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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions may pre-dispose children to alopecia?
Your Answer: Precocious puberty
Correct Answer: Down's syndrome
Explanation:Alopecia areata is seen in 6-8.8% of patients with Down syndrome, but only 0.1% of patients with alopecia areata have Down syndrome. The high frequency of alopecia areata in patients with Down syndrome suggests that a genetic linkage for alopecia areata may exist on chromosome 21.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following developmental milestones is expected from a healthy 6-month-old child?
Your Answer: Uses a pincer grasp
Correct Answer: Puts everything to his/her mouth
Explanation:6 month old milestones:Social and Emotional:Knows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/Communication:Responds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical Development:Rolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 3
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl presents to A&E following a few days of being lethargic, having runny nose, sore throat, and fever. She has unceasing stridor and drooling of saliva while her body is inclined forward. What is the most important next step in her management?
Your Answer: Call ENT specialist
Explanation:A consultation with an ENT is required to establish the reason for the child’s drooling and stridor indicating and obstructive process. Enlarged tonsils and adenoids should be checked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the given clinical features is found in multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type 1?
Your Answer: Carcinoid tumours
Explanation:Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 is a rare, autosomal dominant disorder characterized by a higher propensity to develop various endocrine and nonendocrine tumours. The primary endocrine tumours that are a part of this disorder include carcinoid tumours and tumours of parathyroid, enteropancreatic, and anterior pituitary origin. Carcinoid tumours encountered in MEN type 1 are mostly of the foregut region. Non-endocrine tumours found in MEN type 1 include meningiomas and ependymomas, lipomas, angiofibromas, collagenomas, and leiomyomas. The pathogenesis of MEN type 1 is the inactivating mutation of the tumour suppressor gene MEN 1, which encodes the protein menin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A term baby with a birth weight of 4.2 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Chest X-ray shows good lung inflation. There is minimal chest “wobble” on the baby. Settings are mean airway pressure 16, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 0.5. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 94%. Blood gas shows pH 7.19, CO2 9.3 kPa, BE –5. What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?
Your Answer: Decrease delta P
Correct Answer: Increase delta P
Explanation:The baby is not clearing CO2 normally despite normal oxygenation so we should increase the delta P. Higher delta P will increase tidal volume and hence CO2 removal.After initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He has a history of neglect and poor dental hygiene.Which organism is likely to have caused his endocarditis?
Your Answer: Streptococci viridans
Explanation:Infective endocarditis occurs when microorganisms enter the bloodstream and infect damaged endocardium or endothelial tissue. It most commonly involves the heart valves (either native or prosthetic), but it may also occur at the site of a septal defect, on the chordae tendineae, or on the mural endocardium. The prototypic lesion is at the site of the infection| the vegetation is a mass of platelets, fibrin, microcolonies of microorganisms, and scant inflammatory cells. Endocarditis is classified as acute or subacute, which applies to the features and the progression of infection until diagnosis.The oral cavity, the skin, and the upper respiratory tract are the primary portals for Streptococcus viridans| Staphylococcus species| and Haemophilus aphrophilus, Aggregatibacter (formerly Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, and Kingella kingae (HACEK) organisms. Streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms are responsible for more than 80% of cases of bacterial IE.Streptococcus viridans accounts for approximately 50-60% of cases of subacute disease.While S aureus infection is the most common cause of IE, including Prosthetic valve endocarditis, acute IE, and IV Drug Abusers IE
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome?
