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  • Question 1 - Which of the following measurements is a poor prognostic factor in patients suffering...

    Correct

    • Which of the following measurements is a poor prognostic factor in patients suffering from pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate 35/min

      Explanation:

      CURB Pneumonia Severity Score estimates the mortality of community-acquired pneumonia to help determine inpatient vs. outpatient treatment.
      Select Criteria:
      Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point)
      Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point)
      Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point)
      Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) The CURB-65 scores range from 0 to 5. Clinical management decisions can be made based on the score:
      Score Risk Disposition
      0 or 1 – 1.5% mortality – Outpatient care
      2 – 9.2% mortality – Inpatient vs. observation admission
      > 3 – 22% mortality – Inpatient admission with consideration for ICU admission with score of 4 or 5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      6.9
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  • Question 2 - From the options provided below, which intervention plays the greatest role in increasing...

    Incorrect

    • From the options provided below, which intervention plays the greatest role in increasing survival in patients with COPD?

      Your Answer: Long-term oxygen therapy

      Correct Answer: Smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Smoking cessation is the most effective intervention in stopping the progression of COPD, as well as increasing survival and reducing morbidity. This is why smoking cessation should be the top priority in the treatment of COPD. Long term oxygen therapy (LTOT) may increase survival in hypoxic patients. The rest of the options dilate airways, reduce inflammation and thereby improve symptoms but do not necessarily increase survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which virus is severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) caused by? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which virus is severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) caused by?

      Your Answer: An adenovirus

      Correct Answer: A coronavirus

      Explanation:

      Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is a viral respiratory illness caused by a coronavirus called SARS-associated coronavirus (SARS-CoV). SARS was first reported in Asia in February 2003.
      In general, SARS begins with a high fever (temperature greater than 38.0°C). Other symptoms may include headache, an overall feeling of discomfort, and body aches. Some people also have mild respiratory symptoms at the outset. About 10 to 20 percent of patients have diarrhoea. After 2 to 7 days, SARS patients may develop a dry cough. Most patients develop pneumonia. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol. ...

    Incorrect

    • Briefly state the mechanism of action of salbutamol.

      Your Answer: Beta2 receptor antagonist which increases cAMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

      Correct Answer: Beta2 receptor agonist which increases cAMP levels and leads to muscle relaxation and bronchodilation

      Explanation:

      Salbutamol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are the predominant receptors in bronchial smooth muscle (beta-2 receptors are also present in the heart in a concentration between 10% and 50%).

      Stimulation of beta-2 receptors leads to the activation of enzyme adenyl cyclase that forms cyclic AMP (adenosine-mono-phosphate) from ATP (adenosine-tri-phosphate). This increase of cyclic AMP relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and decrease airway resistance by lowering intracellular ionic calcium concentrations. Salbutamol relaxes the smooth muscles of airways, from trachea to terminal bronchioles.

      Increased cyclic AMP concentrations also inhibits the release of bronchoconstrictor mediators such as histamine and leukotriene from the mast cells in the airway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      5.9
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  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old male smoker presented in the emergency room with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male smoker presented in the emergency room with a history of chest pain and a cough for the last few days. He is now complaining of increasing dyspnoea and sharp pains around the 4th and 5th ribs. On CXR, there is right sided hilar enlargement. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Bronchogenic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The history of smoking with a cough and bone pain is suggestive of bronchogenic carcinoma. CXR findings are also supportive of this diagnosis. In COPD, a cough with dyspnoea and wheezing is prominent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      12.1
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  • Question 6 - A 73-year-old woman attends COPD clinic for review. Her blood gases were checked...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman attends COPD clinic for review. Her blood gases were checked on her last visit two months back. The test was repeated again today.
      The paO2 on both occasions was 6.8 kPa. There is no CO2 retention on 28% O2. She stopped smoking around 6 months ago and is maintained on combination inhaled steroids and long acting b2-agonist therapy.
      What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Add in an anticholinergic to her therapy

      Correct Answer: Suggest she uses an oxygen concentrator for at least 19 h per day

      Explanation:

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) > 15 h/day improves survival in hypoxemic chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It significantly helps in reducing pulmonary hypertension associated with COPD and treating underlying pathology of future heart failure. There is little to no benefit of oxygen therapy for less than 15 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      15.5
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  • Question 7 - An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and night sweats on a few nights per week for the past four months. He is known to smoke 12 cigarettes per day and he had previously undergone treatment for Tuberculosis seven years ago.

