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Question 1
Correct
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Levels of serum potassium in around 1000 patients that were on ACE inhibitor were measured. The mean value was calculated to be 4.6mmol/L and a standard deviation of 0.3mmol/L was recorded.
Which among the given options is correct?Your Answer: 68.3% of values lie between 4.3 and 4.9 mmol/l
Explanation:Its known that 68.3% of the total values of a normally distributed variable are found within a range of 1 standard deviation from the mean which makes the range to be 4.3 to 4.9 mmol/L.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 2
Correct
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Concerning the pathway of endothelial nitric oxide (eNO), one of the following best describes it.
Your Answer: Stimulation of guanylyl cyclase, increases cGMP concentration leading to vasodilation
Explanation:Nitric oxide (NO), an endothelial-derived relaxant factor (EDRF), is a powerful vasodilator. Its cell-signalling molecule is calcium-dependant and generated endogenous by nitric oxide synthetases from the precursor L-arginine, oxygen and NADPH. Three main isoforms have been isolated and they are inducible (iNO), neuronal (nNO) and endothelial (eNO).
Endothelial NO stimulates intracellular guanylyl cyclase which generates cyclic GMP (cGMP) from its action on guanylyl tri-phosphate (GTP). The cGMP goes on to activate protein kinase G (PKG). PKG phosphorylates cell membrane proteins that regulate intracellular calcium concentrations and level of calcium sensitisation.
Smooth muscle vasodilatation results from:
1. Light chain phosphatase activation.
2. Inhibition of calcium entry into the cell (reducing Ca2+ concentrations) and
3. Hyperpolarisation of cells by activation of H+ channels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which structure passes through the foramen magnum?
Your Answer: Spinal roots of the accessory nerve
Explanation:The structures that pass through the foramen magnum are:
Meningeal lymphatics
Spinal cord
Spinal meninges
Sympathetic plexus of vertebral arteries
Vertebral arteries
Vertebral artery spinal branches
The spinal roots of the accessory nerve.The jugular foramen contains the vagus nerve, the accessory nerve and glossopharyngeal nerve.
The vertebral veins does not pass into the skull.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypomagnesaemia?
Your Answer: Causes tetany
Explanation:The ECG changes seen in hypomagnesaemia include:
Prolonged PR interval
Prolonged QT interval
Flattening of T waves
ST segment depression
Prominent U wavesThese changes are almost the same as those of hypokalaemia.
There is an increased risk of digoxin toxicity and a risk of atrial and ventricular ectopic and ventricular arrhythmias.
There is impaired synthesis and release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in chronic hypomagnesaemia leading to impaired target organ response to PTH. This produces secondary hypocalcaemia.
The use of potassium ‘wasting’ diuretics (e.g. loop diuretics like furosemide) may lead to Hypomagnesaemia.
A tall T wave is seen in hypermagnesemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 5
Correct
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Lisa is a 75-year-old female rushed into the emergency department by first-aid responders. The ambulance team give a history of vomiting, homonymous hemianopia, weakness of the left upper and lower limb, and dysphasia. Lisa adds that she has a headache that keeps worsening.
Lisa takes Warfarin as she is a known case of atrial fibrillation. Her INR is 4.3 despite the ideal target being 2-3.
CT scan of the head suggests anterior cerebral artery haemorrhage.
What areas of the brain are affected by an anterior cerebral artery stroke?Your Answer: Frontal and parietal lobes
Explanation:The anterior cerebral artery supplies the midline portion of the frontal lobe and the superior medial parietal lobe of the brain. It also supplies the front four-fifths of the corpus callosum and provides blood to deep structures such as the anterior limb of the internal capsule, part of the caudate nucleus, and the anterior part of the globus pallidus.
The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries.
Clinically, the internal carotid arteries and their branches are often referred to as the anterior circulation of the brain. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected by the anterior communicating artery. Near their termination, the internal carotid arteries are joined to the posterior cerebral arteries by the posterior communicating arteries, completing the cerebral arterial circle around the interpeduncular fossa, the deep depression on the inferior surface of the midbrain between the cerebral peduncles.
The middle cerebral artery supplies part of the frontal, temporal and parietal lobes.
The posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following is correct about the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All ?-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Regarding the anatomical relations of the scalenus muscles, which of these is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The trunks of the brachial plexus emerge from the lateral border of scalenus anterior
Explanation:The ascending cervical artery lies media the phrenic nerve on scalenus anterior and can easily be mistaken for the phrenic nerve at operation.
The phrenic nerve passes across scalenus anterior and medius inferiorly.
The subclavian artery is separated from the vein by the scalenus anterior.
The brachiocephalic vein is formed at the medial border of scalenus anterior by the subclavian vein and the internal jugular vein.
Emerging from the lateral border of scalenus anterior are the trunks of the brachial plexus .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone and is referred to an ENT. She explains that the bone feels stuck in her throat. A laryngoscopy is performed and it shows the bone is lodged in the piriform recess.
Name the nerve at highest risk of damage by the bone?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by sharp foreign objects which become lodged in the recess.
Any attempt to retrieve lodged foreign objects must be done careful as there is also a high risk of damage during this process.
The other mentioned nerves are not at risk of being affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A transport ventilator is powered by an air/oxygen mix using a full oxygen cylinder (class CD) with an internal capacity of 2 litres, and pressure of 23,000 kPa, with a gas flow of 4 litres/minute.
The ventilator also has a control resulting in an additional gas consumption of 1 litre/minute.
How long will it take for the cylinder to empty?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 92 minutes
Explanation:The Drager Oxylog® 1000 is a pneumatically powered, time-dependent, volume-titrated emergency ventilator with a pressure limit. It is compatible with CD cylinder oxygen. The CD cylinder is a strong and lightweight cylinder usually composed of aluminium or Kevlar. The internal cylinder volume is 2 litres, and the pressure of a full cylinder is 230 bar. The volume of the full cylinder is determined by applying Boyle’s law: P1 × V1 = P2 × V2
Where:
P1= pressure of a full cylinder (230 bar)
V1= volume of oxygen at that pressure (2 litres)
P2= final pressure (1 bar), and
V2= volume of oxygen in the full cylinder.Substituting values into the equation:
230 × 2 = 1 x V2
V2 = 460 litres. The flow of fresh gas is 4 litres/minute + 1 litre/minute required by the control, making a total of 5 litres/minute. The amount of time it takes for the cylinder to empty would be the total volume of oxygen in the full cylinder divided by the amount of oxygen expelled per minute: 460/5 = 92, meaning it would take 92 minutes for the cylinder to empty. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 10
Incorrect
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The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery. The total volume of solution is 120mL.
What is the appropriate combination of constituents in the final solution?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline
Explanation:30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mLThe volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).
If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls
The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise. On urine culture and sensitivity testing, E.coli was detected with resistance to ampicillin.
What is the mechanism of resistance to ampicillin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-lactamase production
Explanation:Ampicillin belongs to the family of penicillin. Resistance to this group of drugs is due to ?-lactamase production which opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
Resistance to cephalosporins is due to changes in penicillin-binding proteins.
Resistance to macrolides are due to post-transcriptional methylation of 23s bacterial ribosomal RNA
Resistance to fluoroquinolones is due to mutations in DNA gyrase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male has tonsillitis and is in considerable pain.
Which nerve is responsible for the sensory innervation of the tonsillar fossa?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:A tonsillar sinus or fossa is a space that is bordered by the triangular fold of the palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches in the lateral wall of the oral cavity. The palatine tonsils are in these sinuses.
The glossopharyngeal nerve is the main sensory nerve for the tonsillar fossa. The tonsillar branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve supply the palatine tonsils forming a plexus around it. Filaments from this plexus are distributed to the soft palate and fauces where they communicate with the palatine nerves. A lesser contribution is made by the lesser palatine nerve. Because of this otalgia may occur following tonsillectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness of breath and wheezing over the last 48 hours. On examination, she is found to have tachycardia, tachypnoea, and oxygen saturation at 91% on air. She admits to a previous medical history of asthma, diagnosed 4 years ago. She requires further investigations for diagnosis.
Which of the following is true about the assessment of a patient with symptomatic asthma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxygen saturations of 91% on air would be an indication for performing arterial blood gases
Explanation:A patient presenting with symptomatic asthma should be assessed for severity to determine appropriate management options. Indications of acute severe asthma are:
Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): 33-50% best/predicted
Respiratory rate: ≥25/min
Heart rate: ≥110/min
Inability to finish a complete sentence in a single breath.Oxygen saturation should be measured. Any measurement of an oxygen saturation of 92% or less, either on air or on oxygen, indicates severe, life threatening asthma, and requires an arterial blood gas (ABG) to detect normo- or hypercarbia.
A chest x-ray would not be routine as it will not provide any relevant information. It is only required in specific cases, including:
Diagnosis of a subcutaneous emphysema
Indications of a unilateral pneumothorax
Indications of a lobar collapse of consolidation
Treatment-resistance life-threatening asthma
If mechanical ventilation is indicatedA peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can provide relevant information to help distinguish between acute, moderate, severe and life threatening asthma. However, it is not necessary as other parameters exist that can also help make the same distinction.
An ECG is indicated in this case as the patient has tachycardia and tachypnoea which are indicative of acute severe asthma. The ECG would indicate if arrhythmia is also present which would suggest life-threatening asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old smoker booked for an emergency laparotomy is in the anaesthetic room prior to intubation. He is breathing room air and an arterial blood gas is obtained on insertion of an arterial cannula and sent for analysis.
The following results are available:
Haemoglobin 75 g/L
PaO2 10.7 kPa
PaCO2 5.2 kPa
After intravenous induction, intubation is difficult and he rapidly begins to de-saturate.
Which of the following is most effective in prolonging the oxygen de-saturation time?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-oxygenation with 100% O2 for three minutes
Explanation:Breathing 100% oxygen for three minutes will provide the best reservoir of oxygen during apnoea by oxygenating the functional residual capacity (FRC).
Sitting at 45 degrees might increase the FRC and improve oxygen reserve but not compared with 100% oxygenation.
The following table compares the oxygen reserves in the body following pre-oxygenation with room air and 100% oxygen:
Compartment Factors Room air (mL) 100% O2 (mL)
Lung FAO2, FRC 630 2850
Plasma PaO2, DF, PV 7 45
Red blood cells Hb, TGV, SaO2 788 805
Myoglobin – 200 200
Interstitial space – 25 160FAO2 = alveolar fraction of oxygen.
FRC = Functional residual capacity.
PaO2 = partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood
DF = dissolved form.
PV = plasma volume.
TG = total globular volume .
Hb = haemoglobin concentration.
SaO2 = arterial oxygen saturationStopping smoking one month prior to surgery will not be more effective than pre-oxygenation with 100% oxygen though it may reduce postoperative pulmonary complications. Note that both long term and short term abstinence reduces pulse rate and blood pressure thus reducing oxygen consumption and also reduce carboxyhaemoglobin levels.