Your Answer: Hypoplastic dental enamel
Explanation:Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a spectrum of disorders caused by a heritable genetic defect of connective tissue that has an autosomal dominant mode of transmission. The defect itself has been isolated to the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Abnormalities in this protein cause a myriad of distinct clinical problems, of which the musculoskeletal, cardiac, and ocular system problems predominate.The most severe of these clinical problems include aortic root dilatation and dissection, which have historically been the causative factors in early patient demise. Skeletal deformities such as thoracolumbar scoliosis, thoracic lordosis, and pectus excavatum, may lead to pulmonary difficulties that include restrictive airway disease and cor pulmonale if the deformities are progressive and untreated. Finally, blindness may result from unrecognized and untreated glaucoma, retinal detachment, and cataracts.The skeleton of patients with MFS typically displays multiple deformities including arachnodactyly (i.e., abnormally long and thin digits), dolichostenomelia (i.e., long limbs relative to trunk length), pectus deformities (i.e., pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum), and thoracolumbar scoliosis. In the cardiovascular system, aortic dilatation, aortic regurgitation, and aneurysms are the most worrisome clinical findings. Mitral valve prolapse that requires valve replacement can occur as well. Ocular findings include myopia, cataracts, retinal detachment, and superior dislocation of the lens.Other features:General tall staturePectus excavatum or carinatumDisproportionately long, slender armsDisproportionately long digitsArachnodactylyFinger contracturesReduced extension of elbows (< 170 degrees)Protrusio acetabuli (intrapelvic displacement of the acetabulum)Pes planus (flat feet)HypermobilityArthralgiaJoint instabilityScoliosisKyphosisDolichocephalia (elongated face)High arched palateDental crowdingDental malocclusion
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Correct
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A 15 year old girl presents to the clinic with a history of hard to control psoriasis. She is to start on ultraviolet B phototherapy as prescribed by her dermatologist. What is the mechanism of action of the phototherapy?
Your Answer: Induction of pyrimidine dimerization
Explanation:Psoriasis is an autoimmune dermatological condition that causes cells of the epidermal layer to rapidly develop, leading to itchy scaly plaques. Phototherapy with UV radiation has emerged as a new treatment for difficult to treat psoriasis. The therapy works by inducing epidermal cell apoptosis by DNA damage through the formation of pyrimidine dimerization, disrupting the cell cycle. This slows the rapid proliferation of cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 17-year-old boy is brought to the endocrinologist by his parents who are worried that he might have delayed growth as all his friends are taller than him. On examination, he has a preadolescent body habitus and no evidence of development of secondary sexual characteristics. Serum LH, FSH, and testosterone all match prepubertal range. Following an injection of GnRH, the LH and FSH concentrations increase only slightly. However, when the GnRH is given daily for 7 days, a normal response is elicited. Which of the following is the most likely causing this boy's delayed puberty?
Your Answer: A hypothalamic disorder
Explanation:Hypogonadotropic hypogonadismIn Kallmann syndrome: impaired migration of GnRH cells and defective olfactory bulb → ↓ GnRH in hypothalamus → ↓ FSH and ↓ LH → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogenIn hypothalamic and/or pituitary lesions: ↓ pituitary gonadotropins (↓ FSH and ↓ LH) → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogen
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 12-year-old female presented with a bleeding nose. On examination by the ENT surgeon, it was noticed that the bleeding was coming from the anterior part of the nose and the bleeding point was clearly visualised. Which of the following options is the most suitable choice in this case?
Your Answer: Cautery
Explanation:In the case of anterior nasal bleeds, when the bleeding point is clearly visualised the best management step is cautery, either electrical or chemical.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy presents with a patchy rash after treatment for an enlarged cervical lymph node and sore throat. What is the antibiotic that caused this rash?
Your Answer: Tetracycline
Correct Answer: Ampicillin
Explanation:An enlarged lymph node does not necessarily need treatment especially if it is caused by a virus. If it is bacterial, antibiotics should be prescribed. Amoxicillin is first line treatment in non-penicillin allergic patients and side effects include allergic reactions like skin rash and itching
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta?
Your Answer: If it occurs above the left subclavian artery, blood pressure elevation may be evident only in the left arm
Correct Answer: It can be accompanied by a bicuspid aortic valve
Explanation:Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases characterized by a congenitally narrowed down proximal thoracic aorta. This narrowing is usually located distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve. When the coarctation is located just above the left subclavian artery, raised blood pressure can be noted in the right arm. The most common type of murmur found in coarctation of the aorta is a diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation due to the presence of a bicuspid aortic valve. Exercise augmented cardiac output is only affected in cases where coarctation of the aorta leads to heart failure. Hypertension persists even after the surgical repair and needs to be closely monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy was sent for an x-ray of the leg because he was complaining of pain and swelling. The x-ray showed the classic sign of Codman's triangle. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Codman’s triangle is the triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when a lesion, often a tumour, raises the periosteum away from the bone. The main causes for this sign are osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, eumycetoma, and a subperiosteal abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Correct
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A normally developed 3-year-old child can do which one of the following tasks?
