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  • Question 1 - A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents...

    Correct

    • A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents take him to their GP, worried that he isn't communicating with them like he used to.What is the most likely complication of meningitis that he developed?

      Your Answer: Sensorineural deafness

      Explanation:

      Possible complications include:- Hearing loss (which may be partial or total)- problems with memory and concentration- problems with coordination and balance- learning difficulties (which may be temporary or permanent)- epilepsy (Seizures)- cerebral palsy- speech problems- vision loss (which may be partial or total)As hearing loss is the most common complication of meningitis people recovering from the condition are usually given a hearing test to assess their hearing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac fossa. Doctors suspect appendicitis. The appendix derives from which of the following embryological structures:

      Your Answer: Midgut

      Explanation:

      From the midgut derives most of the small intestine as well as some parts of the large intestine, including the appendix. The appendix is at the base of caecum, up to 10cm long and mainly comprised of lymphoid tissue (Hence mesenteric adenitis may mimic appendicitis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - According to a cross-sectional survey of >500 subjects, an estimated 10% of a...

    Correct

    • According to a cross-sectional survey of >500 subjects, an estimated 10% of a group of children that have a sibling with severe eczema, have asthma. On the other hand, only 0.5% without a sibling with severe eczema have asthma. You want to test the difference of 9.5% for significance. Which of the following tests would you use?

      Your Answer: Fisher’s exact test

      Explanation:

      To quantify differences between percentages you can use Fisher’s exact test.Odds ratios, relative risks and number needed to treat are ways of quantifying differences between percentages in two groups, however are not in themselves significance tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was...

    Correct

    • A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was no time for the administration of antenatal steroids. The baby was successfully intubated, and the first dose of surfactant had been given. Despite good chest wall movement and 2 min of chest compressions the heart rate remains very slow. The baby is approximately 18min old when the consultant arrives. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this case?

      Your Answer: Consider reorientating care

      Explanation:

      The withdrawal and withholding of care has been reported in neonatology for over 30 years. ‘Withdrawal’ of life-saving treatment implies the elective discontinuation of ongoing life-supportive measures. ‘Withholding’ of treatment occurs when interventions necessary for immediate survival, such as surgical intervention or resuscitation (bag and mask/endotracheal ventilation, cardiac massage or adrenaline) are deliberately not administered.Withdrawal of treatment most commonly takes the form of withdrawing of ventilatory support. In the extremely premature neonate who has had poor response to bag and mask ventilation, this may mean stopping ventilation breaths, explaining to the parents the reason for discontinuation and offering comfort care according to the parents’ wishes. Parents should be prepared for the sequelae that may follow withdrawal from mechanical ventilation. The infant may become agitated secondary to hypoxia, display terminal gasping and, depending on the size and gestation of their infant, tachypnoea, intercostal recession or stridor may be evident. Parents may want to be involved in the extubation process. Following ventilator withdrawal, the length of time prior to death cannot be predicted and can be a significant cause of parental anguish if this is not explained. A side room and privacy should be made available for the family. NICE guidance suggests that women ‘should not be encouraged to hold their dead baby if they do not wish to’, although this is very much dependent on individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic Still’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      127.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 6 week old girl presents with intermittent rectal bleeding. She is breastfed...

    Correct

    • A 6 week old girl presents with intermittent rectal bleeding. She is breastfed and otherwise healthy. Doctors suggest the baby has allergic proctitis. What of the following should the mother do and what should she feed her baby at this point?

      Your Answer: Continue to breast-feed| mother to go onto a strict milk- and soya-free diet

      Explanation:

      This is probably a case of protein-induced allergic proctitis, due to dietary protein transmitted through the mother to the breast-fed child. The mother should go on a milk-free and soya-free diet but continue to breast-feed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 3 year old child was brought in by her father with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 3 year old child was brought in by her father with complaints of watery diarrhoea, vomiting and low grade fever. She looked slightly dehydrated. According to her parents, the other children in the school also have a similar illness. The most likely causative organism in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Rotavirus

      Explanation:

      Rota virus is the leading cause of vital gastroenteritis among children from 6 months to 6 years of age. It is transferred by feco-oral route and it damages the transport mechanism in the intestinal mucosal cells which leads to electrolyte imbalance that’s why the child suffers from dehydration. Treatment of choice is rehydration and correction of electrolyte imbalance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with fever, cough, sore throat...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with fever, cough, sore throat and bleeding gums. He has also noticed a rash on his legs. The coryzal symptoms started 3 weeks ago before which he was fit and well. He is currently not taking any medication and denies smoking, alcohol and using other illicit drugs. Examination reveals a pale child with bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages, erythematous throat and some petechiae on his legs. there are no sign of lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. investigations are as follows: Hb8.9 g/dlMCV: 110 flWBC: 2 x 109/lNeutrophils: 0.3 x 109/lLymphocytes:1.5 x 109/lPLT: 13 x 109/lReticulocytes: 30 x 109/l (normal range 20-100 x 109/l)Coagulation screen: normal. Bone marrow: hypoplastic. A urine dipstick reveals trace of blood in the urine. What is the patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Aplastic anaemia causes a deficiency of all blood cell types: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It is more frequent in people in their teens and twenties, but is also common among the elderly. It can be caused by heredity, immune disease, or exposure to chemicals, drugs, or radiation. However, in about one-half of cases, the cause is unknown.The definitive diagnosis is by bone marrow biopsy| normal bone marrow has 30–70% blood stem cells, but in aplastic anaemia, these cells are mostly gone and replaced by fat.First-line treatment for aplastic anaemia consists of immunosuppressive drugs, typically either anti-lymphocyte globulin or anti-thymocyte globulin, combined with corticosteroids, chemotherapy and ciclosporin. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is also used, especially for patients under 30 years of age with a related matched marrow donor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      62.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 12-year old boy with cystic fibrosis is here for his annual review....

    Correct

    • A 12-year old boy with cystic fibrosis is here for his annual review. Which of the following diets is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: High calorie and high fat with pancreatic enzyme supplementation for every meal

      Explanation:

      The management of cystic fibrosis requires a multidisciplinary approach, starting with a planned diet.The critical points of this management approach are:Chest physiotherapy and postural drainage – the parents are usually taught to do this.Deep breathing exercises,High calorie, high fat intake with vitamin supplementation.Pancreatic enzyme supplements with meals.Heart-lung transplantation would be the definitive treatment.Note: Previously, a high-calorie, low-fat diet was recommended to reduce steatorrhea. However, it is no longer the desired approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide?

      Your Answer: CO combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide is a colourless gas, which is toxic to animals. It has a high affinity for haemoglobin (around 250 times greater than oxygen). It combines with haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin, which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to a left-shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve. CO is produced endogenously in limited amounts (0.4ml per hour), but the toxic levels are higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 10-year-old girl presents with a one-day history of bilious vomiting and abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with a one-day history of bilious vomiting and abdominal distension. Her inflammatory markers are within normal limits. Her mother informs the physician that the girl had an operation at three days of age for malrotation. An abdominal X-ray shows several severely dilated loops of small bowel with no gas in the rectum. What is the probable diagnosis and the appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer: Intra-abdominal adhesions, naso-gastric decompression and intravenous fluids

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s presentation would be intra-abdominal adhesions, and the most appropriate management for this patient would be nasogastric decompression and intravenous fluids.Malrotation typically presents in the first month of life with bilious vomiting. There is a lifetime risk of intra-abdominal adhesions. This presents with bilious vomiting and dilated bowel loops on plain abdominal film. 2/3 of adhesional obstructions resolve by conservative management with nasogastric decompression and intravenous fluids. If this fails to resolve after 24-48 hours or if there are signs of peritonism, a laparotomy is indicated.Other options:- Recurrent volvulus, urgent laparotomy required: The child is now 8-years-old and recurrent volvulus is unlikely as bowel should be fixed by intra-abdominal adhesions.- Intra-abdominal adhesions, surgery for division of intra-abdominal adhesions: Although surgery may be required, the majority of adhesional obstructive cases respond to conservative management.- Gastroenteritis with incompetent pylorus, intravenous fluids: While it is true that patients with malrotation can have bilious vomiting in gastroenteritis, the abdominal X-ray is suggestive of obstruction.- Likely sepsis with bilious vomiting, intravenous fluids and antibiotics: While a septic ileus can give bilious vomiting, this patient has no inflammatory markers suggestive of sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      117.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis

      Correct Answer: Varicella

      Explanation:

      Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which is a sign of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)? ...

    Correct

    • Which is a sign of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)?