      His blood pressure was found to be 143/96 mmHg and he is mildly pyrexial 37.5°C. Evidence of consolidation affecting the right upper lobe was also found.

      Investigations;
       
      Hb 11.9 g/dl
      WCC 11.1 x109/l
      PLT 190 x109/l
      Na+ 138 mmol/l
      K+ 4.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine 105 μmol/l
      CXR Right upper lobe cavitating lesion
      Aspergillus precipitins positive

      Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      An aspergilloma is a fungus ball (mycetoma) that develops in a pre-existing cavity in the lung parenchyma. Underlying causes of the cavitary disease may include treated tuberculosis or other necrotizing infection, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and emphysematous bullae. The ball of fungus may move within the cavity but does not invade the cavity wall. Aspergilloma may manifest as an asymptomatic radiographic abnormality in a patient with pre-existing cavitary lung disease due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or other necrotizing pulmonary processes. In patients with HIV disease, aspergilloma may occur in cystic areas resulting from prior Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Of patients with aspergilloma, 40-60% experience haemoptysis, which may be massive and life threatening. Less commonly, aspergilloma may cause cough and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 8 - Which area in the body controls the hypoxic drive to breathe? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which area in the body controls the hypoxic drive to breathe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid body

      Explanation:

      The carotid body consists of chemosensitive cells at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery that respond to changes in oxygen tension and, to a lesser extent, pH. In contrast to central chemoreceptors (which primarily respond to PaCO2) and the aortic bodies (which primarily have circulatory effects: bradycardia, hypertension, adrenal stimulation, and also bronchoconstriction), carotid bodies are most sensitive to PaO2. At a PaO2 of approximately 55-60 mmHg, they send their impulses via CN IX to the medulla, increasing ventilatory drive (increased respiratory rate, tidal volume, and minute ventilation). Thus, patients who rely on hypoxic respiratory drive will typically have a resting PaO2 around 60 mm Hg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 9 - A 20-year-old heroin addict is admitted following an overdose. She is drowsy and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old heroin addict is admitted following an overdose. She is drowsy and has a respiratory rate of 6 bpm. Which of the following arterial blood gas results (taken on room air) are most consistent with this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa

      Explanation:

      In mild-to-moderate heroin overdoses, arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis reveals respiratory acidosis. In more severe overdoses, tissue hypoxia is common, leading to mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis.

      The normal range for PaCO2 is 35-45 mmHg (4.67 to 5.99 kPa). Respiratory acidosis can be acute or chronic. In acute respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range (i.e., >45 mm Hg) with an accompanying academia (i.e., pH < 7.35). In chronic respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is elevated above the upper limit of the reference range, with a normal or near-normal pH secondary to renal compensation and an elevated serum bicarbonate levels (i.e., >30 mEq/L).

      Arterial blood gases with pH = 7.31; pCO2 = 7.4 kPa; pO2 = 8.1 kPa would indicate respiratory acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following is not a known cause of occupational asthma? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a known cause of occupational asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cadmium

      Explanation:

      Occupational asthma (OA) could be divided into a nonimmunological, irritant-induced asthma and an immunological, allergy-induced asthma. In addition, allergy-induced asthma can be caused by two different groups of agents: high molecular weight proteins (>5,000 Da) or low molecular weight agents (<5,000 Da), generally chemicals like the isocyanates.
      Isocyanates are very reactive chemicals characterized by one or more isocyanate groups (-N=C=O). The main reactions of this chemical group are addition reactions with ethanol, resulting in urethanes, with amines (resulting in urea derivates) and with water. Here, the product is carbamic acid which is not stable and reacts further to amines, releasing free carbon dioxide.

      Diisocyanates and polyisocyanates are, together with the largely nontoxic polyol group, the basic building blocks of the polyurethane (PU) chemical industry, where they are used solely or in combination with solvents or additives in the production of adhesives, foams, elastomers, paintings, coatings and other materials.

      The complex salts of platinum are one of the most potent respiratory sensitising agents having caused occupational asthma in more than 50% of exposed workers. Substitution of ammonium hexachlor platinate with platinum tetra amine dichloride in the manufacture of catalyst has controlled the problem in the catalyst industry. Ammonium hexachlorplatinate exposure still occurs in the refining process.

      Rosin based solder flux fume is produced when soldering. This fume is a top cause of occupational asthma.

      Bakeries, flour mills and kitchens where flour dust and additives in the flour are a common cause of occupational asthma.

