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  • Question 1 - A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of multiple red lesions, elevated temperature and pain in multiple joints all over the body. Her symptoms started after her return from a school summer camp. On examination, she was found to have features of facial nerve injury. Her mother observes that the rash was initially small but later transformed into a ring-like lesion. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Borrelia recurrentis

      Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi

      Explanation:

      The presentation of the patient and the characteristic ring-like (Bull’s eye) rash are highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. The spirochete is transmitted by Ixodid ticks. The initial presentation of this infection includes an erythema migrans rash that starts from the site of tick bite and gradually expands. Other features supporting the diagnosis are the history of camping, fever, joint pain, and the neurological symptoms presenting as facial nerve palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell off his quad bike while riding it at a high speed. He complains of neck pain and paraesthesia in his limbs. On examination, there are multiple bleeding contusions on the body. There is a handlebar bruise on his chest. And oxygen saturations are low, but heart rate is normal. Which of the following is the most likely causing his shock?

      Your Answer: Neurogenic

      Explanation:

      Neurogenic shock is a devastating consequence of spinal cord injury (SCI), also known as vasogenic shock. Injury to the spinal cord results in sudden loss of sympathetic tone, which leads to the autonomic instability that is manifested in hypotension, bradyarrhythmia, and temperature dysregulation. Spinal cord injury is not to be confused with spinal shock, which is a reversible reduction in sensory and motor function following spinal cord injury. Neurogenic shock is associated with cervical and high thoracic spine injury. Early identification and aggressive management are vital in neurogenic shock to prevent secondary spinal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 16-year-old boy presents with left-sided hemi-sensory loss and ipsilateral sensory inattention. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents with left-sided hemi-sensory loss and ipsilateral sensory inattention. The doctor suspects a space-occupying lesion.Where is this likely to be?

      Your Answer: Right frontal lobe

      Correct Answer: Right parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      Damage to the left parietal lobe can result in what is called Gerstmann’s Syndrome. It includes right-left confusion, difficulty with writing (agraphia) and difficulty with mathematics (acalculia). It can also produce disorders of language (aphasia) and the inability to perceive objects normally (agnosia).Damage to the right parietal lobe can result in neglecting part of the body or space (contralateral neglect), which can impair many self-care skills such as dressing and washing. Right side damage can also cause difficulty in making things (constructional apraxia), denial of deficits (anosognosia) and drawing ability.Bi-lateral damage (large lesions to both sides) can cause Balint’s Syndrome, a visual attention and motor syndrome. This is characterized by the inability to voluntarily control the gaze (ocular apraxia), inability to integrate components of a visual scene (simultanagnosia), and the inability to accurately reach for an object with visual guidance (optic ataxia)Special deficits (primarily to memory and personality) can occur if there is damage to the area between the parietal and temporal lobes.Left parietal-temporal lesions can affect verbal memory and the ability to recall strings of digits. The right parietal-temporal lobe is concerned with non-verbal memory.Right parietal-temporal lesions can produce significant changes in personality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      89.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcaemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand.What is the treatment of choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:Short statureStocky habitusObesityDevelopmental delayRound faceDental hypoplasiaBrachymetacarpalsBrachymetatarsalsSoft tissue calcification/ossificationThe goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      180.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a...

    Incorrect

    • Out of 30 children who are exposed to a chemical, 15 develop a disorder, compared to only 1 child out of 10 developing the same disorder who were not exposed.The following can be deduced from this information:

      Your Answer: The chemical causes the disorder

      Correct Answer: The relative risk of exposure to the chemical is 5

      Explanation:

      Relative risk is the probability of an outcome occurring in an exposed group as compared to the probability of that outcome in an unexposed group. In the scenario given, 50% of the children exposed developed the disease while only 10% of the children who were unexposed developed the disease. The relative risk was therefore 50/10=5. There is no further information about whether the study was controlled, the confidence interval, or the type of study. It therefore cannot be confirmed whether the chemical is causative and if it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      37.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - During a routine developmental assessment, it is noted that an infant can transfer...

