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Question 1
Correct
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A healthy 12-month-old infant should be able to do which of the following?
Your Answer: Wave bye -bye
Explanation:Milestones of 12-month-old child are as follows:Social and Emotional- Is shy or nervous with strangers- Cries when mom or dad leaves- Has favourite things and people camera- Shows fear in some situations- Hands you a book when he wants to hear a story- Repeats sounds or actions to get attention- Puts out arm or leg to help with dressing – Plays games such as “peek-a-boo” and “pat-a-cake” Language/Communication- Responds to simple spoken requests- Uses simple gestures, like shaking head “no” or waving “bye-bye”- Makes sounds with changes in tone (sounds more like speech)- Says “mama” and “dada” and exclamations like “uh-oh!”- Tries to say words you sayCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)- Explores things in different ways, like shaking, banging, throwing- Finds hidden things easily- Looks at the right picture or thing when it’s named- Copies gestures- Starts to use things correctly| for example, drinks from a cup, brushes hair- Bangs two things together- Puts things in a container, takes things out of a container- Lets things go without help- Pokes with index (pointer) finger – Follows simple directions like “pick up the toy”Movement/Physical Development- Gets to a sitting position without help – Pulls up to stand, walks holding on to furniture (“cruising”)- May take a few steps without holding on- May stand alone
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 2
Correct
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A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of multiple red lesions, elevated temperature and pain in multiple joints all over the body. Her symptoms started after her return from a school summer camp. On examination, she was found to have features of facial nerve injury. Her mother observes that the rash was initially small but later transformed into a ring-like lesion. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for the child's symptoms?
Your Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi
Explanation:The presentation of the patient and the characteristic ring-like (Bull’s eye) rash are highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. The spirochete is transmitted by Ixodid ticks. The initial presentation of this infection includes an erythema migrans rash that starts from the site of tick bite and gradually expands. Other features supporting the diagnosis are the history of camping, fever, joint pain, and the neurological symptoms presenting as facial nerve palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 3 year old male presents to the genetics clinic with a history of proximal myopathy. He has missed motor milestones and has pseudohypertrophy of the calves. Doctors suspect it might be Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Which of the following should you advise the parents?
Your Answer: Girl offspring have a less than 10% chance of inheriting the condition
Explanation:Although initially thought to affect only boys, girls with DMD also have an estimated 10% chance of inheriting the condition. In girls, DMD may present with all or some clinical manifestations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 4
Correct
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A young female presents with vaginal discharge and itching. She is diagnosed with prepubertal atrophic vaginitis. What is the pathophysiology behind prepubertal atrophic vaginitis?
Your Answer: Lack of vaginal oestrogen causing infection-prone alkaline environment
Explanation:Prepubertal atrophic vaginitis is due to a lack of vaginal oestrogen. The pathophysiology behind prepubertal atrophic vaginitis:1.The proximity of the vagina to the anus2.Lack of oestrogen – leads to thinning of the vaginal mucosa3.Lack of pubic hair to protect the area4.Lack of labial fat pads
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 5
Correct
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According to a cross-sectional survey of >500 subjects, an estimated 10% of a group of children that have a sibling with severe eczema, have asthma. On the other hand, only 0.5% without a sibling with severe eczema have asthma. You want to test the difference of 9.5% for significance. Which of the following tests would you use?
Your Answer: Fisher’s exact test
Explanation:To quantify differences between percentages you can use Fisher’s exact test.Odds ratios, relative risks and number needed to treat are ways of quantifying differences between percentages in two groups, however are not in themselves significance tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of malaise and inability to participate in physical activities due to exhaustion. His vitals, including the blood pressure are within the normal range and the labs are as follows: sodium 145 mmol/lpotassium 2.8 mmol/lbicarbonate 30 mmol/lchloride 83 mmol/l (95-107)magnesium 0.5 mmol/l (0.75-1.05)glucose 5.0 mmol/lrenin 5.1 mmol/ml per h (3-4.3)aldosterone 975 mmol/l (330-830)urea 5.2 mmol/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gitelman’s syndrome
Explanation:Gitelman syndrome is a kidney disorder that causes an imbalance of charged atoms (ions) in the body, including ions of potassium, magnesium, and calcium.The signs and symptoms of Gitelman syndrome usually appear in late childhood or adolescence. Common features of this condition include painful muscle spasms (tetany), muscle weakness or cramping, dizziness, and salt craving. Also common is a tingling or prickly sensation in the skin (paraesthesia), most often affecting the face. Some individuals with Gitelman syndrome experience excessive tiredness (fatigue), low blood pressure, and a painful joint condition called chondrocalcinosis. Studies suggest that Gitelman syndrome may also increase the risk of a potentially dangerous abnormal heart rhythm called ventricular arrhythmia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents who are worried that their child may have stopped growing. Which of the following hormones is chiefly responsible for cessation of growth and epiphyseal fusion?