Your Answer: Make a tower out of 9 bricks
Explanation:3-year-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalCopies adults and friends Shows affection for friends without prompting Takes turns in games Shows concern for crying friend Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” Shows a wide range of emotions Separates easily from mom and dad May get upset with major changes in routineDresses and undresses self Language/CommunicationFollows instructions with 2 or 3 steps Can name most familiar things Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” Says first name, age, and sexNames a friend Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentences Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces Understands what “two” means Copies a circle with a pencil or crayon Turns book pages one at a time Builds towers of more than 6 blocks Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns the door handle Movement/Physical DevelopmentClimbs well Runs easily Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) Walks up and downstairs one foot on each step
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 15
Correct
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According to a cross-sectional survey of >500 subjects, an estimated 10% of a group of children that have a sibling with severe eczema, have asthma. On the other hand, only 0.5% without a sibling with severe eczema have asthma. You want to test the difference of 9.5% for significance. Which of the following tests would you use?
Your Answer: Fisher’s exact test
Explanation:To quantify differences between percentages you can use Fisher’s exact test.Odds ratios, relative risks and number needed to treat are ways of quantifying differences between percentages in two groups, however are not in themselves significance tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 16
Correct
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Which of the following facts and figures is true regarding vitamin A?
Your Answer: Children with measles should receive additional vitamin A supplementation
Explanation:Vitamin A is a fat-soluble compound occurring in various forms. The RDA for 0-12 months old babies is 400-600micrograms/day. Most of the vitamin A is stored in the liver, making animal liver an excellent source of vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency is characterized by the deposits of keratin in the conjunctiva, known as Bitot’s spots, keratomalacia, night blindness, and anaemia.Vitamin A toxicity or excess is characterized by hyperkeratosis, hypothyroidism, hypo/hyperpigmentation, etc.According to WHO guidelines, children under two years of age who develop measles should be given two additional doses of vitamin A supplementation 24 hours apart, which is necessary for preventing eye damage, blindness, and reducing mortality by 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex
Correct Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Explanation:Maternal and fetal toxoplasma infection may be avoided by advising pregnant women to wear gloves when gardening or handling cat litter and to cook meat thoroughly. Affected babies are treated with pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folic acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 18
Correct
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A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac fossa. Doctors suspect appendicitis. The appendix derives from which of the following embryological structures:
Your Answer: Midgut
Explanation:From the midgut derives most of the small intestine as well as some parts of the large intestine, including the appendix. The appendix is at the base of caecum, up to 10cm long and mainly comprised of lymphoid tissue (Hence mesenteric adenitis may mimic appendicitis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old female suffering from acne vulgaris has been started on isotretinoin. Regarding this treatment, which of the following statements is the most applicable?
Your Answer: It can cause hirsutism
Correct Answer: Pregnancy should be avoided during and 1 month after treatment
Explanation:It is recommended that a woman wait one month after stopping isotretinoin before trying to become pregnant. Usually, isotretinoin is no longer found in a woman’s blood 4-5 days after the last dose and most of its by-products should be gone within 10 days after the last dose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 4 year old boy is wetting his bed at night or whenever he gets excited. His parents are concerned. What is the best strategy?