Blood transfusion will not make a big difference in oxygen reserve, particularly if a blood transfusion is administered within 12-24-hours before surgery.
Heliox (79% helium and 21% oxygen) despite its lower viscosity is unlikely to be more effective than 100% oxygen .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man, presents to the hospital with bilateral inguinal hernias.
After examination and investigation, the surgical team decides to perform a laparoscopic hernia repair using the extraperitoneal approach. After making an infraumbilical incision, the surgeons perform the repair by placing a prosthetic mesh over the affected area, after shifting the inferior aspect of the rectus abdominis muscle anteriorly.
Name the structure that would like posterior to the mesh?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peritoneum
Explanation:This question is asking which structure would lie posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle and not the prosthetic mesh, as only peritoneum lies posterior to mesh during a total extraperitoneal (TEP) hernia repair.
The region of the repair lies below the arcuate line, meaning that the transversalis fascia and peritoneum lie posterior to the rectus abdominis.
The bucks fascia lies within the penis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is incorrect with regards to atrial natriuretic peptide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secreted mainly by the left atrium
Explanation:Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
degraded by endopeptidases.It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration
Explanation:The elimination of phenytoin follows first order kinetics. Plasma concentrations determine the rate of elimination. The relationship between drug X plasma concentration and time is described by an exponential process in the following equation used to describe the rate of elimination:
C = C0. e-kt
C=drug concentration, C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated), k = rate constant and t=time
As enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations are above the usual range, clearance of the medication becomes zero-order. The medication is metabolised at a constant pace, regardless of its plasma levels. Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are two more significant examples of medications that operate in this way.
A plot of drug concentration with time is a washout exponential curve.
A graph of concentration with time is a straight line i.e. Zero-order kinetics
The amount eliminated per unit time is constant defines the point at which zero order kinetics commences.
Elimination involves a rate-limiting reaction operating at its maximal velocity is incorrect.
The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration in the plasma corresponds to a definition of first-order kinetics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The external urethral sphincter arises from which nerve root?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S2, S3, S4
Explanation:The external urethral sphincter functions to provide voluntary control of urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.
It receives its innervation from the branches of the pudendal nerve which originate from S2, S3 and S4.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Of the following statements, which is true about the measurements of cardiac output using thermodilution?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac output should be measured during the end-expiratory pause
Explanation:Thermodilution is the most common dilution method used to measure cardiac output (CO) in a hospital setting.
During the procedure, a Swan-Ganz catheter, which is a specialized catheter with a thermistor-tip, is inserted into the pulmonary artery via the peripheral vein. 5-10mL of a cold saline solution with a known temperature and volume is injected into the right atrium via a proximal catheter port. The solution is cooled as it mixes with the blood during its travel to the pulmonary artery. The temperature of the blood is the measured by the catheter and is profiled using a computer.
The computer also uses the profile to measure cardiac output from the right ventricle, over several measurements until an average is selected.
Cardiac output changes at each point of respiration, therefore to get an accurate measurement, the same point during respiration must be used at each procedure, this is usually the end of expiration, that is the end-expiratory pause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has complaints of severe tearing chest pain. A preliminary diagnosis of aortic dissection is made in the emergency department. In aortic dissection, which layers have blood flowing in between them?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tunica intima and tunica media
Explanation:The wall of an artery has three layers: (innermost to outermost)
1. Tunica intima – in direct contact with the blood inside the vessel and contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions.
2. Tunica media – contains smooth muscle cells and is separated from the intima by the internal elastic lamina and the adventitia by the external elastic lamina.
3. Tunica adventitia – contains the vasa vasorum, fibroblast, and collagen.Aortic dissection is when a tear arises in the innermost layer of the aorta and penetrates through the tear, entering the media layer. The inner and middle layers of the aorta split (dissect).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A study designed to examine the benefits of adding a new antiplatelet to aspirin after a myocardial infraction. The recorded results give us the percentage of patients that reported myocardial infraction within a three month period. The percentage was 4% and 3% for aspirin and the combination of drugs respectively.
How many further patients needed to be treated in order for one patient to avoid any more heart attacks during 3 months?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (0.04-0.03)
ARR= 0.01
NNT= 1/0.01
NNT=100
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for the early management of acute severe asthma in the emergency department. After being allocated to the randomized groups, many patients have been excluded due to deleterious effect to the drugs.
How the data would be analysed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set
Explanation:Randomized controlled trails will be analysed by the intention-to-treat (ITT) approach. It provides unbiased comparisons among the treatment groups. ITT analyses are done to avoid the effects of dropout, which may break the random assignment to the treatment groups in a study.
ITT analysis is a comparison of the treatment groups that includes all patients as originally allocated after randomization.
In order to include such participants in an analysis, outcome data could be imputed which involves making assumptions about the outcomes in the lost participants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 23
Incorrect
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This vertebrae can be easily differentiated from the rest because of its prominent spinous process.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C7
Explanation:The spinous process is the part of a vertebrae that is directed posteriorly.
Typical cervical vertebra have spinous processes that are small and bifid, except for C7, which has a long and prominent spinous process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man has a swelling in his left groin with moderate pain and discomfort complaints. Diagnosed with an inguinal hernia, he is scheduled for elective surgery to repair the defect.
Of the following, which nerve runs in the inguinal canal and is at risk of being damaged during surgery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve
Explanation:The inguinal canal is a passage in the lower anterior abdominal wall just above the inguinal ligament. It transmits the following structures:
1. genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
2. ilioinguinal nerve
3. spermatic cord (males only)
4. round ligament of the uterus (females only)The ilioinguinal is a direct branch of the first lumbar nerve. The ilioinguinal nerve enters the inguinal canal via the abdominal musculature (and not through the deep (internal) inguinal ring) and exits through the superficial (or external) inguinal ring.
The openings for the other nerves in the answer options are:
Sciatic nerve – exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen
Obturator nerve – descends into pelvis via the obturator foramen
Femoral nerve – descends from the abdomen through the pelvis behind the inguinal canalThe Iliohypogastric nerve also arises from the first lumbar root with the ilioinguinal nerve but pierces the transversus abdominis muscle posteriorly, just above the iliac crest, and continues anteriorly between the transversus abdominis and the internal abdominal oblique muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old doctor has recently been diagnosed with lung cancer. He would like to find out his survival time for the condition.
Which statistical method is used to predict survival rate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator
Explanation:The Weibull distribution are used to describe various types of observed failures of the components. it is used in reliability and survival analysis.
Regression Analysis is used to measure the relationship between among two or more variable. It determines the effect of independent variables on the dependent variables.
Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.
A time series is a collection of observations of well-defined data obtained at regular interval of time.
Kaplan-Meier estimator is used to estimate the survival function from lifetime data. It can be derived from maximum likelihood estimation of hazard function. It is most likely used to measure the fraction of patient’s life for a certain amount of time after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon.
Multiple arteries arise from the aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae, which is most likely to be involved in this pathology?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae and supplies blood to the final third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon and the uppermost part of the rectum.
It is the artery most likely to affect the left colon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Infrared radiation is absorbed by asymmetric, polyatomic polar molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2).
When measuring CO2 in gas samples, mainstream capnography uses this physical principle.
Which of the following gases is most likely to interfere with carbon dioxide's absorption spectrum?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nitrous oxide
Explanation:Carbon dioxide absorbs the most infrared (IR) light between the wavelengths of 4.2-4.4m (4.26m is ideal).
Nitrous oxide absorbs infrared light at wavelengths of 4.4-4.6m (very similar to CO2) and less so at 3.9m.
At a frequency of 4.7m, carbon monoxide absorbs the most IR light.
At 3.3 m and throughout the ranges 8-12 m, the volatile agents have strong absorption bands.
Although oxygen does not absorb infrared light, it collides with CO2 molecules, interfering with absorption. The absorption band is widened as a result of this (so called collision or pressure broadening). A drop of 0.5 percent in measured CO2 can be caused by 95% oxygen.
Nitrous oxide causes a greater inaccuracy of 0.1 percent per ten percent of nitrous oxide.
Water vapour absorbs infrared light as well, resulting in absorption band overlap, collision broadening, and partial pressure dilution. Water traps and water permeable tubing are used to reduce inaccuracies.
Collision broadening is compensated for in modern gas multi-gas analysers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The right coronary artery supplies blood to all the following, except which?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The circumflex artery
Explanation:The right coronary artery supplies the right ventricle, the right atrium, the sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node.
The circumflex artery originates from the left coronary artery and is supplied by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which statement is true with regards to the cardiac action potential?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close causes the relative refractory period to start
Explanation:Cardiac conduction
Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium
Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop
Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period
Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period
Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 5-year old male has ingested a peanut and has developed urticaria, vomiting and hypotension. The pathogenesis of this condition is derived from predominant cells of which cell line?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common myeloid progenitor
Explanation:A is correct. Common myeloid progenitor cells are involved in the anaphylaxis reaction.
B is incorrect. The common lymphoid lineage gives rise to T-cells, B-cell and NK cells.
C is incorrect as megakaryocytes give rise to platelets.
D is incorrect – Neural crest cells give rise to various cells throughout the body, including melanocytes, enterochromaffin cells and Schwann cells. However, they do not give rise to mast cells.
E is incorrect. Reticulocytes give rise to erythrocytes.This is a classic case of anaphylaxis. In this situation, IgE previously raised against antigens (in this case peanut antigen) bind to mast cells, and this causes them to degranulate.
There is release of vasoactive substances like histamine into the blood, and this is responsible for the symptoms seen. Therefore, the main type of cells involved in the pathogenesis of the disease is mast cells. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her left side of the face with a drooping mouth and difficulty speaking. With no significant past medical history and after relevant investigations, you rule out stroke as a possible cause. The lady is suspected to have suffered Bell's palsy, an idiopathic paralysis of the facial nerve.
What symptoms are you most likely to find on examination in a patient with Bell's palsy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Taste impairment of the anterior tongue
Explanation:Bell’s palsy is facial muscle weakness or paralysis that arises from idiopathic damage to the facial nerve. It can occur at any age but is commonly associated with some conditions:
1. pregnancy
2. diabetes
3. upper respiratory ailment
4. GBS
5. ToxinsThe common symptoms of Bell’s palsy are:
1. Abnormal corneal reflex as the facial nerve controls the motor aspect of the corneal reflex.
2. The loss of control of facial muscles and eyelids leads to decreased tear production.
3. mild weakness to total paralysis on one side of the face, occurring within hours to days.
4. Bell’s palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion that usually spares the forehead while the upper motor near lesions, like stroke, involves the entire face.
5. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue is supplied by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve, thus resulting in loss of taste.
6. Ptosis can be a feature of Bell’s palsy but Bell’s palsy would typically show unilateral symptoms rather than bilateral. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 32
Incorrect
-
Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these enzymes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ALA synthetase
Explanation:Heme a exists in cytochrome a and heme c in cytochrome c; they are both involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation. 5′-Aminolevulinic acid synthase (ALA-S) is the regulated enzyme for heme synthesis in the liver and erythroid cells.