Your Answer: Thyroxine
Correct Answer: Oestrogen
Explanation:Many factors are related with the stimulation of bone formation and growth, the pubertal growth spurt, epiphyseal senescence, and fusion, including nutritional, cellular, paracrine, and endocrine factors. An important cellular factor in these processes is the differentiation and aging of chondrocytes in the growth plate. Important paracrine factors include the many molecular pathways involved in chondrocyte differentiation, vascularization, and ossification. Oestrogen and the GH-IGF-I axis are important endocrine factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Correct
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A woman gives birth to a baby at 32 weeks of gestation by spontaneous vaginal delivery. The new-born looks floppy, irritable, and drowsy and soon has a seizure. His blood sugar levels and CRP are normal and the doctors refer the baby for urgent neuroimaging. What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Intracranial haemorrhage
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests intracranial haemorrhage which is uncommon but prevalent in pre-term babies. The rest of the options suggest peripheral causes which do not affect the central function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding the anterior pituitary gland?
Your Answer: The majority of hormone production occurs in the pars distalis
Explanation:The pituitary gland synthesizes and releases various hormones that affect several organs throughout the body.The pituitary gland is entirely ectodermal in origin but is composed of 2 functionally distinct structures that differ in embryologic development and anatomy: the adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary) and the neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary).The anterior pituitary has three main regions:Pars distalis: Where the main hormone production occursPars tuberalis: Joins the pituitary stalk arising from the posterior pituitary glandPars intermedia: Divides the anterior and posterior parts of the pituitary gland. The pars distalis forms the majority of the adenohypophysis and resembles a typical endocrine gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following conditions are most commonly associated with pruritus:
Your Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Itchy skin conditions include:Allergy & anaphylaxisAthletes footAtopic dermatitisContact dermatitisDrug allergyErythema multiformeFolliculitisImpetigoInsect bites, stings, infestationsKawasaki diseaseLichen planusNummular eczemaPityriasis roseaPsoriasisScabiesTinea corporisToxic epidermal necrolysisUrticariaVaricellaViral exanthemNote: Miliaria rubra is itchy, miliaria profunda usually isn’t.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding, dizziness, and sweating. Her mother reports that she appears slightly pale and feels frightened during these episodes. These episodes occur at different times during the day and a few times a week. There is no clear history suggestive of a trigger. She has no other known medical problems. Which of the following is the most probable underlying cause for these episodes?
Your Answer: Atrio-ventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT)
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the patient in question is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT).The presenting features of the patient are suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The most common form of SVT in children over 8 years old is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia. It occurs as a result of an additional electrical circuit in or near the AV node itself.Other options:- Atrial Flutter: is a form of re-entry tachycardia within the atria which then becomes unsynchronised with the ventricles, which is not the case here. Furthermore, it is most common in babies and children with congenital heart disease.- Atrial tachycardia: is a condition where an area of atrium takes over the pacemaker activity of the heart. However, it is relatively uncommon.- Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT): occurs due to an accessory electrical pathway between the atria and ventricles forming a re-entry circuit. This is the most common cause of SVT in children < 8 years old. One of the specific diagnoses of AVRT is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. However, WPW syndrome is much rarer than AVNRT.- Premature atrial contractions (PACs): are very common in normal, healthy children and adolescents. Occasionally, they can give rise to the feeling of a 'skipped beat'. Fortunately, they are rarely associated with any significant underlying pathology or need to be treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Correct
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A 6 year old girl presents with an episode of DKA and receives a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following injection complications are more prevalent?
Your Answer: Lipohypertrophy
Explanation:Lypohypertrophy is the most common skin-related complication of insulin injection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 15 month old boy has a history of repeated bacterial pneumonia, failure to thrive and a sputum culture positive for H.influenzea and S.pneumoniae. There is no history of congenital anomalies. He is most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Explanation:Recurrent bacterial infections may be due to lack of B-cell function, consequently resulting in a lack of gamma globulins production. Once the maternal antibodies have depleted, the disease manifests with greater severity and is called x-linked agammaglobulinemia also known as ‘X-linked hypogammaglobulinemia’, ‘XLA’ or ‘Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia. it is a rare x linked genetic disorder that compromises the bodies ability to fight infections.
Acute leukaemia causes immunodeficiency but not so specific.
DiGeorge syndrome is due to lack of T cell function.