    Correct

    • During a routine developmental assessment, it is noted that an infant can transfer a cube from her left to her right hand. She gains much excitement when placed in a forward or downward parachute position. In contrast to her last visit, she no longer has a rooting, grasp, or startle reflex. Her symmetrical Moro reflex has also disappeared. The infant continuously presents items to her mouth and sucks her fingers. She has a positive Babinski sign but a negative asymmetrical tonic neck reflex.What is the developmental age of the child in question?

      Your Answer: 8 months

      Explanation:

      Based on the presentation, the developmental age of the child is 8 months.The primitive reflexes are indicators of functional integrity and maturity. The majority of reflexes do not persist beyond 6 months of age. There are 13 reflexes of importance, including:- Moro reflex- Startle reflex- Rooting reflex- Sucking reflex- Grasp reflex- Voluntary palmar grasp reflex- Voluntary reach reflex- Stepping reflex- Asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)- Parachute reflex- Plantar reflex- Tendon reflex- ClonusIt is interesting to note that gastrocolic reflex is not a primitive reflex.Ninety-five per cent of reflexes will have disappeared by the ages shown below:- 6 weeks: Stepping- 3-4 months: Palmar grasp and Moro- 6 months: Sucking, rooting, and asymmetrical tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      122.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following terms denote the property demonstrated by conditions where there...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following terms denote the property demonstrated by conditions where there are a variety of genetic defects, all leading to the same phenotypical manifestations?

      Your Answer: Linkage

      Correct Answer: Heterogeneity

      Explanation:

      The property described in the question is heterogeneity.Heterogeneity is when a single phenotype or genetic disorder can be caused by multiple numbers of genetic mutations.Other options:- Pleiotropy occurs when a single gene influences multiple phenotypic traits. The underlying mechanism is that the gene codes for a product that is used by various cells. A classic example of pleiotropy is the human disease PKU (phenylketonuria).- The penetrance of a disease-causing mutation is the proportion of individuals with the mutation who exhibit clinical symptoms. For example, the gene responsible for a particular autosomal dominant disorder has 70% penetrance, then 70% of those with the mutation will develop the disease, while 30% will not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      196.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a...

    Correct

    • A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a fire at home. She was transferred to the critical care unit after the wound was cleaned and dressed. She became tachycardic and hypotensive one day after skin grafts were done. She has vomited three times and blood was seen in it. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Curling's ulcers

      Explanation:

      Answer: Curling’s ulcersCurling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness. A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born term baby has a 2/6 systolic murmur 6-hours after delivery.Which one of the following is the most common explanation of this murmur?

      Your Answer: Patent foramen ovale

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The murmur of tricuspid valve regurgitation is typically a high-pitched, blowing, holosystolic, plateau, nonradiating murmur best heard at the lower left sternal border. The intensity is variable, but tends to increase during inspiration (Carvallo’s sign), with passive leg raising, after a post-extrasystole pause, and following amyl nitrite inhalation. The intensity of the murmur tends to correlate positively with the severity of regurgitation. Right ventricular enlargement may displace the location of the murmur leftward. Right ventricular failure may abolish respiratory variation. When tricuspid regurgitation is caused by pulmonary hypertension, a pulmonic ejection click may be audible. Severe tricuspid regurgitation is commonly accompanied by a third heart sound emanating from the right ventricle and best heard at the lower left sternal border. Severe tricuspid regurgitation typically produces an accentuated jugular cv wave and may produce hepatic congestion with a pulsatile liver.The auscultatory findings associated with ventricular septal defect are variable, depending on a variety of morphologic and hemodynamic considerations. The systolic murmur associated with a Roger’s-type ventricular septal defect (regurgitant jet flows directly into the right ventricular outflow tract) in patients with low pulmonary vascular resistance is a low to medium pitched, holosystolic murmur with midsystolic accentuation. The intensity of the murmur is typically grade 3 or higher.Patent ductus arteriosus produces a continuous murmur in patients with normal pulmonary vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      100
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference...

    Correct

    • A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference was above the 90th percentile.The next best step is?