There are two forms of ALA Synthase, ALAS1, and ALAS2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 33
Incorrect
-
One of the following neuromuscular blocking agents is the most potent:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vecuronium
Explanation:The measure of drug potency or therapeutic response is the ED95. This is defined as the dose of a neuromuscular blocking drug required to produce a 95% depression of muscle twitch height. The ED50 and ED90 describe a depression of twitch height by 50% and 90% respectively.
The ED95 (mg/kg) of the commonly used neuromuscular blocking agents are:
suxamethonium: 0.27
rocuronium: 0.31
vecuronium: 0.04
pancuronium: 0.07
cisatracurium: 0.04
mivacurium: 0.08 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 34
Incorrect
-
A survey aimed at finding out mean glucose level in individuals that took antipsychotics medicines was conducted. The results were as follows:
Mean Value: 7mmol/L
Standard Deviation: 6mmol/L
Sample Size: 9
Standard Error: 2mmol/L
For a confidence interval of 95%, which of the option presents the correct range up to the nearest value?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-11 mmol/L
Explanation:Key Point: While finding out confidence intervals, standard errors are used. Standard error and Standard deviation are two distinct entities and should not be confused.
For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:
Multiply the standard error by 3.
Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.
Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.
The range turns out to be 1-13 mmol/L.
For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. The range found for this interval is 3-11 mmol/L.
For a 95% confidence interval. Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 which gives us the limit ranging from 3.08 to 10.92 mmol/L which could be approximated to 3-11 mmol/L.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 35
Incorrect
-
Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the abdominal aorta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior phrenic artery
Explanation:The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.
The branches of the abdominal aorta (with their vertebra level) are:
1. Inferior phrenic arteries: T12 (upper border)
2. Coeliac artery: T12
3. Superior mesenteric artery: L1
4. Middle suprarenal arteries: L1
5. Renal arteries: Between L1 and L2
6. Gonadal arteries: L2 (in males, it is the testicular artery, and in females, the ovarian artery)
7. Inferior mesenteric artery: L3
8. Median sacral artery: L4
9. Lumbar arteries: Between L1 and L4The superior phrenic artery branches from the thoracic aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 36
Incorrect
-
Radical prostatectomy is being performed on a 60-year-old man for carcinoma of the prostate gland.
What is the direct blood supply of the prostate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior vesical artery
Explanation:The prostate gland is primarily supplied by the inferior vesical artery, which branches off from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. The inferior vesical artery supplies the base of the bladder, the distal ureters, and the prostate. The branches to the prostate communicate with the corresponding vessels of the opposite side.
The inferior vesical artery branches into two main arteries:
1. Urethral artery – supplies the transition zone and is the main arterial supply for the adenomas in BPH
2. Capsular artery – supplies the glandular tissueThe venous drainage of the prostate is from the prostatic venous plexus, which drains into the paravertebral veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true with regards to acetylcholine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Excess cholinesterase inhibitor medication causes cholinergic crisis
Explanation:Myasthenic and cholinergic crises are two crises which are similar in their clinical presentation.
Myasthenic crisis can be caused by:
-lack of acetylcholine,
-poor compliance with medication,
-infectionCholinergic crisis can be caused by excess cholinesterase inhibitor medication (mimicking organophosphate poisoning) causing excess acetylcholine.
Differentiation between the 2 crises is made by giving incremental doses of the short acting cholinesterase inhibitor, Edrophonium.
This increase acetylcholine levels and will make a myasthenic crisis better and a cholinergic crisis worse. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 38
Incorrect
-
Which of the following causes the right-sided shift of the oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.
Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right
Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
This can be caused by:
-HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
-low [H+] (alkali)
-low pCO2
-ow 2,3-DPG
-ow temperatureBohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
– raised [H+] (acidic)
– raised pCO2
-raised 2,3-DPG
-raised temperature -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 39
Incorrect
-
Systemic vascular resistance (multiplied by 80) to produce the units of dynes.s.cm-5 is represented by?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) - central venous pressure (CVP)/cardiac output (CO)
Explanation:Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is a derived value based on:
SVR = (MAP-CVP)/CO x 80
= (60 -10)/5 x 80 = 800 dynes.s.cm-5
A correction factor of 80 is needed in converting mmHg to dynes.s.cm-5
Normal values is between 700 -1600 dynes.s.cm-5Pulmonary resistance (PVR) = (MPAP-PCWP)/CO x 80
= (10 – 5)/5 x 80 = 80 dynes.s.cm-5
To account for body size, cardiac index (CI) can be used instead of CO. CI = CO/body surface area (m2) or mL/minute/m2.
N/B: either MAP and CVP, or MPAP and PCWP are used in calculation to get dynes.s.cm-5 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
During 2015 it was reported in the New England Journal of Medicine that the usage of empagliflozin(a sodium-glucose-co-transporter 2 inhibitor) caused a decrease in the cardiovascular deaths, non fatal heart attacks and strokes in patients suffering from type 2 diabetes. The results were published per 1000 patient years. With the above mentioned drug, the event rate turned out to be 37.3/1000 patient years whereas the placebo had an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years.
How many further patients need to be treated with empagliflozin to avoid any further incidence of cardiovascular death or non fatal myocardial infraction and non fatal stroke?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 150
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (43.9-37.3)
ARR= 6.6
NNT= 1000/6.6
NNT=151.5
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 25-year old male with palpitations and dizziness presents to the emergency room. In the triage process, cardiac monitoring shows supraventricular tachycardia with a heart rate of 200 beats per minute. This high heart rate arises as a result of different specialised cells and nerve fibres in the heart which are responsible for conducting that action potential which is generated in the event of systole.
The fastest conduction velocity is carried out by which of the following?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The correct answer is the Purkinje fibres, which conducts at a velocity of about 4m/sec.
The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.
This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.
Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 42
Incorrect
-
A morbidly obese (BMI=48) patient has the following co-morbidities: type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It is recommended for the patient to undergo bariatric surgery.
If the patient is laid flat for induction of anaesthesia, what physiologic changes of the respiratory system is the most important to consider?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity will decrease
Explanation:A decrease in the functional residual capacity (FRC) is the most important physiologic change to consider for such patients.
FRC is the sum of the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. It is the resting volume of the lung, and is an important marker for lung function. During this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure. When morbidly obese individuals lie supine, the FRC decreases by as much as 40% because the abdominal contents push the diaphragm into the thoracic cavity.
Chest wall compliance is expected to reduce because of fat deposition surrounding adjacent structures.
Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is expected to increase, and peak expiratory flow is expected to decrease, however the decrease in FRC is more important to consider because of the risk of hypoxia secondary to premature airway closure and ventilation-perfusion mismatch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 43
Incorrect
-
Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in an adult?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accounts for 15% of the cardiac output
Explanation:While the brain only weighs 3% of the body weight, 15% of the cardiac output goes towards the brain.
Between mean arterial pressures (MAP) of 60-130 mmHg, autoregulation of cerebral blood flow (CBF) occurs. Exceeding this, the CBF is maintained at a constant level. This is controlled mainly by the PaCO2 level, and the autonomic nervous system has minimal role.
Beyond these limits, the CBF is directly proportional to the MAP, not the systolic blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 44
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the smallest value of pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 14.69 psi
Explanation:The SI unit of pressure is the pascal (Pa) and it is equal to one newton (N) per square meter (m2) or N/m2.
1 atmosphere (atm) is the equivalent of:
101325 Pa760 mmHg
1.01325 bar
1033.23 cmH2O.
14.69 pounds per square inch (psi)
1013.25 millibar (mbar) or hectopascals (hPa), and14.69 psi is equal to one atmosphere. The other values are equal to two atmospheres of pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 45
Incorrect
-
Following an uneventful laparoscopic right hemicolectomy, a previously fit and well 75-year-old male is admitted to the critical care unit.
You've been summoned to examine the patient because he's become oliguric.
Which of the following is most likely to indicate that acute kidney injury is caused by a prerenal cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum urea: creatinine ratio 200
Explanation:Prerenal failure has a serum urea: creatinine ratio of >100, while acute kidney injury has a ratio of 40.
In prerenal failure, ADH levels are typically high, resulting in water, urea, and sodium resorption. The fractional sodium excretion is less than 1%, but it is greater than 2% in acute tubular necrosis.
Prerenal azotaemia has higher serum urea nitrogen/serum creatinine ratios (>20), whereas acute tubular necrosis has lower ratios (10-15). The normal range is between 12 and 20.
Urinary sodium is less than 20 in prerenal failure and greater than 40 in acute tubular necrosis.
Prerenal failure has a urine osmolality of >500, while acute tubular necrosis has an osmolality of 350.
Prerenal failure has a urine/serum creatinine ratio of >40, while acute tubular necrosis has a urine/serum creatinine ratio of 20.The concentrations of serum urea or creatinine change in inverse proportion to glomerular filtration. Changes in serum creatinine concentrations are more reliable than changes in serum urea concentrations in predicting GFR. Creatinine is produced at a constant rate from creatine, and blood concentrations are almost entirely determined by GFR.
A number of factors influence urea formation, including liver function, protein intake, and protein catabolism rate. Urea excretion is also influenced by hydration status, the amount of water reabsorption, and GFR.
A high serum creatinine level, as well as a urine output of less than 10 mL/hour and the production of concentrated looking urine, do not necessarily indicate a specific cause of oliguria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 46
Incorrect
-
A bolus of alfentanil has a faster onset of action than an equal dose of fentanyl.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The pKa of alfentanil is less than that of fentanyl
Explanation:Unionised molecules are more likely than ionised molecules to cross membranes (such as the blood-brain barrier).
Because alfentanil and fentanyl are weak bases, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation says that the ratio of ionised to unionised molecules is determined by the parent compound’s pKa in relation to physiological pH.
Alfentanil has a pKa of 6.5, while fentanyl has a pKa of 8.4.
At a pH of 7.4, 89 percent of alfentanil is unionised, whereas 9% of fentanyl is.As a result, alfentanil has a faster onset than fentanyl.
Fentanyl is 83% plasma protein bound
Alfentanil is 90% plasma protein bound.Alfentanil’s pharmacokinetics are affected by its higher plasma protein binding. Because alfentanil has a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.4), clearance is determined by the degree of protein binding rather than the time it takes to take effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 47
Incorrect
-
When an inotrope is given to the body, it has the following effects on the cardiovascular system:
The automaticity of the sino-atrial node increases
Lusitropy is accelerated
Dromotropy is increased
Chronotropy is increased
Inotropy increases
There is increased excitability of the conducting system
The most probably mechanism of action of this compound is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in intracellular calcium influenced by a conformational change of a Gs protein
Explanation:A beta-1 adrenoreceptor agonist is most likely the ligand that causes increased automaticity, increased chronotropy, increased excitability, and increased inotropy on the sino-atrial node. However, alpha-1 adrenoreceptor effects may cause an increase in systemic vascular resistance. Noradrenaline, adrenaline, dopamine, and ephedrine are examples of drugs with mixed alpha and beta effects.