Aplastic anaemia and EBV infection does not cause immunodeficiency. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Correct
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A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alvarado score
Explanation:The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 15
Correct
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Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate for Turner Syndrome?
Your Answer: Fetal loss in the first trimester is common
Explanation:Turners syndrome is a chromosomal syndrome affecting the development of females. In this condition, all or part of the X chromosome gets deleted, producing the Karyotype 45 XO or 45XO/46XX. Spontaneous foetal loss is common in the first trimester, but foetuses which survive are born small for date, and may have lymphedema, and poor feeding in the neonatal period. These patients face numerous medical and developmental problems throughout their lifetimes including growth and puberty failure due to premature ovarian failure/ hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. However spontaneous puberty can be seen in up to 20% of females with Turner’s syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 14-month-old boy is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother with complaints of vomiting, abdominal pain, and rectal bleeding. On examination, he is found to be dehydrated, and a palpable abdominal mass was felt. A Meckel's scan proved to be negative. However, the ultrasound scan did reveal a target sign.What is the most probable cause of the patient's complaints?
Your Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms is intussusception.Intussusception is a condition in which part of the intestine folds into the section next to it. It most commonly involves the small bowel and rarely the large bowel. Intussusception doesn’t usually require surgical correction. 80% of cases can be both confirmed and reduced using barium, water-soluble or air-contrast enema. However, up to 10% of cases can experience recurrence within 24 hours after reduction, warranting close monitoring during this period.Other options:- Enteric duplication: a duplication cyst could give all these features, although it may contain sufficient gastric epithelium to produce a positive Meckel’s scan. However, this is comparatively rare. – Meckel’s diverticulum: Scintigraphy has poor sensitivity making the possibility of a bleed from a Meckel’s diverticulum a genuine differential for this patient. However, considering the presence of features of bowel obstruction in the patient, a Meckel’s diverticulum bleeding and obstructing at the same time would be a rare phenomenon. – Midgut volvulus: It is also a plausible differential in this patient. However, for the given age group, a midgut volvulus is relatively uncommon compared to intussusception. – Acute appendicitis: While it is true that appendicitis can present acutely with a palpable mass and bowel obstruction, it rarely presents with rectal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori?
Your Answer: It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium with sheathed flagella
Correct Answer: Splitting urea to release nitrogen decreases the pH in the stomach
Explanation:H. pylori release the enzyme urease that has the ability to split urea releasing nitrogen. This process increases the pH in the gastric antrum making the gastric pH less acidic.Helicobacter pylori:It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium. It is one of the most common causes of antral gastritis in children. Ulcers are less common in children compared with adults| however, when they occur, they are more common in the duodenum.The presence of H.pylori can be confirmed by:- Stool antigen test (preferred)- Serology- Endoscopy with biopsy and culture- Rapid urease testsH.pylori gastritis may be associated with:- Iron deficiency anaemia- Gastric malignancy Management:The treatment is with triple therapy- two antibiotics, and an antacid.Treatment failure is often attributed to a possible worldwide increase in macrolide resistance. Interestingly, children have higher antibiotic resistance compared with adults.Note:Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) causes gastrin-secreting tumours and can present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)- an autosomal dominant disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the clinic with a concern that many of his friends are now taller than him. He feels that he has not grown as they have. On physical examination, sparse dark coarse hair was observed over the junction of the pubes. He reports having noticed some enlargement of his penis and growth of his testis. His testicular volume was measured to be 8 ml. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Normal puberty
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the boy is going through normal pubertal changes.In the 3 years before puberty, low pulsatile LH levels become detectable during sleep. LH and FSH are produced in the anterior pituitary and released due to pulsatile gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) secreted by the hypothalamus. There is an increase in the amplitude and frequency of LH secretion as puberty approaches, which causes enlargement of the gonads. In boys, the testicles produce testosterone, and in girls, the ovaries produce oestradiol and ovarian androgens, which, with the adrenal androgens, produce secondary sexual characteristics.Note:The average age at onset of puberty is 11 years in girls. The first sign is breast bud development, followed by the appearance of pubic hair 6–12 months later. Menarche usually occurs 2–2.5 years after breast bud development. Peak height velocity in girls occurs at breast stage 2–3 and virtually always precedes menarche. The onset of puberty in boys is at 11.5 years. The first sign is testicular enlargement (>3 ml) and thinning of the scrotum. This is followed by the pigmentation of the scrotum and growth of the penis, and pubic hair follows. Peak height velocity (growth spurt) is two years later in boys than in girls and occurs at testicular stage 4–5 (i.e. testicular volume 10–12 ml), which is around 13–14 years of age. Breast enlargement occurs in 40–60% of boys (rarely, significant enough to cause social embarrassment in 10%) and is a result of oestradiol produced by the metabolism of testosterone. It usually resolves within three years. During puberty, elongation of the eye often occurs, causing short-sightedness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following best describes odds ratios?