      Your Answer: Splinter haemorrhages

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is defined as an infection of the endocardial surface of the heart.Fever, possibly low-grade and intermittent, is present in 90% of patients with IE. Heart murmurs are heard in approximately 85% of patients.One or more classic signs of IE are found in as many as 50% of patients. They include the following:- Petechiae: Common, but nonspecific, finding- Subungual (splinter) haemorrhages: Dark-red, linear lesions in the nail beds -Osler nodes: Tender subcutaneous nodules usually found on the distal pads of the digits- Janeway lesions: Nontender maculae on the palms and soles- Roth spots: Retinal haemorrhages with small, clear centres| rareSigns of neurologic disease, which occur in as many as 40% of patients, include the following:- Embolic stroke with focal neurologic deficits: The most common neurologic sign- Intracerebral haemorrhage- Multiple microabscessesOther signs of IE include the following:- Splenomegaly- Stiff neck- Delirium- Paralysis, hemiparesis, aphasia- Conjunctival haemorrhage- Pallor- Gallops- Rales- Cardiac arrhythmia- Pericardial rub- Pleural friction rub

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which among the following neurological signs is likely to be present on examination...

    Correct

    • Which among the following neurological signs is likely to be present on examination following the successful administration of a median nerve block?

      Your Answer: Inability to abduct the thumb

      Explanation:

      Successful administration of median nerve block can be confirmed by the inability to abduct the thumb. The median nerve supplies all the muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm, apart from the flexor carpi ulnaris and the flexor digitorum profundus to the outer two fingers: so these two fingers can still be flexed. There is a sensory loss to the thumb, index, middle and half of the ring fingers. Absence of thumb abduction due to paralysis of abductor pollicis brevis is a good test for median nerve paralysis.Other options:- The radial nerve supplies the extensors – hence wrist drop does not occur in this scenario. – The ulnar nerve supplies the skin of the ulnar side of the hand. Hence anaesthesia will not affect this area. – The ulnar nerve also supplies the interossei muscles of the hand, which affect abduction and adduction of the fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following cells synthesize surfactant? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following cells synthesize surfactant?

      Your Answer: Type 2 pneumocytes

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary surfactant is a lipoprotein complex that is responsible for preventing the collapse of alveoli and increasing lung compliance.It is produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and secreted from the lamellar bodies of type 2 pneumocytes.Surfactant is essential for reducing surface tension at the air-water interface in the alveoli, thus preventing the collapse of alveoli during expiration. It is composed of dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine (DPPC), which is a phospholipid.In fetal development, production of surfactant begins around 26 weeks of gestation and reaches mature levels by 35 weeks.The deficiency of surfactant can result in neonatal respiratory distress syndrome or hyaline membrane disease, particularly in premature new-born babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her period yet and her BMI is 37. She has high insulin levels on her lab results. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She comes from a family of Jehovah's Witnesses. Her haemoglobin on admission is 6.7 g/dl. She consents to a blood transfusion but her mother refuses. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Give the blood transfusion

      Explanation:

      People aged 16 or over are entitled to consent to their own treatment. This can only be overruled in exceptional circumstances. Children under the age of 16 can consent to their own treatment if they’re believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what’s involved in their treatment. This is known as being Gillick competent.Otherwise, someone with parental responsibility can consent for them.This could be:the child’s mother or fatherthe child’s legally appointed guardiana person with a residence order concerning the childa local authority designated to care for the childa local authority or person with an emergency protection order for the child.Giving the blood transfusion is therefore both clinically and ethically the right course of action.Jehovah’s Witnesses frequently carry a signed and witnessed Advance Decision Document listing the blood products and autologous procedures that are, or are not, acceptable to them It is appropriate to have a frank, confidential discussion with the patient about the potential risks of their decision and the possible alternatives to transfusion, but the freely expressed wish of a competent adult must always be respected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 16 year old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of football. He couldn't recall any trauma to groin. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: USG of the scrotum

      Explanation:

      USG of the scrotum is important to exclude any abnormality with testicles, epididymis and scrotum. This presentation can be acute epididymo-orchitis or testicular torsion. USG of the scrotum will help to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There...

    Correct

    • A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There is a known local outbreak of E coli 0157:H7, and his initial bloods show evidence of acute renal failure. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following investigation results would be expected?

      Your Answer: Fragmented red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli. The laboratory results will usually include fragmented RBCs, decreased serum haptoglobin, reduced platelet count, nonspecific WBC changes, and normal coagulation tests (PTT included).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A neonate has been observed, by his parents, twitching and jerking in his...

    Correct

    • A neonate has been observed, by his parents, twitching and jerking in his sleep. Which one of the following is not a cause of neonatal seizures?