Adrenaline, noradrenaline, dopamine, dopexamine, dobutamine, ephedrine, and isoprenaline are examples of drugs that have some beta-1 activity. The beta-1 receptor is a G protein-coupled metabotropic receptor. When the beta-1 agonist binds to the cell surface membrane, it causes a conformational change in the Gs unit, which triggers a cAMP-dependent pathway and a calcium influx into the cell.
Catecholamines also help to relax the heart muscle (positive lusitropy). Dromotropy is the ability to increase the atrioventricular (AV) node’s conduction velocity.
Inodilators cause an increase in intracellular calcium as a result of phosphodiesterase III (PDIII) inhibition. Milrinone, enoximone, and amrinone are some examples. Positive inotropy is caused by increased calcium entry into the myocytes. Lusitropy is also increased by phosphodiesterase inhibitors. Increased cAMP inhibits myosin light chain kinase, resulting in reduced phosphorylation of vascular smooth muscle myosin, lowering systemic and pulmonary vascular resistance.
The mechanism of action of alpha-1 adrenoreceptor agonists is an increase in intracellular calcium caused by an increase in inositol triphosphate (IP3). IP3 is a second messenger that causes an increase in systemic vascular resistance by stimulating the influx of Ca2+ into smooth muscle cells. Reflex bradycardia can occur as a result of the subsequent increase in blood pressure. Phenylephrine and metaraminol are examples of pure alpha-1 agonists.
Levosimendin is a novel inotrope that makes myocytes more sensitive to intracellular Ca2+. It causes a positive inotropy without changing heart rate or oxygen consumption significantly.
The Na-K-ATPase membrane pump in the myocardium is inhibited by digoxin. This inhibition promotes sodium-calcium exchange, resulting in an increase in intracellular Ca2+ and increased contraction force. The parasympathetic effects of digoxin on the AV node result in bradycardia. Systemic vascular resistance will not be affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
Which statement is true of albumin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is synthesised and stored in the liver
Explanation:Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.
Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.
Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.
If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
It is not catabolised during starvation.
Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.Causes of low albumin are
1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
4. Increased catabolism (very rare) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 49
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man, presents with an embolus in the lower limbs. He has previous medical history of atrial fibrillation. After examination and diagnostic investigations, he is scheduled for a transpopliteal embolectomy, which will require the surgeons to explore the central region of the popliteal fossa.
What structures will the surgeons come across after incising the deep fascia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibial nerve
Explanation:The tibial nerve lies on top of the vessels contained within the inferior aspect of the popliteal fossa.
In the superior aspect of the fossa, the tibial nerve runs lateral to the vessels, before then travelling superficial to the vessels, and then finally changing course to lie medial to the vessels.
The popliteal artery is the most deep structure present in the popliteal fossa
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his groin area. He is diagnosed with an indirect inguinal hernia and is scheduled for a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair. During the repair, the surgeon sees several structures surrounding the inguinal canal.
Name the structure that forms the anterior borders of the inguinal canal.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aponeurosis of external oblique
Explanation:The inguinal canal is the pathway leading from the wall of the abdomen to the external genitalia.
The borders of the inguinal canal are:
Anterior wall: formed by the aponeurosis of the external oblique, supported by the internal oblique muscle laterally.
Posterior wall: formed laterally by the transversalis fascia, and medially by the conjoint tendon
Roof: formed by the internal oblique and transversus abdominis muscles
Floor: formed by the inguinal ligament and supported medially by the lacunar ligament
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 51
Incorrect
-
The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium
Explanation:The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:
ATP
AMP
Potassium
Phosphate, and
Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 52
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements about closing capacity is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is less than the functional residual capacity in a 30-year-old
Explanation:Closing capacity refers to volume of gas within the lungs at which the conducting small airways begin to close, that is, the point during expiration when small airways close.
It is calculated mathematically as:
Closing capacity = Closing volume (CV) + Residual volume (RV)
Functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume of gas still present within the lungs post expiration.
Closing capacity is lower than the functional residual capacity in younger adults, but begins to rise to eventually equal, and then exceed it with increasing age (at about middle age), increasing intrabdominal pressure, decreasing blood flow in the pulmonary system and parenchymal disease within the pulmonary system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 53
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is correct regarding correlation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Complete absence of correlation is expressed by a value of 0
Explanation:In statistical terms, correlation is used to denote association between two quantitative variables.
The degree of association is measured by a correlation coefficient, denoted by r. The correlation coefficient is measured on a scale that varies from + 1 through 0 to – 1. Complete correlation between two variables is expressed by either + 1 or -1. When one variable increases as the other increases the correlation is positive; when one decreases as the other increases it is negative. Complete absence of correlation is represented by 0.
The two methods are not synonymous as correlation measures the degree of relationship between two variables whereas regression analysis is about how one variable affects another or what changes it has on the other variable. Both are also shown by a different graphical representation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 54
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true about number needed to harm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The number of patients that must receive a particular treatment for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome.
Explanation:Number needed to harm are a measure of the impact of a treatment or intervention that is often used to communicate results to patients, clinicians, the public and policymakers. It states how many patients need to be treated for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome (e.g. a death). It is calculated as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction. It can equally well be applied to harmful outcomes as well as beneficial ones, where it becomes numbers needed to treat (NNT) instead.
In this way, they are both calculated the same but NNT usually refers to a therapeutic treatment whereas NNH refers to a risk-factor for disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 55
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is the most correct about ketamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The S (+) isomer is more potent that the R (-) isomer
Explanation:Ketamine, a phencyclidine derivative, is an antagonist at the NMDA receptor. It causes depression of the CNS that is dose dependent and induces a dissociative anaesthetic state with profound analgesia and amnesia.
Ketamine has a chiral centre usually presented as a racemic mixture with two optical isomers, S (+) and R (-) forms. These isomers are in equal proportions. The S (+) isomer is about three times more potent than the R (-) form. The S (+) form is less likely to cause emergence delirium and hallucinations.
Ketamine is extensively metabolised by hepatic microsomal cytochrome P450 enzymes producing norketamine as its main metabolite. Norketamine has a one third to one fifth as potency as its parent compound.
It increases the CMRO2, cerebral blood flow and potentially increase intracranial pressure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 56
Incorrect
-
General anaesthesia is administered to a patient in a hospital in Lhasa which is one of the highest cities in the world (at 11,975 feet). An Anaesthetic rotameter is normally calibrated at 20 C and 1 bar pressure and is known to be underread at altitude. The temperature of the theatre was 10 C.
Which one of the following physical properties is responsible for the rotameter inaccuracy in these conditions?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Density of the gas
Explanation:Since the gas is less dense at higher altitudes, the density of a gas influences flows when passing through the orifice. Due to this reason, for a given flow rate, the bobbin will not be forced as far up the rotameter tube.
At higher altitudes, the volume of a fixed mass of gas increases, and therefore the molecules of gas are widely spaced resulting in a decrease in density with an increase in altitude.
Viscosity is simply termed as friction of gas. The viscosity of a gas is important only at low flow rates when the flow characteristic of the gas is laminar.
Charle’s law stated that the volume occupied by a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (T) provided the pressure remains constant.
Boyle’s law for a fixed amount of gas at constant temperature, the pressure (P) and volume (V) are inversely proportional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 57
Incorrect
-
During a fight, a 20-year-old male is stabbed in the thigh with a bottle. He is admitted for treatment.
Which feature, if present, suggests an injury to the femoral nerve?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of knee reflex
Explanation:Femoral nerve lesion (L2,L3 and L4) is characterised by weakness of the quadriceps femoris muscle. This results in weakness of extension of the knee, loss of sensation over the front of the thigh, and loss of the knee jerk reflex.
The skin over the lateral aspect of the thigh and knee, and the lower lateral quadrant of the buttock is supplied by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L1,2).
The adductors of the hip are supplied by the obturator nerve (L2-4). This nerve also supplies sensation to the inner thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 58
Incorrect
-
The external laryngeal nerve is responsible for the innervation of which of the following muscles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cricothyroid
Explanation:The external laryngeal nerve arises from the superior laryngeal nerve and provides innervation to the cricothyroid muscle.
The other muscles mentioned receive their innervations from the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 59
Incorrect
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman takes part in a study looking into the effects of different dietary substrates on metabolism. She receives a 24-hour ethyl alcohol infusion.
A constant volume, closed system respirometer is used to measure CO2 production and consumption. The production of carbon dioxide is found to be 200 mL/minute.
Which of the following values most closely resembles her anticipated O2 consumption at the conclusion of the trial?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 300 mL/minute
Explanation:The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the ratio of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed in a given amount of time.
CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ
CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.
The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet. Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.
Glucose and other hexose sugars (glucose and other hexose sugars):
RQ=1Fats:
RQ = 0.7Proteins:
Approximately 0.9 RQEthyl alcohol is a type of alcohol.
200/300 = 0.67 RQ
For complete oxidation, lipids and alcohol require more oxygen than carbohydrates.
When carbohydrate is converted to fat, the RQ can rise above 1.0. Fat deposition and weight gain are likely to occur in these circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 61
Incorrect
-
Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive signals that are relayed by second messenger systems.
In the human body, which second messenger is most abundant?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium ions
Explanation:Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.
These include:
Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
Apoptosis
Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
Lymphocyte activation
Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.
The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:
Beta (?1, ?2, and ?3)
Dopamine (D1 and D5)
Histamine (H2)
Glucagon
Vasopressin (V2).The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.
The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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Useful diagnostic information can be obtained from measuring the osmolality of biological fluids.
Of the following physical principles, which is the most accurate and reliable method of measuring osmolality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression of freezing point
Explanation:Colligative properties are properties of solutions that depend on the number of dissolved particles in solution. They do not depend on the identities of the solutes.
All of the above have colligative properties with the exception of depression of melting point.
The osmolality from the concentration of a substance in a solution is measured by an osmometer. The freezing point of a solution can determines concentration of a solution and this can be measured by using a freezing point osmometer. This is applicable as depression of freezing point is directly correlated to concentration.
Vapour pressure osmometers, which measure vapour pressure, may miss certain volatiles such as CO2, ammonia and alcohol that are in the solution
The use of a freezing point osmometer provides the most accurate and reliable results for the majority of applications.
Colligative properties does not include melting point depression . Mixtures of substances in which the liquid phase components are insoluble, display a melting point depression and a melting range or interval instead of a fixed melting point.
The magnitude of the melting point depression depends on the mixture composition.
