra dural haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences. Although GM/IVH can occur in term infants, haemorrhage in this group of infants remains distinct from periventricular haemorrhage (PVH)/IVH of the preterm infant. Several acquired lesions of the central nervous system (CNS) specifically affect infants born prematurely and result in long-term disability, including GM/IVH, periventricular white matter injury (e.g., cystic periventricular leukomalacia [CPVL], periventricular haemorrhagic infarction [PVHI]), haemorrhage, and diffuse injury to the developing brain.The physical examination is usually negative in germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Occasionally, severe GM/IVH may present with nonspecific systemic findings suggestive of cardiovascular collapse.One subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with the following:- A sudden unexplained drop in haematocrit levels- Possible physical findings related to anaemia (e.g., pallor, poor perfusion) or haemorrhagic shockAnother subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with extreme signs, including the following:- A sudden and significant clinical deterioration associated with anaemia, metabolic acidosis, glucose instability, respiratory acidosis, apnoea, hypotonia, and stupor is present.Physical findings related to these signs include poor perfusion, pallor or an ashen colour, irregularities of respiratory pattern, signs of respiratory distress including retractions and tachypnoea, hypotonia, and altered mental status (e.g., decreased responsiveness, coma).Additional neurologic signs, such as fullness of the fontanelles, seizures, and posturing, may also be observed. Progression can be rapid and may result in shock and death.Extradural haemorrhage also known as an epidural hematoma, is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and outer layer of the dura, which is called the endosteal layer. They are usually associated with a history of head trauma and frequently associated skull fracture. The source of bleeding is usually arterial, most commonly from a torn middle meningeal artery.A subdural haemorrhage (or hematoma) is a type of bleeding that often occurs outside the brain as a result of a severe head injury. It takes place when blood vessels burst between the brain and the leather-like membrane that wraps around the brain (the dura mater). The pooling blood creates pressure on the surface of the brain, causing a variety of problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 2 year old child was brought to casualty with recurrent episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old child was brought to casualty with recurrent episodes of eczematoid rash over the cheeks and flexural regions of his body. Which one of the following statement best suit this condition?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus ointment is the preferred treatment for infants less than two years old

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone 1% ointment should be applied sparingly to areas of active eczema

      Explanation:

      Atopic dermatitis is an allergic condition which is more apparent in those children who have a positive family history in their 1st or 2nd degree relatives. In some cases, there might be a positive history of bronchial asthma. The best treatment option in this case would be topical application of 1% hydrocortisone ointment to the affected areas of the child. We cannot prescribe a strong ointment to the face because it may lead to skin atrophy, telangiectasia and other steroid related topical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 13 month old baby was taken to the hospital after his father...

    Incorrect

    • A 13 month old baby was taken to the hospital after his father saw that he had periorbital oedema for two days. He is seen by the doctor and noted to have facial oedema and a tender distended abdomen. His temperature is 39.1 and his blood pressure is 91/46 mmHg. There is also clinical evidence of poor peripheral perfusion. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell crisis

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

      Explanation:

      Answer: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitisThe presence of periorbital and facial oedema with normal blood pressure in this toddler indicates that he has nephrotic syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome can be associated with a series of complications that can affect an individual’s health and quality of life:Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis can develop where there is ascites present. This is a frequent development in children but very rarely found in adults.Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is the development of a bacterial infection in the peritoneum, despite the absence of an obvious source for the infection. It is specifically an infection of the ascitic fluid – an increased volume of peritoneal fluid. Ascites is most commonly a complication of cirrhosis of the liver. It can also occur in patients with nephrotic syndrome. SBP has a high mortality rate.The diagnosis of SBP requires paracentesis, a sampling of the peritoneal fluid taken from the peritoneal cavity. If the fluid contains large numbers of white blood cells known as neutrophils (>250 cells/µL), infection is confirmed and antibiotics will be given, without waiting for culture results. In addition to antibiotics, infusions of albumin are usually administered.Signs and symptoms of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) include fevers, chills, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and tenderness, general malaise, altered mental status, and worsening ascites. Thirteen percent of patients have no signs or symptoms. In cases of acute or chronic liver failure SBP is one of the main triggers for hepatic encephalopathy, and where there is no other clear causal indication for this, SBP may be suspected.These symptoms can also be the same for a spontaneous fungal peritonitis (SFP) and therefore make a differentiation difficult. Delay of diagnosis can delay antifungal treatment and lead to a higher mortality rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty breathing. She was seen by her regular doctor the day before with a sore throat which he diagnosed as tonsillitis and was prescribed oral Amoxicillin for 5 days. Past medical history:Ulcerative colitis diagnosed four years ago.Current medications:Inhaled salbutamol and beclomethasoneMesalazine 400 mg TDSShe was observed to be alert and oriented but she had laboured breathing. Inspiratory wheeze was noted. She was pale, sweaty and cyanosed. Her temperature was 36.7ºC, pulse 121/minute and blood pressure 91/40 mmHg. The lungs were clear and the remainder of the examination was normal. She was given high-flow oxygen through a face mask but despite this her breathing became increasingly difficult. What is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is a life-threatening disorder with serious implications to the anaesthesiologist because of the potential for laryngospasm and irrevocable loss of the airway. There is inflammatory oedema of the arytenoids, aryepiglottic folds and the epiglottis| therefore, supraglottitis may be used instead or preferred to the term acute epiglottitis.Acute epiglottitis can occur at any age. The responsible organism used to be Hemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), but infection with group A b-haemolytic Streptococci has become more frequent after the widespread use of Hemophilus influenzae vaccination. The typical presentation in epiglottitis includes acute occurrence of high fever, severe sore throat and difficulty in swallowing with the sitting up and leaning forward position in order to enhance airflow. There is usually drooling because of difficulty and pain on swallowing. Acute epiglottitis usually leads to generalized toxaemia. The most common differential diagnosis is croup and a foreign body in the airway. A late referral to an acute care setting with its serious consequences may result from difficulty in differentiation between acute epiglottitis and less urgent causes of a sore throat, shortness of breath and dysphagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Mature human milk contains how many calories? ...

    Incorrect

    • Mature human milk contains how many calories?

      Your Answer: 40kcal/100ml

      Correct Answer: 70kcal/100ml

      Explanation:

      Human breast milk composition changes with the progressive age of the infant. Breastmilk produced for a preterm baby often has a higher caloric content than breastmilk for a term baby. After the production of colostrum in the first days of life, the milk continues to mature. by week 4-6 milk can be considered fully mature. The average calories found in mature breastmilk are about 70kcal/100ml

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - At the age of 3 months, which of the following depicts normal motor...

    Incorrect

    • At the age of 3 months, which of the following depicts normal motor development?

      Your Answer: Attempts to crawl

      Correct Answer: Finger play with the hands open and brought together

      Explanation:

      By the age of three months a child should become more fascinated with their hands and fingers| they can bring their hand to their mouth, open and close their hand, and shake and grab at dangling objects and toys. Their ability to roll over will come by the time the child is 6 months, at which time they will also be able to sit with support. Soon, at 8-9 months, attempts will be made to crawl and as they approach 12 months they will be able to pull on objects to stand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 5 month old boy presents with unilateral jerking of the arm, followed...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old boy presents with unilateral jerking of the arm, followed by generalised shaking. Doctors suspect he might have experienced a fit. History taking and clinical examination shows he has a macular erythematous lesion under the right lower eyelid which has been present since birth. The lesion has not changed in size and aspect. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infantile haemangioma

      Correct Answer: Sturge–Weber syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sturge-Weber syndrome is a genetic condition affecting various blood vessels. I causes brain, eye, and skin abnormalities, including three major features: port-wine birthmark, leptomeningeal angioma, and glaucoma. Most people are born with a port-wine birthmark that is usually located on the face, including the eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 2-week-old infant is suffering from hydrocephalus that has developed secondary to congenital...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-week-old infant is suffering from hydrocephalus that has developed secondary to congenital spina bifida. Where in the brain is the CSF formed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Choroid plexuses

      Explanation:

      CSF is produced mainly by a structure called the choroid plexus in the lateral, third and fourth ventricles. CSF flows from the lateral ventricle to the third ventricle through the interventricular foramen (also called the foramen of Monro). The third ventricle and fourth ventricle are connected to each other by the cerebral aqueduct (also called the Aqueduct of Sylvius). CSF then flows into the subarachnoid space through the foramina of Luschka (there are two of these) and the foramen of Magendie (only one of these).Absorption of the CSF into the blood stream takes place in the superior sagittal sinus through structures called arachnoid villi . When the CSF pressure is greater than the venous pressure, CSF will flow into the blood stream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (3/3) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (3/3) 100%
Endocrinology (4/5) 80%
Nephro-urology (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Child Development (1/1) 100%
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