Your Answer: Behavioural therapy
Explanation:Generally, bed-wetting before age 7 isn’t a concern as the child may still be developing night-time bladder control. The child is less than 5 years and most children will outgrow bed-wetting on their own. Therefore only reassurance and behavioural therapy are suggested at this stage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 21
Correct
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A new-born delivered at term with a birth weight of 2.5kgs was admitted to the NICU with suspected congenital TB. Her mother is HIV positive and is on HAART, recently diagnosed with tuberculosis 1 week ago. All of the following are features of congenital tuberculosis EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Congenital TB symptoms typically develop during the second or third week of life and include poor feeding, poor weight gain, cough, lethargy, and irritability. Other symptoms include fever, ear discharge, and skin lesions.Signs of congenital TB include failure to thrive, icterus, hepatosplenomegaly, tachypnoea, and lymphadenopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 22
Correct
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A new-born child is not moving his left arm properly. He had shoulder dystocia during childbirth. His arm is hanging down with the shoulder internally rotated, elbow extended, forearm pronated and wrist flexed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Erb palsy
Explanation:Erb’s palsy is a paralysis of the arm caused by injury to the brachial plexus, specifically the severing of the upper trunk C5–C6 nerves.The infant with an upper plexus palsy (C5-C7) keeps the arm adducted and internally rotated, with the elbow extended, the forearm pronated, the wrist flexed, and the hand in a fist. In the first hours of life, the hand also may appear flaccid, but strength returns over days to months.The right side is injured in 51% of cases. Left side occurs in 45% of patients and bilateral injuries, in 4%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 23
Correct
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An infant presents with the following constellation of symptoms:- Cleft palate- Tetralogy of Fallot- HypocalcaemiaBased on the clinical scenario, what is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer: Di George syndrome
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the patient would be DiGeorge syndrome due to 22q11 deletion. It causes embryonic defects of the third and fourth branchial arches. It is sporadic in 90% of cases and 10 % inherited from parents as autosomal dominant.Characterised by distinct facial features (micrognathia, cleft palate, short philtrum, and low-set ears), hypocalcaemia, mental retardation, cardiac defects (especially tetralogy of Fallot), and immune deficiencies.A useful memory aid is CATCH-22:- Cardiac defects- Abnormal facial features- Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia- Cleft palate- Hypocalcaemia/Hypoparathyroidism- 22 – Due to 22q11 deletion
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 24
Correct
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What is the gestational age by which the lung buds are formed?
Your Answer: Embryonic: 4-5 weeks gestation
Explanation:Lung buds are formed by 4-5 weeks of gestation.Development of the respiratory tract has five stages:- Embryonic (at 4 – 5 weeks of gestation):Formation of lung buds, trachea and mainstem bronchi occur. These structures are formed from a ventral outpouching of foregut pharynx. At this stage, the beginnings of the five lung lobes are present.- Pseudoglandular (at 5 – 16 weeks of gestation):Formation of terminal bronchioles, cartilage and smooth muscles occur in this stage. Adult numbers of airways proximal to acini are in place.- Canalicular (at 16-24 weeks gestation): Differentiation of type I and II epithelial cells can be done in this stage. There is also an increase in the size of proximal airways).- Saccular (at 24 – 40 weeks of gestation): Terminal saccule formation occurs. Production of surfactant takes place at this stage with an increase in the number of goblet cellsUp to half the adult number of alveoli are in place by this stage.- Alveolar (occurs between 32 weeks of gestation till the post-natal age 8): Formation of alveoli and septation occurs with the expansion of air spaces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 25
Correct
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What is the most likely infectious agent implicated in mastitis?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Infectious mastitis and breast abscesses are predominantly caused by bacteria that colonize the skin. S. aureus is the most common causative agent, followed by coagulase-negative Staphylococci. The majority of S. aureus isolated are now methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA)Some breast infections (and up to 40% of breast abscesses) may be polymicrobial, with the isolation of aerobes (Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, Enterobacteriaceae, Corynebacterium, Escherichia coli, and Pseudomonas) as well as anaerobes (Peptostreptococcus, Propionibacterium, Bacteroides, Lactobacillus, Eubacterium, Clostridium, Fusobacterium, and Veillonella). A study of primary and recurrent breast abscesses showed that smokers were more likely to have anaerobes recovered (isolated in 15% of patients).Unusual breast infections may be the initial presentation of HIV infection. Typhoid is a well-recognized cause of breast abscesses in countries where this disease is prevalent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 5 month old baby presents with bilious vomiting. Doctors notice a palpable mass and drawing up of legs. They treat the baby with an air reduction enema, suspecting intussusception. However, the procedure is interrupted as the baby develops abdominal distention and starts to drop their saturations. What would be the single most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Immediate needle decompression of pneumoperitoneum
Explanation:Immediate needle decompression of pneumoperitoneum is necessary to avoid tension pneumoperitoneum. Air reduction enema is the main stay of treatment for intussusception and is successful in around 90% of cases. A serious potential risk of this procedure is perforation of the colon and a pneumoperitoneum, leading to rapid distension of the abdomen and splinting of the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 8 year old child complains of pain in his ear. His overall health is normal and clinical examination reveals no discharge, hearing loss or fever. Just by looking at it, the pinna of the ear looks swollen and red. Also, pushing the tragus leads to pain. Otoscopy reveals an erythematous external auditory canal and an otherwise healthy tympanic membrane. The bony external canal courses through which bone?