Your Answer: The odds of an event in one group divided by the odds of the event in another
Explanation:Odds ratios are best described as the odds of an event in one group divided by the odds of the event in another. They form an alternative to the relative risk in case–control studies and are close to the relative risk when events are rare. The odds are the number of the event divided by the number without the event, which is less intuitive than the risk, which is the number with the event divided by the total. Odds ratios are therefore less intuitive than relative risks. Logistic regression analysis outputs variable coefficients which are the log of the odds ratio.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools?
Your Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Biliary atresia is a rare condition that causes obstructive jaundice. Without surgical treatment, e.g. Roux-en-Y, Kasai procedure or liver transplantation, death is likely by 2 years of age. The aetiology of biliary atresia is unknown. Theories suggest a multitude of etiological and causative factors that are both genetic and acquired.The other conditions do not cause a conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A nervous father is concerned about the development of his 4-month-old baby.Which one of the following statements is true regarding developmental milestones at 4 months of age?
Your Answer: The ability to reach for a toy with one hand is not expected at around 4 months of age
Correct Answer: The ability to string vowels together whilst babbling is not expected at around 4 months of age
Explanation:Developmental milestones at 4 months of age:Social and Emotional:Smiles spontaneously, especially at people Likes to play with people and might cry when playing stops Copies some movements and facial expressions, like smiling or frowningLanguage/CommunicationBegins to babble Babbles with expression and copies sounds he hears Cries in different ways to show hunger, pain, or being tiredCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Lets you know if he is happy or sad Responds to affectionReaches for a toy with one hand Uses hands and eyes together, such as seeing a toy and reaching for it Follows moving things with eyes from side to side Watches faces closely Recognizes familiar people and things at a distance Movement/Physical DevelopmentHolds head steady, unsupported Pushes down on legs when feet are on a hard surface May be able to roll over from tummy to back Can hold a toy and shake it and swing at dangling toys Brings hands to mouth When lying on stomach, pushes up to elbows
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 22
Correct
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A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue has most likely suffered damage to which nerve?
Your Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) provides motor innervation to all of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except for the palatoglossus muscle, which is innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X). It runs superficial to the hyoglossus muscle. Lesions of the hypoglossal nerve cause deviation of the tongue to the ipsilateral (i.e., damaged) side.Taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is achieved through innervation from the chorda tympani nerve, a branch of the facial nerve (CN VII). General sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is by innervation from the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). The lingual nerve is located deep and medial to the hyoglossus muscle and is associated with the submandibular ganglion.On the other hand, taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue is accomplished through innervation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which also provides general sensation to the posterior one-third of the tongue.Taste perception also is performed by both the epiglottis and the epiglottic region of the tongue, which receives taste and general sensation from innervation by the internal laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN X). Damage to the vagus nerve (CN X) causes contralateral deviation (i.e., away from the injured side) of the uvula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 23
Correct
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A clinical trial is conducted to study the benefits of a new oral medication to improve the symptoms of patients with asthma. In the trial 400 patients with asthma, half were given the new medication and half a placebo. Three months later they are asked to rate their symptoms using the following scale: much improved, slight improvement, no change, slight worsening, significantly worse. What is the most appropriate statistical test to see whether the new medication is beneficial?
Your Answer: Mann-Whitney U test
Explanation:The type of significance test used depends on whether the data is parametric (can be measured, usually normally distributed) or non-parametric.
Parametric tests:
Student’s t-test – paired or unpaired*
Pearson’s product-moment coefficient – correlationNon-parametric tests:
Mann-Whitney U test – unpaired data
Wilcoxon signed-rank test – compares two sets of observations on a single sample
chi-squared test – used to compare proportions or percentages
Spearman, Kendall rank – correlation.The outcome measured is not normally distributed, i.e. it is non-parametric. This excludes the Student’s t-tests. We are not comparing percentages/proportions so the chi-squared test is excluded. The Mann–Whitney U test is a nonparametric test of the null hypothesis that it is equally likely that a randomly selected value from one sample will be less than or greater than a randomly selected value from a second sample.