The melting point depression is used to determine the purity and identity of compounds. EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics) cream is a mixture of lidocaine and prilocaine and is used as a topical local anaesthetic. The melting point of the combined drugs is lower than that individually and is below room temperature (18°C).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life would be lessened by smoking. You tell him explicitly that precise determination is impossible but you can tell him the proportion of people who died due to smoking. Which of the following epidemiological term is apt in this regard?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group
Explanation:Attributable proportion is the proportion of disease that is caused due to exposure. It refers to the proportion of disease that would be eradicated from a particular population if the disease rate was diminished to match that of the unexposed group.
Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group. Thus two are not the same.
The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it i.e. how many deaths did the exposure cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents for transsphenoidal surgery following a diagnosis of pituitary macroadenoma.
Which of the following is the most common visual field defect caused by such lesions?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia
Explanation:Pituitary tumours that compress the optic chiasma primarily affect the neurones that decussate at this location. Bitemporal hemianopia is caused by neurones that emerge from the nasal half of the retina and transmit the temporal half of the visual field.
The axons of ganglion cells in the retina form the optic nerve.
It exits the orbit through the optic foramen and projects to the thalamic lateral geniculate body. The optic chiasma forms above the sella turcica as the nasal fibres decussate along the way. The optic radiation travels from the lateral geniculate body to the occipital cortex.
Lesions at various points along this pathway cause the following visual field defects:
Scotoma implies partial retinal or optic nerve damage.
Monocular vision loss occurs when the optic nerve is completely damaged.
Pathology at the optic chiasma causes bitemporal hemianopia.
Cortical blindness with occipital cortex pathology and homonymous hemianopia with lesions compromising the optic radiation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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Suppose a diabetic patient is to undergo an elective surgery under general anaesthesia, which of the following will most effectively prevent a hyperglycaemic stress response during the surgical procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spinal block to T4
Explanation:Every surgical procedure is associated with a stress response which comprises a number of endocrine, metabolic, and immunological changes triggered by neuronal activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. The overall metabolic effect of the stress response to surgery includes an increase in secretion of catabolic hormones, such as cortisol and catecholamine, and a decrease in secretion of anabolic hormones, such as insulin and testosterone. The increase in levels of catabolic hormones in plasma stimulates glucose production, and there is a relative lack of insulin together with impaired tissue insulin sensitivity and glucose utilization, which is called insulin resistance. Consequently, blood glucose concentrations will increase, even in the absence of pre-existing diabetes.
A study compared the effects of spinal and general anaesthesia on changes in blood glucose concentrations during surgery in nondiabetic patients. Although mean blood glucose concentrations showed a significant proportional increase during surgery in both groups, this effect was much more significant with general anaesthesia than with spinal anaesthesia. These results indicate that spinal anaesthesia is more effective than general anaesthesia in attenuating the hyperglycaemic response to surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 26-year old man is admitted to the high dependency unit following an external fixation of a pelvic fracture sustained in a road traffic accident earlier in the day. Additionally, he has stable L2/L4 vertebral fractures but no other injuries.
He is a known intravenous drug abuser currently on 200 mg heroin per day. He has been admitted for observations postop and pain control. He has regular paracetamol and NSAIDs prescribed.
Which is the most appropriate postoperative pain regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PCA morphine alone with background infusion
Explanation:With a history of drug abuse, the patient is likely dependent on and tolerant to opioids. He is also likely to experience significant pain from his injuries. Providing adequate pain relief with regular paracetamol and NSAIDs in combination with a pure opioid agonist while at the same time avoiding occurrence of acute withdrawal syndrome is the goal.
Administering a baseline dose of opioid corresponding to the patient’s usual opioid use plus an opioid dose required to address the level of pain the patient experience can help prevent opioid withdrawal. The best approach is by empowering the patient to use patient controlled analgesia (PCA). The infusion rate, bolus dose and lock-out time are adjusted accordingly. Using PCA helps in avoiding staff/patient confrontations about dose and dosing interval.
2.5 mg heroin is equivalent to 3.3 mg morphine. This patient is usually on 200 mg of heroin per 24 hours. The equivalent dose of morphine is 80 × 3.3 =254 mg per 24 hours (11 mg/hour).
Epidural or spinal opioids might be the best choice for providing a systemic dose of opioids when patients are in remission to avoid withdrawal. Lumbar vertebral fractures is a contraindication to this route of analgesia.
The long half life of Oral methadone make titration to response difficult. Also, absorption of methadone by the gastrointestinal tract is variable. It is therefore NOT the best choice for acute pain management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, and hypothyroidism was brought to ER with a change in her mental state over the past few hours. Medications used by her were hydrochlorothiazide, aspirin, ramipril, and levothyroxine.
On physical examination, decreased skin turgor, orthostatic hypotension, and disorientation of time and place were found. There were no significant neurological signs.
Initial biochemical tests are as follows:
Na: 111 mmol/L (135-145)
K: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.1)
Cl: 105 mmol/L (99-101)
Bic: 29 mmol/L (22-29)
Urea: 16.4 mmol/L (1.7-8.3)
Creatinine: 320µmol/L (44-80)
Glucose: 13.5mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
Plasma osmolality: 278mOsm/kg
Urinary osmolality: 450mOsm/kg
TSH: 6.2 miu/L (0.1-6.0)
Free T4: 10.1 pmol/L (10-25)
Free T3: 1.4nm/L (1.0-2.5)
Which of the following is most likely cause for this condition of the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drug idiosyncrasy
Explanation:Based on the laboratory reports, the patient is suffering from significant hyponatremia. The symptoms of hyponatremia are mainly neurological and depend on the severity and rapidity of onset of hyponatremia.
Patient symptom according to the hyponatremia level is correlated below:
125 – 130mmol/L – Nausea and malaise
115 – 125mmol/L – Headache, lethargy, seizures, and coma
<120mmol/L - Up to 11% present with coma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true about the bispectral index (BIS)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sevoflurane lowers BIS more than ketamine
Explanation:The bispectral index (BIS) monitors works to determine the level of consciousness of a patient by processing electroencephalographic (EEG) signals to obtain a value between 0 and 100, where 0 reflects no brain activity, and 100 reflects a patient is completely awake.
The general meaning of BIS values are:
>95: Patient is in an awake state.
65-85: Patient is in a sedated state.
40-65: Patient is in a state that is optimal for general surgery.
<40: Patient is in a deep hypnotic state It is important in measuring the depths of anaesthesia to prevent haemodynamic changes or patient awareness during surgery. The nature of anaesthetic agent used is a determinant factor in resultant BIS values. Intravenous agents, such as propofol, thiopental and midazolam, result in a deeper hypnotic state, whilst inhalation agents have a lesser hypnotic effect at the same BIS values. Certain agents result in inaccurate BIS values such as ketamine and nitrous oxide (NO). These two agents appear to increase the BIS value, whilst putting the patient in a deeper hypnotic state, and should therefore not be used with BIS monitoring. Hypothermia also affects the BIS value as it causes a 1.12 per °C decrease in body temperature. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 69
Incorrect
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You are asked about the relative risk associated with a drug. You happened to have read a report in which the same drug was compared with a placebo and your initial thoughts after reading the study were that the drug will have significant side effects.
What do you expect the value of relative risk to be?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Greater than 1
Explanation:Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group.
A relative risk of 1 suggests that there is no discernible difference in the outcome whether or not it has been exposed.
A relative risk of less than 1 indicates that probability of occurrence of an event is less if there is exposure.
A relative risk of greater than 1 highlights that an event is most likely to occur if it was provided exposure. Since you believe that exposure (the new drug) would have side effects, the value should be greater than 1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 70
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a correct match for reflex and their root value?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Knee reflex: L3/L4
Explanation:Reflexes are a routine part of clinical examination. Hyperreflexia (abnormally brisk reflexes) is the sign of upper motor neuron damage whereas diminished or absent jerks are most commonly due to lower motor neuron lesions. Reflexes may be Monosynaptic (deep tendon reflexes) or polysynaptic (superficial reflexes)
Here are deep tendon reflexes with their nerve root
Biceps = C5, C6
Supinator (Brachioradialis) = C5, C6
Triceps = C6, C7
Knee reflex = L3,L4
Ankle reflex = S1Polysynaptic superficial reflexes with their nerve root are listed below
Planter response = S1-2
Abdominal reflexes = T8-12
Cremasteric reflex = L1-2 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 71
Incorrect
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Arterial pressure waveforms give an indication of the operation of the heart and the patient's clinical state.
Which of the following listed characteristics of arterial waveforms is most indicative of myocardial contractility?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Slope of the upstroke of the curve.
Explanation:Arterial pressure waveforms is an invasive form of monitoring cardiac parameters. It provides a lot of information on the performance of the heart from different sections, including:
Cardiac measurements:
Heart rate
Systolic pressure
Diastolic pressure
Mean arterial pressure
Pulse pressure
Change in pulse amplitude corresponding to respiratory changes
Slope of anacrotic limb associated with aortic stenosisFrom the shape of the arterial waveform displayed:
Slope of anacrotic limb represents aortic valve and LVOT flow
Indications of aortic stenosis (AS): Slurred wave, collapsing wave
Rapid systolic decline in LVOTO
Bisferiens wave in HOCM
Low dicrotic notch in states with poor peripheral resistance
Position and quality of dicrotic notch as a reflection of the damping coefficientFor this question, the upstroke slope of the pressure wave is indicative of myocardial contractility and is mathematically represented as:
dP/dt, which represents a change of pressure with regards to time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 72
Incorrect
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An experiment is designed to investigate that how three diets having different sugar content affect the body weight to a different level.
Which one of the following test will determine a statistically significant difference among the diets?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ANOVA
Explanation:Chi-square test is used to determine the statistically significant different between categorical variables. It also determines the difference between expected frequencies and the observed frequencies.
Mann Whitney U test is used to determine the statistically significant different between two independent groups.
Wilcoxon’s test is the test of dependency. it determines the statistically significant difference between two dependent groups.
Student t-test is one of the most commonly used method to test the hypothesis. It determines the significant difference between the means of two different groups.
ANOVA (analysis of variance) is similar to student’s t-test.
ANOVA is a statistical method used to determines the statistically significant difference between the mean of more than two group. In this experiment as we are dealing with three different group, ANOVA is most suitable test to determine the difference between each groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man, presents to the emergency department. He explains that an hour ago, he experienced central chest pain, which moved down his left arm.
On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment was noted in the anterior leads. He undergoes emergency percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) which requires the cardiologist to access the heart via the femoral artery.
Where is the surface marking for identifying the femoral artery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis
Explanation:The surface marking for locating the femoral artery is the mid-inguinal point, which is the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic symphysis.
The other mentioned options are not specific for any landmark.
However, it is important to note the difference between the mid inguinal point and the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is travels from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 74
Incorrect
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Out of the following, which anatomical structure lies within the spiral groove of the humerus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial nerve
Explanation:The shaft of the humerus has two prominent features:
1. Deltoid tuberosity – attachment for the deltoid muscle
2. Radial or spiral groove – The radial nerve and profunda brachii artery lie in the grooveMid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs. The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.The following parts of the humerus are in direct contact with the indicated
nerves:
Surgical neck: axillary nerve.