      Your Answer: Neonatal myoclonus

      Explanation:

      Benign neonatal sleep myoclonus (BNSM) is a disorder commonly mistaken for seizures during the new-born period. It is characterized by myoclonic lightninglike jerks of the extremities that exclusively occur during sleep| it is not correlated with epilepsy.Causes of neonatal seizures:Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy: Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy disrupts the ATP-dependent sodium-potassium pump and appears to cause excessive depolarization.Intracranial haemorrhage: occurs more frequently in premature than in term infants. Subarachnoid haemorrhage is more common in term infants. This type of haemorrhage occurs frequently and is not clinically significant. Typically, infants with subarachnoid haemorrhage appear remarkably well. Metabolic disturbances include hypoglycaemia, hypocalcaemia, and hypomagnesemia. Less frequent metabolic disorders, such as inborn errors of metabolism, are seen more commonly in infants who are older than 72 hours. Typically, they may be seen after the infant starts feeding.Intracranial infections (which should be ruled out vigorously) that are important causes of neonatal seizures include meningitis, encephalitis (including herpes encephalitis), toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections. The common bacterial pathogens include Escherichia coli and Streptococcus pneumoniae.Cerebral malformationsBenign neonatal seizures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 16 year old boy presented, complaining that an insect had lodged in...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old boy presented, complaining that an insect had lodged in his left ear. Which of the following can be considered as the most appropriate method to remove the insect?

      Your Answer: Syringe the ear with warm water

      Explanation:

      Removal of foreign bodies from the ear is indicated whenever a well-visualized foreign body is identified in the external auditory canal. Insects are better extracted with suction than with forceps or hooks. From the given answers, irrigation with warm water is the most suitable answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 5 year old boy presents with tonsillitis, from which he has suffered...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old boy presents with tonsillitis, from which he has suffered three times last year. His symptoms include fever, lymphadenopathy and a sore throat. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Oral penicillin V

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol/ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      NICE does not recommend the use of antibiotics or tonsillectomy in this case. Paracetamol/Ibuprofen are indicated as they provide antipyretic action and analgesia. Indications for tonsillectomy are 5 or more episodes of acute sore throat/year, symptoms present for at least 2 years, symptoms are severe enough to disrupt a child’s social life. Indications for antibiotics are features of marked systemic upset secondary to the acute sore throat, unilateral peritonsillitis, history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, acute tonsillitis with 3 or more of the following: history of fever, tonsillar exudates, no cough and tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with right knee pain. On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with right knee pain. On examination, her eyes were red. But she denied any ocular or visual discomfort.Which of the following should be suspected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      When a child with joint problems presents with red-eye, the likelihood of anterior uveitis must be excluded by involving an ophthalmologist in the assessment. This is because uveitis is the most common extra-articular manifestation of juvenile idiopathic arthritis.Other options:- Cataract: It does not give rise to a red-eye, but leukocoria. Often this would have been picked up at an earlier age. – A patient with a corneal foreign body almost would almost invariably give a suspicious history (onset while playing outdoors etc.), as well as have marked symptoms of ocular discomfort (red, watery and painful eyes). – A child with periorbital cellulitis often presents acutely unwell and distressed. – A child with an uncorrected refractive error often complains of being unable to see in class and does not normally present with ocular redness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 4-year old boy arrives at the clinic due to sudden onset knee...

    Correct

    • A 4-year old boy arrives at the clinic due to sudden onset knee pain that has been occurring over the past 2 days. The pain is associated with mild fever that started on the 2nd day. The patient is able to walk but with a limp. Examination reveals painful and restricted motion of the right knee. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Septic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Septic (infectious) arthritis is a bacterial infection of the joint space. Contamination occurs either via the bloodstream, iatrogenically, or by local extension (e.g., penetrating trauma). Patients with damaged (e.g., patients with rheumatoid arthritis) or prosthetic joints have an increased risk. Patients usually present with an acutely swollen, painful joint, limited range of motion, and a fever. Suspected infectious arthritis requires prompt arthrocentesis for diagnosis. In addition to the immediate broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy, surgical drainage and debridement may be necessary to prevent cartilage destruction and sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      116.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A floppy new-born baby has epicanthic folds, a thin upper lip and smooth...