Your Answer: Sphenoid bone
Correct Answer: Temporal bone
Explanation:The external auditory canal (EAC) extends from the auricle to the tympanic membrane. Its lateral portion is fibrocartilaginous and its medial portion is bony. Its bony portion is formed by the tympanic portion of the temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 28
Correct
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The differentiation of type I and type II epithelial cells in the developing lung is evident in which gestational age?
Your Answer: Canalicular: 16-24 weeks gestation
Explanation:The differentiation between type 1 and type 2 epithelia in the developing lung buds is evident from 16-24 weeks of gestation.Development of the respiratory tract has five stages:- Embryonic (at 4 – 5 weeks of gestation):Formation of lung buds, trachea and mainstem bronchi occur. These structures are formed from a ventral outpouching of foregut pharynx. At this stage, the beginnings of the five lung lobes are present.- Pseudoglandular (at 5 – 16 weeks of gestation):Formation of terminal bronchioles, cartilage and smooth muscles occur in this stage. – Canalicular (at 16-24 weeks gestation): Differentiation of type I and II epithelial cells can be done in this stage. There is also an increase in the size of proximal airways).- Saccular (at 24 – 40 weeks of gestation): Terminal saccule formation occurs. Production of surfactant takes place at this stage with an increase in the number of goblet cellsUp to half the adult number of alveoli are in place by this stage.- Alveolar (occurs between 32 weeks of gestation till the post-natal age 8): Formation of alveoli and septation occurs with the expansion of air spaces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 29
Correct
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Which of the following is true about haemophilia C?
Your Answer: Prothrombin time (PT) is normal
Explanation:In haemophilia C, The severity of the deficiency is based on plasma factor XIC (clotting) activity. Major factor XI deficiency is present when the activity of factor XI in plasma is less than 1-15 IU/dL.In major deficiency factor XI, bleeding is related to injury, especially when trauma involves tissues rich in fibrinolytic activators, such as the oral mucosa, the nose, and the urinary tract. Unlike patients with severe haemophilia A or B, patients with major factor XI deficiency do not spontaneously bleed.The aPTT is usually prolonged in factor XI deficiency (but depends on the sensitivity of the reagent and test system–partial deficiency can be missed), whereas the PT and TT are normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 2 month old baby presents to the clinic with vomiting. On examination he has ambiguous genitalia. The lab results are as follows: Na: 125mmol/L, K: 6mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this patient's presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) comprises a group of autosomal recessive defects in enzymes that are responsible for cortisol, aldosterone, and, in very rare cases, androgen synthesis. All forms of CAH are characterized by low levels of cortisol, high levels of ACTH, and adrenal hyperplasia. The exact clinical manifestations depend on the enzyme defect. The most common form of CAH, which is caused by a deficiency of 21β-hydroxylase, presents with hypotension, ambiguous genitalia, and virilization (in the female genotype), and/or precocious puberty (in both males and females). It is further characterized by hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Increased levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone confirm the diagnosis of 21β-hydroxylase deficiency. Treatment of CAH involves lifelong glucocorticoid replacement therapy. Patients with a 21β-hydroxylase deficiency also require mineralocorticoid replacement with fludrocortisone. Complications of CAH include severe hypoglycaemia, adrenal insufficiency, and/or a failure to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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