      Cadmium was not found to cause occupational asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 11 - A 22-year-old male with exercise induced asthma, has had good control with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old male with exercise induced asthma, has had good control with a salbutamol inhaler. But recently he has had asthma attacks with exercise. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium cromoglycate

      Explanation:

      Steroids and theophylline have less of a role in the treatment of exercise induced asthma. The best method of treatment is pre-exercise short-acting β2-agonist administration. Long-acting β2-agonists, mast cell stabilizers (e.g.: Sodium cromoglycate), and antileukotriene drugs also play a role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements regarding the clinical effects of long-term oxygen therapy...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding the clinical effects of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is the most accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced sympathetic outflow

      Explanation:

      Studies have shown that benefits of Long-tern oxygen therapy (LTOT) include improved exercise tolerance, with improved walking distance, and ability to perform daily activities, reduction of secondary polycythaemia, improved sleep quality and reduced sympathetic outflow, with increased sodium and water excretion, leading to improvement in renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 13 - Which of the statements given below would be the most accurate regarding airway...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the statements given below would be the most accurate regarding airway obstruction in the newborn?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In Pierre Robin syndrome the airway can be improved by a nasopharyngeal tube

      Explanation:

      Pierre Robin syndrome (PRS) is a congenital defect observed in humans which is characterized by an unusually small mandible, posterior displacement or retraction of the tongue, and upper airway obstruction. Cleft palate (incomplete closure of the roof of the mouth) is present in the majority of patients.

      PRS is generally diagnosed clinically shortly after birth. The infant usually has respiratory difficulty, especially when supine. The palatal cleft is often U-shaped and wider than that observed in other people with cleft palate.

      Treatment:
      If moderate dyspnoea: symptomatic treatment, non-invasive ventilation, supervision and assistance while eating
      If severe dyspnoea: surgical correction, special interventions for long-term correction
      In cases of acute life-threatening respiratory distress → tracheostomy

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 14 - A 63-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of a 6-month history of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of a 6-month history of shortness of breath on exertion and a non-productive cough.
       
      On examination there is clubbing, and crepitations heard at the lung bases. Lung function tests show a reduced vital capacity and an increased FEV1/FVC ratio.
       
      What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a condition in which the lungs become scarred and breathing becomes increasingly difficult.
      The most common signs and symptoms of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis are shortness of breath and a persistent dry, hacking cough. Many affected individuals also experience a loss of appetite and gradual weight loss.

      The clinical findings of IPF are bibasilar reticular abnormalities, ground glass opacities, or diffuse nodular lesions on high-resolution computed tomography and abnormal pulmonary function studies that include evidence of restriction (reduced VC with an increase in FEV1/FVC ratio) and/or impaired gas exchange (increased P(A-a)O2 with rest or exercise or decreased diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide [DLCO]).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 15 - A phrenic nerve palsy is caused by which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • A phrenic nerve palsy is caused by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Phrenic nerve palsy causing hemidiaphragm paralysis is a very uncommon feature of thoracic aortic aneurysm.

      Thoracic aortic aneurysms are usually asymptomatic however chest pain is most commonly reported symptom. Left hemidiaphragm paralysis, because of left phrenic nerve palsy, is a very rare presentation of thoracic aortic aneurysm.
      Thoracic aortic aneurysm may present atypical symptoms such as dysphagia due to compression of the oesophagus; hoarseness due to vocal cord paralysis or compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve; superior vena cava syndrome due to compression of the superior vena cava; cough, dyspnoea or both due to tracheal compression; haemoptysis due to rupture of the aneurysm into a bronchus; and shock due to rupture of the aneurysm.
      Common causes of phrenic nerve palsy include malignancy such as bronchogenic carcinoma, as well as mediastinal and neck tumours. Phrenic nerve palsy can also occur due to a penetrating injury or due to iatrogenic causes arising, for example, during cardiac surgery and central venous catheterization. Many cases or phrenic nerve palsy are idiopathic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following statements about smoking is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about smoking is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Quitting is associated with average weight gain of 2 kg

      Explanation:

      A study conducted showed that the average post smoking cessation weight gain was about 2 kg.
      Withdrawal symptoms usually peak after 1-3 days and then decrease over a period of 3-4 weeks. After this time, the body has expelled most of the nicotine, and the withdrawal effects are mainly psychological.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old man with a history of asthma presents for review. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of asthma presents for review. He has recently been discharged from hospital following an acute exacerbation and reports generally poor control with a persistent night time cough and exertional wheeze.