    Correct

    • A floppy new-born baby has epicanthic folds, a thin upper lip and smooth philtrum. He was monitored closely throughout pregnancy for intra-uterine growth retardation (IUGR) and a ventricular septal defect. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fetal alcohol syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is a common yet under-recognized condition resulting from maternal consumption of alcohol during pregnancy. The diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is based on findings in the following 3 areas: (1) characteristic facial anomalies (see image below), (2) growth retardation (intrauterine growth restriction and failure to have catch-up growth), and (3) CNS involvement (cognitive impairment, learning disabilities, or behavioural abnormalities).Key characteristic craniofacial abnormalities include the following:- Smooth philtrum- Thin, smooth vermilion border of the upper lipShort palpebral fissures (< 10th percentile for age)Other craniofacial abnormalities are as follows:- Midface hypoplasia- Microphthalmia- Strabismus- PtosisCNS and neurobehavioral abnormalities include the following:- Microcephaly- Intellectual impairment (mild-to-moderate mental retardation)- Cognitive impairment- Developmental delay- Irritability in infancy- Hyperactivity in childhood or attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)- Seizures- Delayed or deficient myelination- Agenesis or hypoplasia of the corpus callosumSkeletal abnormalities include the following:- Radioulnar synostosis- Flexion contractures- Camptodactyly- Aberrant palmar creases, especially hockey-stick palmar crease- Clinodactyly- Klippel-Feil anomaly- Hemivertebrae- Scoliosis- Dislocated jointsOther major congenital anomalies include the following:- Cleft palate- Heart defects- Renal anomalies- DiGeorge sequenceFunctional problems include the following:- Refractive problems (e.g., myopia, astigmatism)- Hearing lossGrowth deficiency includes the following:- Infant small for gestational age (< 10th percentile for weight or length)- Postnatal growth deficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - When discussing child development with a parent, which one of the following motor...

    Correct

    • When discussing child development with a parent, which one of the following motor skills would NOT be expected of a 3-year-old?

      Your Answer: Catching a bounced ball

      Explanation:

      Milestones of 3 years old:Social and Emotional:Copies adults and friends Shows affection for friends without prompting Takes turns in games Shows concern for crying friend Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” Shows a wide range of emotions Separates easily from mom and dad May get upset with major changes in routineDresses and undresses self Language/Communication:Follows instructions with 2 or 3 steps Can name most familiar things Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” Says first name, age, and sexNames a friend Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentences Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces Understands what “two” means Copies a circle with pencil or crayon Turns book pages one at a time Builds towers of more than 6 blocks Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns door handle Movement/Physical Development:Climbs well Runs easily Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) Walks up and down stairs, one foot on each step

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the most common position of the appendix? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common position of the appendix?

      Your Answer: Retrocecal

      Explanation:

      The most common position of the appendix is the retrocecal position.Note: If a retrocecal appendix is difficult to remove, then mobilisation of the right colon significantly improves access.Other options:The various positions of the appendix are:- Retrocecal (74%)- Pelvic (21%)- Postileal- Subcaecal- Paracaecal- Preileal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The new-born hearing test is best carried out within the first four or...

    Correct

    • The new-born hearing test is best carried out within the first four or five weeks of life, until what age can it be performed?

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Ideally, the test is done in the first 4 to 5 weeks, but it can be done at up to 3 months of age.The identification of all new-borns with hearing loss before age 6 months has now become an attainable realistic goal. In the past, parents and paediatricians often did not suspect a hearing loss until the age of 2-3 years, after important speech and language milestones have not been met. By the time these milestones are missed, the hearing-impaired child has already experienced irreversible delays in speech and language development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Erythema multiforme is NOT triggered by which of the given infectious diseases? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythema multiforme is NOT triggered by which of the given infectious diseases?

      Your Answer: Adenovirus

      Correct Answer: Norovirus

      Explanation:

      Certain infections and medications cause characteristic skin lesions, which are the result of hypersensitivity reactions to these agents. A skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like circular lesions is referred to as erythema multiforme. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting with a propensity for distal extremities. The most common infectious cause is the infection with herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Other notable infectious causes of erythema multiforme include Mycoplasma pneumoniae, cytomegalovirus, HIV, hepatitis c virus, varicella zoster virus, adenovirus, and some fungal infections. Norovirus infection has not been implicated in the aetiology of erythema multiforme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 2-year-old presented with symptoms of gastroenteritis. Which of the following signs is...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old presented with symptoms of gastroenteritis. Which of the following signs is the strongest indicator for IV fluid administration?

      Your Answer: Capillary refilling time > 4secs

      Explanation:

      Children are very prone to dehydration during an episode of gastroenteritis. Dehydration is detected early by increased capillary filling time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      9.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (3/3) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (5/5) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Nutrition (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Haematology And Oncology (2/2) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Genitourinary (1/2) 50%
Renal (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Child Development (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
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