This test can be used to investigate whether two independent samples were selected from populations having the same distribution. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 24
Correct
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A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his friends after he collapsed at a dance club and developed jerky movements of his upper limbs. On further questioning, it is revealed that the boy has been clumsier than usual and has frequently been dropping his toothbrush while brushing his teeth in the morning. From the drugs provided below, which one should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is an epilepsy syndrome characterized by myoclonic jerks, generalized tonic-clonic seizures (GTCSs), and sometimes, absence seizures. The seizures of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy often occur when people first awaken in the morning. Seizures can be triggered by lack of sleep, extreme fatigue, stress, or alcohol consumption. Onset typically occurs around adolescence in otherwise healthy children. The causes of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy are very complex and not completely understood. Mutations in one of several genes, including the GABRA1 and the EFHC1 genes, can cause or increase susceptibility to this condition. Although patients usually require lifelong treatment with anticonvulsants, their overall prognosis is generally good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 25
Correct
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A 2 month old baby presents to the clinic with vomiting. On examination he has ambiguous genitalia. The lab results are as follows: Na: 125mmol/L, K: 6mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) comprises a group of autosomal recessive defects in enzymes that are responsible for cortisol, aldosterone, and, in very rare cases, androgen synthesis. All forms of CAH are characterized by low levels of cortisol, high levels of ACTH, and adrenal hyperplasia. The exact clinical manifestations depend on the enzyme defect. The most common form of CAH, which is caused by a deficiency of 21β-hydroxylase, presents with hypotension, ambiguous genitalia, and virilization (in the female genotype), and/or precocious puberty (in both males and females). It is further characterized by hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Increased levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone confirm the diagnosis of 21β-hydroxylase deficiency. Treatment of CAH involves lifelong glucocorticoid replacement therapy. Patients with a 21β-hydroxylase deficiency also require mineralocorticoid replacement with fludrocortisone. Complications of CAH include severe hypoglycaemia, adrenal insufficiency, and/or a failure to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?
Your Answer: T cells
Explanation:Patients with HIV have a deficiency of CD4 lymphocytes which are also known as helper T cells (Th). They are involved with antigen-specific responses as well as delayed-type hypersensitivity. The risk of developing P. jiroveci pneumonia is greatest with a CD4 count of 200 x 109/l or below.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 27
Correct
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A 14-year-old female was found to have a 1/6 systolic ejection murmur on regular check-up and was subsequently referred to a cardiologist. A thorough physical examination reveals long upper extremities with thin slender fingers, with a high arched palate and excessive ligamentous laxity. Her thumb can be bent back easily to touch her radius. ECG reveals sinus bradycardia that is consistent with aerobic conditioning. She also had an echo done. In reference to her most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most serious cardiac complication associated to this condition?
Your Answer: Aortic dissection
Explanation:Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 28
Correct
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An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents to the clinic with a history of swelling of both wrists. He has been complaining of painful legs and his parents are concerned about his bandy legs. The child was breastfed until 6 months of age, with solids being introduced in the diet later. At 12 months of age the child suffered from a non-stick fracture of the radius after falling at the nursery. Which condition is the child most likely suffering from?
Your Answer: Vitamin D-deficient rickets
Explanation:The signs and symptoms of vitamin D-dependent rickets begin within months after birth, and most are the same for all types of the condition. The weak bones often cause bone pain and delayed growth and have a tendency to fracture. When affected children begin to walk, they may develop abnormally curved (bowed) legs because the bones are too weak to bear weight. Impaired bone development also results in widening of the metaphysis, especially in the knees, wrists, and ribs. Some people with vitamin D-dependent rickets have dental abnormalities such as thin tooth enamel and frequent cavities. Poor muscle tone (hypotonia) and muscle weakness are also common in this condition, and some affected individuals develop seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A male child presents with pallor and bruising. He is deaf and his thumbs are dysplastic. Clinical and paraclinical exams suggest an acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fanconi syndrome
Correct Answer: Fanconi anaemia
Explanation:Fanconi anaemia, a rare autosomal recessive condition, presents with congenital abnormalities and defective hemopoiesis. Clinical signs include pallor and bruising. Hypoplasia of the thumbs and radial hypoplasia are two of the most common congenital abnormalities. Conductive deafness is also common. Those with Fanconi anaemia have a higher risk for developing acute myeloid leukaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with a swollen left knee following a fall. Her parents state she suffers from haemophilia and has been treated for a right-sided haemarthrosis previously. What other condition is she most likely to have?
Your Answer: Hunter's syndrome
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Haemophilia is a X-linked recessive disorder. In X-linked recessive inheritance only males are affected. An exception to this seen in examinations are patients with Turner’s syndrome, who are affected due to only having one X chromosome. X-linked recessive disorders are transmitted by heterozygote females (carriers) and male-to-male transmission is not seen. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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