      His current asthma therapy is:
      salbutamol inhaler 100mcg prn
      Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) inhaler 800 mcg bd
      salmeterol 50 mcg bd

      He has a history of missing appointments and requests a prescription with as few side-effects as possible. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      The NICE 2019 guidelines states that in patients who are uncontrolled with a SABA (Salbutamol) and ICS (Beclomethasone), LTRA should be added.
      If asthma is uncontrolled in adults (aged 17 and over) on a low dose of ICS as maintenance therapy, offer a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to the ICS and review the response to treatment in 4 to 8 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 18 - From the following drugs, which is an inhaled glucocorticoid that is used for...

    Incorrect

    • From the following drugs, which is an inhaled glucocorticoid that is used for maintenance therapy, but not important in mild asthmatic attacks?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluticasone propionate

      Explanation:

      From the given answers Fluticasone propionate is the inhaled glucocorticoid. It is not important as a reliever medication but important in maintenance therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 19 - A 60 old patient with a history of chronic cough was found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 old patient with a history of chronic cough was found to have partial ptosis, constricted pupil and loss of hemifacial sweating. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Horner syndrome (oculosympathetic paresis) results from an interruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye. It is characterized by the classic triad of miosis (i.e., constricted pupil), partial ptosis, and loss of hemifacial sweating (i.e., anhidrosis). As this patient presented with chronic cough most probably he has Pancoast tumour (tumour in the apex of the lung, most commonly squamous cell carcinoma).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man was admitted to the hospital with worsening dyspnoea. He was given a five day course of Amoxicillin.

      On examination, his blood pressure was 89/59 mmHg with a respiratory rate of 35/min. A chest x-ray revealed left lower lobe consolidation.

      Past medical history: Type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Arterial blood gas on air:

      pH 7.34
      pCO2 5.4 kPa
      pO2 9.0 kPa

      Which antibiotic therapy is the most suitable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      CURB Pneumonia Severity Score:
      – Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point)
      – Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point)
      – Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point)
      – Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) Based on the CURB Pneumonia Severity Score, the patient has severe pneumonia. According to the 2009 Centres for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) and Joint Commission consensus guidelines, inpatient treatment of pneumonia should be given within four hours of hospital admission (or in the emergency department if this is where the patient initially presented) and should consist of the following antibiotic regimens, which are also in accordance with IDSA/ATS guidelines. For non-intensive care unit (ICU) patients:
      Beta-lactam (intravenous [IV] or intramuscular [IM] administration) plus macrolide (IV or oral [PO])
      Beta-lactam (IV or IM) plus doxycycline (IV or PO)
      Antipneumococcal quinolone monotherapy (IV or IM)

      If the patient is younger than 65 years with no risk factors for drug-resistant organisms, administer macrolide monotherapy (IV or PO)

      For ICU patients:
      IV beta-lactam plus IV macrolide
      IV beta-lactam plus IV antipneumococcal quinolone

      If the patient has a documented beta-lactam allergy, administer IV antipneumococcal quinolone plus IV aztreonam.

      The most suitable antibiotic therapy for this patient is therefore Intravenous co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required)...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male with advanced COPD currently on treatment with salbutamol (as required) presents for review. After a complete history and examination, you conclude that he requires to be stepped up in his inhalational therapy. The decision to add tiotropium bromide to his regime was taken. Which of the following best describe the mechanism of action of tiotropium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a long-acting anticholinergic agent

      Explanation:

      Tiotropium is a specific long-acting antimuscarinic agent indicated as maintenance therapy for patients with COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease).
      It should be used cautiously in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma, prostatic hyperplasia or bladder neck obstruction.
      The most frequently encountered adverse effects of tiotropium include pharyngitis, bronchitis, sinusitis, dry mouth, cough, and headaches. Paradoxical bronchospasm may also occur as a rare side-effect.
      Dry mouth occurs in up to 14% of patients taking tiotropium, in keeping with its anticholinergic profile.
      Rarer side-effects include tachycardia, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 22 - A 23-year-old male medical student presents to the A&E department with pleuritic chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male medical student presents to the A&E department with pleuritic chest pain. He does not have productive cough nor is he experiencing shortness of breath. He has no past medical history. A chest x-ray which was done shows a right-sided pneumothorax with a 1 cm rim of air and no mediastinal shift.

      What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discharge with outpatient chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is an abnormal accumulation of air in the space between the lungs and the chest cavity (called the pleural space) that can result in the partial or complete collapse of a lung. This type of pneumothorax is described as primary because it occurs in the absence of lung disease such as emphysema. Spontaneous means the pneumothorax was not caused by an injury such as a rib fracture. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax is likely due to the formation of small sacs of air (blebs) in lung tissue that rupture, causing air to leak into the pleural space. Air in the pleural space creates pressure on the lung and can lead to its collapse. A person with this condition may feel chest pain on the side of the collapsed lung and shortness of breath. Patients are typically aged 18-40 years, tall, thin, and, often, are smokers.