Radial groove: radial nerve.
Distal end of humerus: median nerve.
Medial epicondyle: ulnar nerve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 75
Incorrect
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Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia entail a relationship between two or more variables.
Which of the following relationships is a linear relationship?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The relationship between the junction potential and temperature in a thermocouple
Explanation:Two bonded wires of dissimilar metals, iron/constantan or copper/constantan, make up a thermocouple (constantan is an alloy of copper and nickel). At the tip, a thermojunction voltage is generated that is proportional to temperature (Seebeck effect).
All of the other connections are non-linear.
For a single compartment model, the relationship between a decrease in plasma concentration of an intravenous bolus of a drug and time is a washout exponential.
A sine wave is the relationship between current and degrees or time from a mains power source.
A sigmoid curve represents the relationship between efficacy and log-dose of a pure agonist on mu receptors.
The pressure of a fixed mass of gas and its volume (Boyle’s law) at a fixed temperature are inversely proportional, resulting in a hyperbolic curve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 76
Incorrect
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The production of carbon dioxide and water occurs during cellular respiration, which involves an energy substrate and oxygen. For a patient, the respiratory quotient is calculated as 0.7.
Which of the following energy substrate combinations is the most likely in this patient's diet?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low carbohydrate, high fat and low protein
Explanation:The respiratory quotient (RQ) is the proportion of CO2 produced by the body to O2 consumed per unit of time.
CO2 produced / O2 consumed = RQ
CO2 is produced at a rate of 200 mL per minute, while O2 is consumed at a rate of 250 mL per minute. An RQ of around 0.8 is typical for a mixed diet.
The RQ will change depending on the energy substrates consumed in the diet.
Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate that contains 99.999 percent carbohydrate and no lipids, proteins, minerals, or vitamins.
Glucose and other hexose sugars – RQ = 1
Fats – RQ = 0.7
Proteins – RQ is 0.9
Ethyl alcohol – RQ = 0.67 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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Pressure volume loop represents the compliance of left ventricle.
Considering there is no change in preload and myocardial contractility, which physiological change may result an increase in left ventricular afterload?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased end-systolic volume
Explanation:If there is no change in preload and myocardial contractility, there will be decrease in end-diastolic volume and stroke volume. So there must be increase in end-systolic volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sympathomimetic effects work mainly through ?1 but also ? receptors
Explanation:Noradrenaline acts as a sympathomimetic effect via alpha as well as a beta receptor. However, they have weak ?2 action.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to a fracture on his right leg. Radiographic imaging showed a fractured tibial shaft. Following surgery, you were instructed to prescribe intravenous paracetamol as an analgesic.
If the patient weighs 49 kg, which of the following would be the best regimen for the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15 mg/kg with a maximum daily dose of 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
Explanation:A stock dose of Intravenous paracetamol available in the market is 10mg/ml. There is a recommended dose of IV paracetamol according to the profile of the patient (age, co-morbidities, weight).
Weight Recommended Dose Maximum per day
≤10 kg 7.5 mg/kg 30 mg/kg
>10 kg to ≤33 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 2 g)
>33 kg to ≤50 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
>50 kg with additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 3 g
>50 kg with no additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 4 gSpecial precaution must be observed for patients with hepatocellular insufficiency. The maximum dose per day should not exceed 3g.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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Which statement is true about the autonomic nervous system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Preganglionic synapse utilise Acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter in both parasympathetic and sympathetic systems
Explanation:With regards to the autonomic nervous system (ANS)
1. It is not under voluntary control
2. It uses reflex pathways and different to the somatic nervous system.
3. The hypothalamus is the central point of integration of the ANS. However, the gut can coordinate some secretions and information from the baroreceptors which are processed in the medulla.With regards to the central nervous system (CNS)
1. There are myelinated preganglionic fibres which lead to the
ganglion where the nerve cell bodies of the non-myelinated post ganglionic nerves are organised.
2. From the ganglion, the post ganglionic nerves then lead on to the innervated organ.Most organs are under control of both systems although one system normally predominates.
The nerves of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) originate from the lateral horns of the spinal cord, pass into the anterior primary rami and then pass via the white rami communicates into the ganglia from T1-L2.
There are short pre-ganglionic and long post ganglionic fibres.
Pre-ganglionic synapses use acetylcholine (ACh) as a neurotransmitter on nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses uses adrenoceptors with norepinephrine / epinephrine as the neurotransmitter.
However, in sweat glands, piloerector muscles and few blood vessels, ACh is still used as a neurotransmitter with nicotinic receptors.The ganglia form the sympathetic trunk – this is a collection of nerves that begin at the base of the skull and travel 2-3 cm lateral to the vertebrae, extending to the coccyx.
There are cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral ganglia and visceral sympathetic innervation is by cardiac, coeliac and hypogastric plexi.
Juxta glomerular apparatus, piloerector muscles and adipose tissue are all organs under sole sympathetic control.
The PNS has a craniosacral outflow. It causes reduced arousal and cardiovascular stimulation and increases visceral activity.
The cranial outflow consists of
1. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the eye via the ciliary ganglion,
2. Facial nerve (CN VII) to the submandibular, sublingual and lacrimal glands via the pterygopalatine and submandibular ganglions
3. Glossopharyngeal (CN IX) to lungs, larynx and tracheobronchial tree via otic ganglion
4. The vagus nerve (CN X), the largest contributor and carries ¾ of fibres covering innervation of the heart, lungs, larynx, tracheobronchial tree parotid gland and proximal gut to the splenic flexure, liver and pancreasThe sacral outflow (S2 to S4) innervates the bladder, distal gut and genitalia.
The PNS has long preganglionic and short post ganglionic fibres.
Preganglionic synapses, like in the SNS, use ACh as the neuro transmitter with nicotinic receptors.
Post ganglionic synapses also use ACh as the neurotransmitter but have muscarinic receptors.Different types of these muscarinic receptors are present in different organs:
There are:
M1 = pupillary constriction, gastric acid secretion stimulation
M2 = inhibition of cardiac stimulation
M3 = visceral vasodilation, coronary artery constriction, increased secretions in salivary, lacrimal glands and pancreas
M4 = brain and adrenal medulla
M5 = brainThe lacrimal glands are solely under parasympathetic control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presented with a bitemporal hemianopia with enlarged hands and feet. On examination, he was found to be hypertensive.
Which of the following correctly explains the cause of his visual field defect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pituitary macroadenoma secreting growth hormone (GH)
Explanation:Pituitary macroadenoma is a benign tumour with growth larger than 10mm (those under 10mm are called microadenoma)
Compression of optic chiasm by pituitary adenoma is responsible for causing visual field defects like bitemporal hemianopia, optic neuropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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The average diastolic blood pressure of a control group was found out to be 80 with a standard deviation of 5 in a study aimed at exploring the efficiency of a novel anti-hypertensive drug. The trial was randomised.
Making an assumption that the data is normally distributed, find out the number of patients that had diastolic blood pressure over 90.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3%
Explanation:Since the data is normally distributed, 95% of the values lie with in the interval 70 to 90. This can be calculated as follows:
Interval= Mean ± ( 2 times standard deviation)
= 80 ± 2(5)
= 80 ± 10
= 70 & 90The rest of the 5% are distributed symmetrically beyond 90 and below 70 which means 2.5% of the values lie above 90.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 50-year old man for septoplasty has a BMI of 32kg/m2 and neck circumference of 44 cm. He is troubled by intermittent nasal obstruction which causes his partner sleeps in a separate bedroom because of snoring. He currently on ramipril for hypertension.
Which of the following best approximates to his STOP-BANG score from the information above?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:The STOP-BANG questionnaire is used to screen patients for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA).
The scoring system assigns one point for each feature.
S: Snoring (louder than talking or loud enough to be heard through closed doors)
T: Feeling tired, fatigued, or sleepy during daytime
O: Observed apnoeas during sleep
P: Hypertension
B: BMI more than 35 kg/m2
A: Age 50-years of age or greater
N: Neck circumference (male 17 inches / 43cm or greater and female 16 inches / 41 or greater)
G: Gender: MaleOur patient has a score of 5 ( O, P, A, N, G)
The score helps clinicians stratify patients for unrecognized OSA and target appropriate clinical management. It can also help triage patients for further investigation. A STOP-BANG score of 5-8 will identify patients with high probability of moderate to severe OSA in the surgical population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A strain gauge operates on which of the following principles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varying resistance of a wire when stretched
Explanation:The principle by which a strain gauge works is that when a wire is stretched, it becomes longer and thinner, and as a result, its resistance increases.
A strain gauge, which is used in pressure transducers, acts as a resistor. When the pressure in a pressure transducer changes, the diaphragm moves, changing the tension in the resistance wire and thus changing the resistance.
Changes in current flow through the resistor are amplified and displayed as a pressure change measure.
A Wheatstone bridge, on the other hand, is frequently used to measure or monitor these changes in resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A project is being planned to assess the effects of a new anticoagulant on the coagulation cascade. The intrinsic pathway is being studied and the best measurement to be recorded is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: aPTT
Explanation:The intrinsic pathway is best assessed by the aPTT time.
D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product which is raised in the presence of blood clots.
A 50:50 mixing study is used to assess if a prolonged PT or aPTT is due to factor deficiency or a factor inhibitor.
The thrombin time is a test used to assess fibrin formation from fibrinogen in plasma. Factors that prolong the thrombin time include heparin, fibrin degradation products, and fibrinogen deficiency.
Intrinsic pathway – Best assessed by APTT. Factors 8,9,11,12 are involved. Prolonged aPTT can be seen in haemophilia and use of heparin.
Extrinsic pathway – Best assessed by Increased PT. Factor 7 involved.
Common pathway – Best assessed by APTT & PT. Factors 2,5,10 involved.
Vitamin K dependent factors are factors 2,7,9,10
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open cholecystectomy. As part of the induction, suxamethonium was administered at 1.5mg/kg. Post-operatively, there was failure to restore muscle twitch responses over a course of five hours.
Clinical chemistry studies were obtained and showed the following results:
Butrylcholinesterase (BChE) activity: 49 U/L (Reference range: 3300-10,300 U/L)
Dibucaine number: <4% (Reference range: 83-88%)
The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of Suxamethonium Apnoea.
What is the most probable phenotype of BChE of the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S (silent)
Explanation:Silent (S) is the most probable phenotype of the patient. In S phenotype, patients have significantly reduced levels of BChE, the lowest among the four phenotypes. Because of this, individuals with S phenotype are subjected to long periods of apnoea. In addition, their dibucaine number is very low.
Other BChE phenotypes are the following:
Usual (U)
Atypical (A)
Fluoride-resistant (F) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid artery
Explanation:The descending thoracic aorta begins at the lower border of T4 near the midline as a continuation of the arch of the aorta. It descends and ends at the level of T12 at the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm, where it becomes the abdominal aorta.