      Your Answer: Cranial ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The baby may have hydrocephalus and no surgery can be done until it is excluded.Cranial sonography is an important part of neonatal care in general, and high-risk and unstable premature infants, in particular. It allows rapid evaluation of infants in the intensive care units without the need for sedation and with virtually no risk. Expectedly, sonography represents an ideal imaging modality in neonates due to its portability, lower cost, speed, and lack of ionizing radiations. Although there are numerous indications for cranial sonography, it appears to be most useful for detection and follow-up of intracranial haemorrhage, hydrocephalus, and periventricular leukomalacia (PVL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 16 year old girl presents with excess hair and amenorrhoea. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old girl presents with excess hair and amenorrhoea. She is normotensive. Her prolactin levels are normal. She has a raised 17 α-hydroxyprogesterone level.What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Partial 21-hydroxylase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Deficiency of 21-hydroxylase, resulting from mutations or deletions of CYP21A, is the most common form of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, accounting for more than 90% of cases.Females with mild 21-hydroxylase deficiency are identified later in childhood because of precocious pubic hair, clitoromegaly, or both, often accompanied by accelerated growth and skeletal maturation (simple virilizing adrenal hyperplasia)Diagnosis of 21-hydroxylase deficiency: High serum concentration of 17-hydroxyprogesterone (usually >1000 ng/dL) and urinary pregnanetriol (metabolite of 17-hydroxyprogesterone) in the presence of clinical features suggestive of the disease| 24-hour urinary 17-ketosteroid levels are elevated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A child cannot wave goodbye or grasp objects with her fingers and thumb...

    Correct

    • A child cannot wave goodbye or grasp objects with her fingers and thumb but can sit briefly supported by leaning forward on her hands. She can reach and grasp objects with the whole hand and then pass it from one hand to the other and is babbling. What is her expected age?

      Your Answer: 7 months

      Explanation:

      At 7 months, children are expected to sit briefly leaning forward on their hands, reach and grasp objects, transfer objects from hand to hand, and babble. Children are usually expected to wave goodbye or grasp objects with their fingers or thumb at around 10 months and older.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      114.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 17-year-old female presents with pelvic pain occurring during her periods, with 'deep'...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female presents with pelvic pain occurring during her periods, with 'deep' pain during intercourse and pain on defecation during this time. She states that her periods are regular with little bleeding.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroids

      Correct Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is defined as the presence of normal endometrial mucosa (glands and stroma) abnormally implanted in locations other than the uterine cavityAbout one third of women with endometriosis remain asymptomatic. When they do occur, symptoms, such as the following, typically reflect the area of involvement:- Dysmenorrhea- Heavy or irregular bleeding- Pelvic pain- Lower abdominal or back pain – Dyspareunia- Dyschezia (pain on defecation) – Often with cycles of diarrhoea and constipation- Bloating, nausea, and vomiting- Inguinal pain- Pain on micturition and/or urinary frequency- Pain during exercise- Patients with endometriosis do not frequently have any physical examination findings beyond tenderness related to the site of involvement. – The most common finding is nonspecific pelvic tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      238.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the...

    Incorrect

    • A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the dorsum of her hand. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn’s disease

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging. This patient has swollen parotid glands. The glands swell in order to increase saliva production so that the saliva lost in the vomiting is compensated. This patient also has thickened calluses on the back of her hand. This is known as Russell’s sign. This occurs because of putting fingers in the mouth again and again to induce the gag reflex and vomit. The knuckles get inflamed in the process after coming in contact with the teeth multiple times.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a...

    Incorrect

    • Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. Which of these changes will decrease the rate of diffusion of a substance?

      Your Answer: An increase in the concentration gradient

      Correct Answer: An increase in the molecular weight of the substance

      Explanation:

      Unless given IV, a drug must cross several semipermeable cell membranes before it reaches the systemic circulation. Drugs may cross cell membranes by diffusion, amongst other mechanisms. The rate of diffusion of a substance is proportional to the difference in the concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane, the temperature of the solution, the permeability of the membrane and, in the case of ions, the electrical potential difference between the two sides of the membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      66.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 15-year-old girl presented with generalised excessive hair growth, especially on her limbs....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presented with generalised excessive hair growth, especially on her limbs. Which one of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: There is a Becker’s naevus present