      In small pneumothoraxes with minimal symptoms, no active treatment is required. These patients can be safely discharged with early outpatient review and should be given written advice to return if breathlessness worsens. Patients who have been discharged without intervention should be advised that air travel should be avoided until a radiograph has confirmed resolution of the pneumothorax.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 23 - A 66-year-old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old COPD patient visits the clinic for a review. He has no increase in his sputum volume or change in its colour. He has been a smoker for 39 years and previously worked at the shipping docks.

      On examination, he is pursed lip breathing but managing complete sentences.
      Investigations:
      BP is 141/72 mmHg
      Pulse 82 bpm and regular
      Sp(O2) 92% on room air
      RR 19 breaths/min
      Temperature 37.1°C.
      Examination of his chest revealed a widespread wheeze with coarse crepitations heard in the L mid-zone. FEV1 :FVC ratio in the clinic today was 68%.
       
      Which of the following would be the most useful investigation that should be performed to establish the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-resolution CT thorax

      Explanation:

      High-resolution CT (HRCT) scanning is more sensitive than standard chest radiography and is highly specific for diagnosing emphysema (outlined bullae are not always visible on a radiograph).

      HRCT scanning may provide an adjunct means of diagnosing various forms of COPD (i.e., lower lobe disease may suggest AAT deficiency) and may help the clinician to determine whether surgical intervention would benefit the patient.

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  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old woman presents to the hospital with sharp, left-sided chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents to the hospital with sharp, left-sided chest pain and shortness of breath.

      On examination her pulse is 101 beats per minute and blood pressure is 124/61 mmHg. She is seen to be mildly breathless at rest but her oxygen saturation on air was 98%.

      CXR reveals a left pneumothorax with a 4 cm rim of air visible.

      Which management strategy is appropriate in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Needle aspiration

      Explanation:

      Pneumothorax is defined as air in the pleural space and may be classified as spontaneous, traumatic or iatrogenic. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in patients without clinically apparent lung disease.
      Primary pneumothorax has an incidence of 18-28 per 100,000 per year for men and 1.2-6 per 100,000 per year for women. Most patients present with ipsilateral pleuritic chest pain and acute shortness of breath. Shortness of breath is largely dependent on the size of the pneumothorax and whether there is underlying chronic lung disease.

      Young patients may have chest pain only. Most episodes of pneumothorax occur at rest. Symptoms may resolve within 24 hours in patients with primary spontaneous pneumothorax. The diagnosis of a pneumothorax is confirmed by finding a visceral pleural line displaced from the chest wall, without distal lung markings, on a posterior-anterior chest radiograph.

      Breathless patients should not be left without intervention regardless of the size of pneumothorax. If there is a rim of air >2cm on the chest X-ray, this should be aspirated.
      Aspiration is successful in approximately 70 per cent of patients; the patient may be discharged subsequently. A further attempt at aspiration is recommended if the patient remains symptomatic and a volume of less than 2.5 litres has been aspirated on the first attempt.

      If unsuccessful, an intercostal drain is inserted. This may be removed after 24 hours after full re-expansion or cessation of air leak without clamping and discharge may be considered.

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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old male is involved in a motorcycle accident. He sustained a direct...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male is involved in a motorcycle accident. He sustained a direct blow to his lower chest. His blood pressure is 83/48, HR 113 bpm. On examination, there are multiple bruises on the chest with bowel sounds heard on auscultation of his chest. The single most likely diagnosis is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diaphragmatic rupture

      Explanation:

      Ruptured diaphragm is a serious condition that is very difficult to diagnose and requires rapid intervention. The presence of bowel sounds on chest auscultation is highly suggestive of this.
      Ruptured oesophagus is excluded by the absence of haematemesis and normal intestinal sounds.
      Fractured ribs could be life threatening if associated with a tension pneumothorax which is excluded by a normal chest auscultation.
      Flail chest is characterised by paradoxical breathing and respiratory failure.