The aorta gives off the following branches: (descending order)
1. Bronchial arteries
2. Mediastinal arteries
3. Oesophageal arteries
4. Pericardial arteries
5. Superior phrenic arteriesThe posterior intercostal arteries are branches that originate throughout the length of the posterior aspect of the descending thoracic aorta.
The inferior thyroid artery is usually derived from the thyrocervical trunk, a branch of the subclavian artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
The muscle that lies behind the first part of the axillary nerve is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subscapularis
Explanation:The axillary nerve lies behind the axillary artery initially, and in front of the subscapularis. It passes downward to the lower border of the subscapularis muscle.
In company with the posterior humeral circumflex artery and vein, it winds backward through a quadrilateral space bounded above by the subscapularis (anterior) and teres minor (posterior), below by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps brachii, and laterally by the humerus (surgical neck).
It then divides into an anterior and a posterior part. The anterior division supplies the deltoid (anterior and middle heads) while the posterior division supplies the teres minor and posterior part of deltoid
The posterior division terminates as the superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
Regarding the classification of breathing systems, which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Conway classification describes a functional classification based on whether a CO2 absorber is required
Explanation:Breathing system is an assembly of components which connects patient’s airway to anaesthesia machine through which controlled composition of gas mixture is dispensed. It delivers gas to the patient, removes expired gas and controls the temperature and humidity of the inspired mixture. It allows spontaneous, controlled, or assisted respiration. It may also provide ports for gas sampling, airway pressure, flow and volume monitoring.
Breathing systems have been classified by Conway and Mapleson.
Conway suggested a functional classification:
– Circuits requiring a CO2 absorber
– Circuits not requiring a CO2 absorberWilliam Mapleson designated varying arrangements of breathing system components (masks, breathing tubes, fresh gas flow inlets, adjustable pressure-limiting valves, and reservoir bags) as Mapleson A-E circuits.
Mapleson A: Arranged as FGF inlet, reservoir bag, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, because the reservoir bag is between the FGF inlet valve and the APL valve, expired gas from the patient may re-enter the system and fill the reservoir bag during controlled ventilation. This is the most efficient system for spontaneous breathing as the FGF must only be equal to a patient’s minute ventilation to prevent rebreathing.Mapleson B: Arranged as reservoir bag, FGF inlet, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, the FGF inlet is closer to the APL valve, which helps prevent the rebreathing concern in the Mapleson A circuit as above during controlled ventilation.Mapleson C: Arranged as reservoir bag, FGF inlet, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, the arrangement is the same as the Mapleson B circuit. However, this circuit is shorter as it does not contain elongated corrugated tubing. This circuit also has the FGF inlet close to the APL valve to aid in preventing rebreathing.Mapleson D: Arranged as reservoir bag, APL valve, FGF inlet, and mask.
In this circuit, the arrangement interchanges the FGF inlet and APL valve of the Mapleson A circuit. This system prevents rebreathing by directing FGF towards the APL valve rather than towards the patient during exhalation.Mapleson E: Arranged as corrugated tubing, FGF inlet, and mask.
In this circuit, there is no reservoir bag and no APL valve. Given the inability to alter the pressure of the circuit, this is ideal for spontaneously ventilating neonates or paediatric patients where low-pressure ventilation is desired. The system prevents rebreathing, similar to the Mapleson D circuit.Jackson Rees later modified the Mapleson E by adding an open ended bag, which has since become known as the Mapleson F.
Mapleson F: Arranged as APL valve directly connected to reservoir bag, corrugated tubing, FGF inlet, and mask.
The system prevents rebreathing similarly to Mapleson D by directing FGF towards the APL valve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
The solutions that contains the most sodium is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3500 mL 0.9% N saline
Explanation:Sodium concentration for different fluids
3% N saline 513 mmol/L
5% N saline 856 mmol/L
0.9% N saline 154 mmol/L
Hartmann’s solution 131 mmol/L
0.45% N saline with 5% glucose 77 mmol/LThis means that:
500 mL 5% N saline contains 428 mmol of sodium
1000 mL 3% N saline contains 513 mmol of sodium
3500 mL 0.9% N saline contains 539 mmol of sodium
4000 mL Hartmann’s contains 524 mmol of sodium
6000 mL 0.45% N saline with 5% glucose contains 462 mmol of sodium. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 91
Incorrect
-
What can you see within the tunica media of a blood vessel on examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smooth muscle
Explanation:The blood vessel well is divided into 3 parts, namely:
The tunica intima, which is the deepest layer. It contains endothelial cells separated by gap junctions
The tunica media, primarily consisting of the involuntary smooth muscle fibres, laid out in spiral layers with elastic fibres and connective tissue.
The tunica adventitia, which is the most superficial layer. It consists of the vasa vasorum, fibroblast and collagen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 92
Incorrect
-
At 37 weeks' gestation, a 29-year-old parturient is admitted to the labour ward. Her antenatal period was asymptomatic for her.
The haematological values listed below are available:
Hb concentration of 100 g/L (115-165)
200x109/L platelets (150-400)
MCV 81 fL (80-96)
Which of the following is the most likely reason for the problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency
Explanation:This patient’s limited haematological profile includes mild normocytic anaemia and a normal platelet count.
Iron deficiency is the most common cause of anaemia during pregnancy. It affects 75 to 95 percent of patients. A haemoglobin level of less than 110 g/L in the first trimester and less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters is considered anaemia. There will usually be a low mean cell volume (MCV), mean cell haemoglobin (MCH), and mean cell haemoglobin concentration in addition to a low haemoglobin (MCHC). The MCV may be normal in mild cases of iron deficiency or coexisting vitamin B12 and folate deficiency.
To determine whether you have an iron deficiency, you’ll need to take more tests. Low serum ferritin (15 g/L) and less reliable indices like serum iron and total iron binding capacity are among them.
A number of factors contribute to iron deficiency in pregnancy, including:
Insufficient dietary iron to meet the mother’s and foetus’ nutritional needs
Multiple pregnancies
Blood loss, as well as
Absorption of iron from the gut is reduced.The volume of plasma increases by about 50% during pregnancy, but the mass of red blood cells (RBCs) increases by only 30%. Dilutional anaemia is the result of this situation. From the first trimester to delivery, the RBC mass increases linearly, while the plasma volume plateaus, stabilises, or falls slightly near term. As a result, between 28 and 34 weeks of pregnancy, haemoglobin concentrations are at their lowest. The effects of haemodilution will be negated in this patient because she is 37 weeks pregnant.
Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency are less common causes of anaemia in pregnancy. The diagnosis could be ruled out if the MVC is normal.
During pregnancy, the platelet count drops, especially in the third trimester. Gestational thrombocytopenia is the medical term for this condition. It’s due to a combination of factors, including haemodilution and increased platelet activation and clearance. Pre-eclampsia and HELLP syndrome are common causes of thrombocytopenia. Pre-eclampsia isn’t the only cause of anaemia during pregnancy.
A typical blood picture of a haemoglobinopathy like sickle cell disease shows quantitative and qualitative defects, with the former leading to a severe anaemia exacerbated by haemodilution and other factors that contribute to iron deficiency. Microcytic cells are the most common type.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
At a pH of 7, pure water has an hydrogen ion concentration of?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100 nanomol/L
Explanation:pH is the negative log to the base 10 of hydrogen ion concentration:
So, what power produces the answer?
pH = – log10 [H+]
Making [H+] the subject:
[H+] = 10-pH
Substituting, [H+] = 10-7
One nanomole = 1 x 10-9 or 0.000000001
10-7 = 1x 0.0000001 or 10 x 0.00000001 or 100 x 0.000000001
100 nanomole
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g of amitriptyline. On clinical examination:
Glasgow coma score: 10
Pulse rate: 140 beats per minute
Blood pressure: 80/50 mmHg.
ECG showed a QRS duration of 233 Ms.
Which of the following statement describes the most important initial course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give fluid boluses
Explanation:The first line of treatment in case of hypotension is fluid resuscitation.
Activated charcoal can be used within one hour of tricyclic antidepressant ingestion but an intact and secure airway must be checked before intervention. The risk of aspiration should be assessed.
Vasopressors are indicated for the treatment of hypotension following (Tricyclic Antidepressant) TCA overdose when patients fail to respond to fluids and bicarbonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
In a diagnosis of a compensated respiratory acidosis, which of the following arterial blood gas results is likely to be seen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:During normal tissue metabolism, there is production of CO2 (acid) which is then expired by the lungs. If metabolism switches from aerobic to anaerobic due to a lack of oxygen, the tissues are unable to completely oxidise sugars to CO2. As a consequence, the sugars can only be partially oxidised to lactic acid. Since lactic acid cannot be expired by the lungs, it remains in the circulation leading to metabolic acidosis.
Also, normal tissue metabolism leads to the production of some amount of acid from the breakdown of proteins. These acids are excreted from the body by kidney filtration. Renal failure will therefore results in acidosis after several days.
An increased acidosis stimulates the brain’s respiratory centres to increase the respiratory rate. This lowers the CO2 in the blood, leading to a decrease in its acidity. Renal excretion removes the excess acid, resulting in a normal pH, and a reduced PaCO2 and HCO3.
pH PaCO2 (kPa) HCO3
Compensated respiratory acidosis 7.34 7.2 29
Acute respiratory acidosis 7.25 7.3 22
Compensated metabolic acidosis 7.34 3.6 14
Metabolic acidosis 7.21 5.3 15
Metabolic alkalosis 7.51 5.1 30 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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You are approached by a drug rep who tells you about a new drug. The dosage and side effects of the drug are being determined in a trial. The representative asks you to refer participants for the trial.
What type of participants should you refer? In which phase of trials is the drug currently in?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Healthy participants, Phase 1
Explanation:Phase 2 trials involve patients that are suffering from the disease under study and are associated with determining the efficiency and the optimum dosage of the drug.
Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.
Phase 1 is associated with assessing whether a drug is safe to use or not. The process is extensive and can take up to several months. It also involves healthy participants (less than 100) that are paid to take part in the study. The side effects upon increasing dosage are also addressed by the study. The effects the drug has on humans including how its absorbed, metabolized and excreted are studied. Approximately 70% of the drugs pass this phase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 97
Incorrect
-
A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemodynamic renal insufficiency
Explanation:Prostaglandins do not play a major role in regulating RBF in healthy resting individuals. However, during pathophysiological conditions such as haemorrhage and reduced extracellular fluid volume (ECVF), prostaglandins (PGI2, PGE1, and PGE2) are produced locally within the kidneys and serve to increase RBF without changing GFR. Prostaglandins increase RBF by dampening the vasoconstrictor effects of both sympathetic activation and angiotensin II. These effects are important because they prevent severe and potentially harmful vasoconstriction and renal ischemia. Synthesis of prostaglandins is stimulated by ECVF depletion and stress (e.g. surgery, anaesthesia), angiotensin II, and sympathetic nerves.