      Correct Answer: She is on phenytoin to control seizures

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are most likely due to phenytoin intake.Note:Hypertrichosis occurs in 5–12% of patients on phenytoin and is most prominent on the extremities. Other options:- Hypertrichosis is the excess hair growth, whereas hirsutism is the development of male-pattern-dependent hair growth, as seen in polycystic ovarian syndrome. – A Becker’s naevus is associated with localised hypertrichosis in the naevus. – Cyclosporine intake can typically lead to diffuse hair growth that begins within 2–4 weeks of starting the drug. – Hereditary gingival fibromatosis is associated with variable hypertrichosis occurring on the eyebrows, face, limbs and mid-back.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      98.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis.On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg.Investigations show:Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600)Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20)Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20)Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450)Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22)TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0)What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-functional pituitary tumour

      Correct Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department following a boiling water...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department following a boiling water scalding injury to his hand. On examination, his hand appears to be white but he does not complain of any pain. What is the explanation for the absence of pain in this patient?

      Your Answer: She has suffered a partial thickness burn that has not stimulated sensory neurones hence the absence of pain

      Correct Answer: A full thickness burn has gone through the dermis and damaged sensory neurones

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario provided is highly suggestive of third-degree burns (or full-thickness burns) that may have invaded the deeper levels up to dermis, evident from the insensate nature of the lesion.Degrees of Burns:- First degree burns are superficial second-degree burns.- Second-degree burns are just deeper than that of first-degree burns but vary enormously in other properties.- Third-degree burns are full-thickness burns which are leathery in consistency, and insensate. These burns do not heal on their own. The sensory neurons present in the skin at the deeper levels are destroyed completely and hence provide a paradoxical lack of pain.- Fourth-degree burns involving the subcutaneous tissues, tendons, and bones are very difficult to manage.Assessment of the extent of the burns for the treatment employs specialized charts, such as Lund and Browder charts and Wallace rule of nines.The Lund and Browder chart is, however, considered the most accurate.Wallace’s Rule of Nines can be used for children >16 years: – Head + neck = 9%- Each arm = 9%- Each anterior part of leg = 9%- Each posterior part of leg = 9%- Anterior chest = 9%- Posterior chest = 9%- Anterior abdomen = 9%- Posterior abdomen = 9%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following causes macrocephaly? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes macrocephaly?

      Your Answer: Poorly controlled gestational diabetes

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The aetiology of macrocephaly is diverse.The most common cause is benign familial macrocephaly characterized by enlargement of the subarachnoid spaces and accounts for almost 50% of cases.Other causes are:- Enlargement of skull bones – Hyperostosis cranii – associated with disorders such as osteogenesis imperfecta, achondroplasia, and osteopetrosis- Secondary enlargement due to bone marrow expansion – as seen in thalassemia major- Increase in volume of cerebrospinal fluid- Hydrocephalus, Choroid plexus papilloma, Benign familial macrocephaly- Megalencephaly – Leukodystrophies – Canavan disease, Alexander disease, megalencephalic leukoencephalopathy with subcortical cysts- Lysosomal storage disorders – Tay-Sachs, mucopolysaccharidosis, gangliosidosis- Neurocutaneous disorders – Tuberous sclerosis, Sturge-weber syndrome, neurofibromatosis, Gorlin syndrome- Autism spectrum disorder- Other syndromes – Fragile X syndrome, Cowden syndrome, Sotos syndrome- Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)- CNS infections, Pseudotumor cerebriSubdural collections including hygromas- Mass lesions and an increase in the volume of bloodTumourIntraventricular haemorrhage, subdural hematoma, arteriovenous malformation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - All of the following drugs tend to worsen the symptoms of myasthenia gravis...