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  • Question 26 - A 70-year-old thyroid cancer patient is admitted due to dyspnoea. Which investigation should...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old thyroid cancer patient is admitted due to dyspnoea. Which investigation should be done to assess for possible compression of the upper airways?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flow volume loop

      Explanation:

      Flow-volume loop is an easy, non-invasive diagnostic tool that can be used even in severely-ill patients. It can provide information about the location of the obstruction and can differentiate between obstructive pulmonary disease and upper-airway obstruction. Therefore, it is recommended to obtain a flow-volume loop during the assessment of patients with upper airway obstruction.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 27 - A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complaining of nocturnal cough and wheeze is investigated for asthma. Which of the following tests would be most useful in aiding the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ANCA

      Explanation:

      Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) is one of three important fibrinoid, necrotizing, inflammatory leukocytoclastic systemic small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with antineutrophil cytoplasm antibodies (ANCAs).
      The first (prodromal) phase of Churg-Strauss disease (CSD) consists of asthma usually in association with other typical allergic features, which may include eosinophilia. During the second phase, the eosinophilia is characteristic (see below) and ANCAs with perinuclear staining pattern (pANCAs) are detected. The treatment would therefore be different from asthma. For most patients, especially those patients with evidence of active vasculitis, treatment with corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents (cyclophosphamide) is considered first-line therapy

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 28 - A 62 year male presented with epistaxis, nasal blockage, double vision, ear fullness...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year male presented with epistaxis, nasal blockage, double vision, ear fullness and left sided conductive deafness for 1 week. He was a heavy smoker and alcoholic. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nasopharyngeal ca

      Explanation:

      Because of the involvement of nose, ear and vision, the most probable diagnosis is nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Both smoking and alcohol are risk factors.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old male with a history of smoking half a pack of cigarettes...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male with a history of smoking half a pack of cigarettes per day complains of worsening breathlessness on exertion. He was working as a salesman until a few months ago. His father passed away due to severe respiratory disease at a relatively young age. Routine blood examination reveals mild jaundice with bilirubin level of 90 µmol/l. AST and ALT are also raised. Chest X-ray reveals basal emphysema. Which of the following explanation is most likely the cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ?-1-Antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is an inherited disorder that may cause lung and liver disease. The signs and symptoms of the condition and the age at which they appear vary among individuals. This would be the most likely option as it is the only disease that can affect both liver and lung functions.
      People with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency usually develop the first signs and symptoms of lung disease between ages 20 and 50. The earliest symptoms are shortness of breath following mild activity, reduced ability to exercise, and wheezing. Other signs and symptoms can include unintentional weight loss, recurring respiratory infections, fatigue, and rapid heartbeat upon standing. Affected individuals often develop emphysema. Characteristic features of emphysema include difficulty breathing, a hacking cough, and a barrel-shaped chest. Smoking or exposure to tobacco smoke accelerates the appearance of emphysema symptoms and damage to the lungs.
      About 10 percent of infants with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency develop liver disease, which often causes yellowing of the skin and sclera (jaundice). Approximately 15 percent of adults with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency develop liver damage (cirrhosis) due to the formation of scar tissue in the liver. Signs of cirrhosis include a swollen abdomen, swollen feet or legs, and jaundice. Individuals with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency are also at risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old retired coal miner with simple silicosis presented with shortness of breath. He had been short of breath for 3 months. Around 3 months ago he began keeping turtle doves as pets.

      On auscultation he had basal crepitations and chest x-ray showed fine nodular shadowing in the apices.
       
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:

      ‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
      ‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
      ‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)

      Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.

      EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.

      Examples of EAA include:

      Bird fancier’s lung (BFL) is a type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP). It is triggered by exposure to avian proteins present in the dry dust of the droppings and sometimes in the feathers of a variety of birds. The lungs become inflamed, with granuloma formation. Birds such as pigeons, parakeets, cockatiels, shell parakeets (budgerigars), parrots, turtle doves, turkeys and chickens have been implicated.

      People who work with birds or own many birds are at risk. Bird hobbyists and pet store workers may also be at risk. This disease is an inflammation of the alveoli in the lungs caused by an immune response to inhaled allergens from birds. Initial symptoms include shortness of breath (dyspnoea), especially after sudden exertion or when exposed to temperature change, which can resemble asthma, hyperventilation syndrome or pulmonary embolism. Chills, fever, non-productive cough and chest discomfort may also occur.

      A definitive diagnosis can be difficult without invasive testing, but extensive exposure to birds combined with reduced diffusing capacity are strongly suggestive of this disease. X-ray or CT scans will show physical changes to the lung structure (a ground glass appearance) as the disease progresses. Precise distribution and types of tissue damage differ among similar diseases, as does response to treatment with Prednisone.

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      • Respiratory System
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