    Correct

    • All of the following drugs tend to worsen the symptoms of myasthenia gravis except?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Prednisone is used for the treatment of myasthenia gravis if there is no initial response to the anticholinesterase medications. Pyridostigmine can make the symptoms of myasthenia gravis worse if used  in the initial stages of treatment. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What percentage of infants born with meconium Ileus have cystic fibrosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of infants born with meconium Ileus have cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: 40-60%

      Correct Answer: >90%

      Explanation:

      90% of patients with meconium ileus have cystic fibrosis (CF). Indeed, in 10 – 15% of cases of CF, the patient presents with meconium ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: It always presents as a febrile illness

      Correct Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocele

      Explanation:

      The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      85.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 6 year old child presents with unilateral headache that affects the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child presents with unilateral headache that affects the left side of his head and face. His left eye is red and he scores 7/10 on pain assessment. The headache develops suddenly and unexpectedly after he returns from school. He has a history of six such episodes this year. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Migraine without aura

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches present with unilateral severe headache that may be associated with ipsilateral cranial autonomic symptoms including| lacrimation, rhinorrhoea, ophthalmic injection, and occasionally, Horner syndrome (ipsilateral miosis, ptosis, and facial anhidrosis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor...

    Incorrect

    • A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor for the development of asthma in children. The total number of patients recruited for this study is 200. 40 out of the 200 patients report at least one parent smoking in the house when they were younger. 200 more people without asthma are recruited and 20 out of them report that at least one parent smoked in the house when they were younger. What is the odds ratio of patients with asthma having been exposed to passive smoking during their childhood?

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Correct Answer: 2.25

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      296.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?

      Your Answer: The larvae hatch in 3-4 weeks

      Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present. The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      198.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 10 year old boy presents with generalized swelling. This includes puffiness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 year old boy presents with generalized swelling. This includes puffiness in the face and swollen ankles - these symptoms have been present for 4 days. The swelling began just a few days after he suffered from a mild cold with a runny nose. His only past medical history is that of eczema. His urine analysis showed the following: haematuria| proteinuria (10g/24h)| creat60umol/l| and albumin of 15g/l. From the list of options, what is the single most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      A 10 year old child, with a history of URTI and haematuria, presents a picture consistent with a diagnosis of IgA nephropathy. This condition can present with proteinuria and generalized swelling. However, an important differentiating point from rapidly progressive GN is the duration. IgA nephropathy is usually <10 days (commonly 4-5 day history of infection).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 15-year-old boy with type 1 DM is recently started on an insulin...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy with type 1 DM is recently started on an insulin pump. There has been better glycaemic control and he now subsequently enjoys a healthy, active lifestyle. During the consultation, he seems to acknowledge the risks of missing out his dose and says that he is comfortable with his new pump. he mentions that he changes his site after every 4 days. However, a random blood sugar analysis reveals it to be 22.3 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the raised RBS level?

      Your Answer: Site change is overdue

      Explanation:

      Insertion sites and sensor sites should be rotated each time the infusion set or glucose sensor is changed. This keeps the tissue healthy and allows previous sites to completely heal before reusing them. Change infusion set every 2 to 3 days to help prevent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The right testicular vein is the tributary of which of the following structures?...

    Incorrect

    • The right testicular vein is the tributary of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Common iliac vein

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The right testicular vein is a tributary of the inferior vena cava, while the left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein.Note:The testicular venous drainage begins in the septa and these veins together with those of the tunica vasculosa converge on the posterior border of the testis as the pampiniform plexus. The pampiniform plexus, in turn, drains to the testicular vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old female presents with an increase in the size of her breasts and light hair on the border of the labia majora. Her mother worries she might be having premature puberty. What is her Tanner stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Tanner stage two presents with the following: Downy hair, Breast bud palpable under areola (1st pubertal sign in females).Stage 1 (prepubertal) – elevation of papilla only – no pubic hairStage 2 – breast bud forms – sparse, slightly pigmented hair on labia majoraStage 3 – Breast begins to become elevated, extends beyond areola borders – hair becomes more coarse and curlyStage 4 – increased size and elevation. Areola and papilla form secondary mound – adult like, but sparing medial thighsStage 5 – final size, areola returns but papilla remains projected – hair extends to medial thighs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. This infection is most likely caused by which of the following organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (3/3) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (2/3) 67%
Endocrinology (4/5) 80%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/2) 50%
Child Development (2/2) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Neonatology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Fluid And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Nephro-urology (0/1) 0%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
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