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen and naproxen, potently inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Thus administration of these drugs during renal ischemia and hemorrhagic shock is contraindicated because, by blocking the production of prostaglandins, they decrease RBF and increase renal ischemia. Prostaglandins also play an increasingly important role in maintaining RBF and GFR as individuals age. Accordingly, NSAIDs can significantly reduce RBF and GFR in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 98
Incorrect
-
Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Utilises null deflection
Explanation:The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.
It utilizes null deflection -True
Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.Does not require calibration – False
As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 99
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and is undergoing preoperative assessment.
As part of the preoperative assessment, her functional capacity is estimated. At 50kg in weight, she is able to cycle along a flat surface at a speed of 10-14 miles/hour (8 metabolic equivalents or METs).
Provide the best estimated value of oxygen consumption (VO2) for eight METs.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1400 mL/minute
Explanation:Oxygen consumption (VO2) refers to the optimal amount of oxygen used by the body during exercise.
It is calculated mathematically by:
VO2 = 3.5 x 50 x 8 = 1400 mL/kg/minute
where,
1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.
Note:
1 MET Eating
Dressing
Use toilet
Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
2 METs Playing a musical instrument
Walking indoors around house
Light housework
4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
Walking up hill
Running a short distance
Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
Walking on level ground at 4 mph
Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
6 METs Leisurely swimming
Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
Basketball game
10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
Competitive football
Fast cycling (14-16 mph) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 100
Incorrect
-
Which drug, if given to a pregnant woman, can lead to deleterious fetal effects due to its ability to cross the placenta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atropine
Explanation:It is well known that atropine will cross the placenta and that maternal administration results in an increase in fetal heart rate.
Atropine is highly selective for muscarinic receptors. Its potency at nicotinic receptors is much lower, and actions at non-muscarinic receptors are generally undetectable clinically. Atropine does not distinguish among the M1, M2, and M3 subgroups of muscarinic receptors. In contrast, other antimuscarinic drugs are moderately selective for one or another of these subgroups. Most synthetic antimuscarinic drugs are considerably less selective than atropine in interactions with nonmuscarinic receptors.
A study on glycopyrrolate, a quaternary ammonium salt, was found to have a fetal: maternal serum concentration ratio of 0.4 indicating partial transfer.
Heparin, suxamethonium, and vecuronium do not cross the placenta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 101
Incorrect
-
Clearance techniques are used to assess renal glomerular function.
Which of the following is the most accurate marker for glomerular filtration rate measurement?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inulin
Explanation:The perfect glomerular filtration marker is:
The human body is not harmed by it.
Chemical or physical methods are used to accurately measure
Extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is freely and evenly diffusible.
Inability to access the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment
Filtration in the kidney is the only way to remove it from the blood.The ideal marker should not be reabsorbed into the bloodstream by the renal tubules or other urinary system components.
Creatinine is an endogenous substance that is filtered freely by the glomerulus and secreted by the proximal tubule. As a result, creatinine clearance consistently underestimates GFR. In healthy people, this overestimation ranges from 10% to 40%, but it is higher and more unpredictable in patients with chronic kidney disease.
The gold standard method of inulin clearance necessitates an intravenous infusion and several hours of timed urine collection, making it costly and time-consuming. Inulin is hard to come by and is difficult to mix and keep as a solution.
Exogenous filtration markers include the following:
Although plasma clearance of 51chromium EDTA is a widely used method in Europe, tubular reabsorption can occur.
Because 125I-iothalamate can be excreted by renal tubules in the urine, it cannot be used in patients who have an iodine assay.Radioactive substances must be stored, administered, and disposed of according to these methods.
The glomerulus filters para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) freely, and any that remains in the peritubular capillaries is secreted into the proximal convoluted tubules. This marker is used to determine the amount of blood flowing through the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
While on the ward, you notice a patient that is lying down attached to a monitor. He is hypotensive with a blood pressure of 90/70mmHg and he is also tachycardic with a pulse of 120 beats/minute. After adjusting the bed with the patient's legs raised by 45 degrees, you reassess the blood pressure after 1 minute and his blood pressure has increased to 100/75mmHg. You then prescribe IV fluids and ask for 500ml of normal saline to be given intravenously over 15 minutes. The increase in the blood pressure can be explained by which physiological association?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venous return is proportional to stroke volume
Explanation:A passive leg raise can lead to transient increases in blood pressure and stroke volume as it increased the amount of venous return to the heart. Venous return increases in this situation as it transfers a larger volume of blood from the lower limbs to the right heart. It therefore mimics a fluid challenge. However its effects are short lasting and often lead to minimal increases in blood pressure. It therefore should not be used to treat shock in isolation. The passive leg raise is useful in determining the likelihood that a patient with shock will respond to fluid resuscitation.
Stroke volume (via a cardiac monitor) and/or pulse pressure (via an arterial line) should be measured to assess the effects of a passive leg raise. An increase in stroke volume by 9% or in pulse pressure by 10% are considered indicative of fluid responsiveness.
Blood that enters the ventricles during diastole causes stretching of sarcomeres within cardiac muscle. The extent to which they stretch is proportional to the strength of ventricular muscle contraction. Therefore, the venous return (amount of blood returned to the heart) is proportional to stroke volume. The end diastolic volume is determined by venous return and is also proportional to stroke volume.
Cardiac muscle contraction strength is dependent on the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline, but these hormones contribute to cardiac contractility, not to stroke volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 103
Incorrect
-
When describing the surface anatomy of the sacrum, which of the following anatomical landmarks refers to the base of an equilateral triangle is formed by the sacral hiatus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines
Explanation:The apex of an equilateral triangle completed by the posterior superior iliac spines is where the sacral hiatus or sacrococcygeal membrane can normally located. The failure of posterior fusion of the laminae of the fourth and fifth sacral vertebrae allows the sacral canal to be accessible via the membrane.
In adults, the spine of L4 usually lies on a line drawn between the highest points of the iliac crests (Tuffier’s line). A line connecting each anterior iliac spine, approximates to the L3/4 interspace in the sitting position. Both of these options are incorrect.
A line connecting the greater trochanters is also incorrect.
A line connecting the posterior superior iliac spines is correct, but in adults the presence of a sacral fat pad can still make identification of this landmark less straightforward.
The processes of S5 are remnants only and form the sacral cornua, which are also used to help identify the sacral hiatus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxytocin
Explanation:The posterior pituitary is made up mostly of neural tissue. It is responsible for the storage and release of 2 hormones:
– antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
– oxytocin.These two hormones are synthesised in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 105
Incorrect
-
Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.
Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.
Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 106
Incorrect
-
A current flows through a simple electric circuit.
Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 107
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man is being operated on for a radical gastrectomy for carcinoma of the stomach.
Which structure needs to be divided to gain access to the coeliac axis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lesser omentum
Explanation:The lesser omentum will need to be divided. This forms one of the nodal stations that will need to be taken during a radical gastrectomy.
The celiac axis is the first branch of the abdominal aorta and supplies the entire foregut (mouth to the major duodenal papilla). It arises at the level of vertebra T12. It has three major branches:
1. Left gastric
2. Common hepatic
3. Splenic arteries -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 108
Incorrect
-
A 25 year-old female came to the out-patient department with complaints of vaginal discharge with a distinct fishy odour. She was later diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis and was prescribed to take metronidazole.
The mechanism of action of metronidazole is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interferes with bacterial DNA synthesis
Explanation:Metronidazole is a nitroimidazole antiprotozoal drug that is selectively absorbed by anaerobic bacteria and sensitive protozoa. Once taken up be anaerobes, it is nonenzymatically reduced by reacting with reduced ferredoxin. This reduction results in products that accumulate in and are toxic to anaerobic cells. The metabolites of metronidazole are taken up into bacterial DNA, forming unstable molecules. This action occurs only when metronidazole is partially reduced, and, because this reduction usually happens only in anaerobic cells, it has relatively little effect on human cells or aerobic bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 109
Incorrect
-
One of the commonest risks associated with a retrobulbar block for ophthalmic surgery is the injury to orbital structures within the tendinous ring.
The structure which passes through the superior orbital fissure and tendinous ring to enter the orbit is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior division of oculomotor nerve
Explanation:From superior to inferior, the following structures enter the orbit through the superior orbital fissure:
1. Lacrimal nerve
2. Frontal nerve
3. Superior ophthalmic vein
4. Trochlear nerve
5. Superior division of the oculomotor nerve*
6. Nasociliary nerve*
7. Inferior division of the oculomotor nerve*
8. Abducent nerve*
9. Inferior ophthalmic vein.The superior and inferior division of the oculomotor nerve, nasociliary nerve, and abducent nerve are within the tendinous ring.
The common origin of the four rectus muscles is the tendinous ring (also known as the annulus of Zinn). The tendinous ring’s lateral portion straddles the superior orbital fissure, while the medial portion encloses the optic foramen, through which the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery pass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic properties.
Substitution with and at which specific site of the ring affects lipid solubility the most?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulphur atom at position 2
Explanation:Barbiturates are derived from barbituric acid, which itself is nondepressant, but appropriate side-chain substitutions result in CNS depressant activity that varies in potency and duration with carbon chain length, branching, and saturation.
Oxybarbiturates retain an oxygen atom on number 2-carbon atom of the barbituric acid ring.
Thiobarbiturates replace this oxygen atom with a sulphur atom, which confers greater lipid solubility. Generally speaking, a substitution such as sulphuration that increases lipid solubility is associated with greater hypnotic potency and more rapid onset, but shorter duration of action.
Addition of a methyl group to the nitrogen atom of the barbituric acid ring, as with oxybarbiturate methohexital, also results in a compound with a short duration of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
Concerning platelets one of the following is true
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are formed in the bone marrow from megakaryocytes
Explanation:Platelets are fragments of megakaryocytes and they are encapsulated by membrane.
They have no nucleus but are metabolically active and are able to express membrane receptors and release stored substances when triggered. adenosine diphosphate and serotonin are 2 of its content.
Because they have no nucleus, they are not able to produce new proteins. This is why aspirin and other drugs affect function for their entire lifespan after exposure. Its lifespan is approximately 9-10 days in normal individuals.
Platelets does NOT PRODUCE prostacyclin but are able to produce nitric oxide, prostaglandins and thromboxane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
With respect to the peripheral nerve stimulators, which one is used to perform nerve blocking?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The nerve stimulators deliver a stimulus lasting for 1-2 milliseconds (not second) to perform nerve blockage.
There are just 2 leads (not 3); one for the skin and other for the needle.
Prior to the administration of the local anaesthesia, a current of 0.25 – 0.5 mA (not 1-2mA) at the frequency of 1-2 Hz is preferred.
If the needle tip is close to the nerve, muscular contraction could be possible at the lowest possible current.
Insulated needles have improved the block success rate, as the current is only conducting through needle tip.
Stimulus to the femoral nerve which is placed in the mid lingual line causes withdrawer of the quadriceps and knee extension, that’s the dancing patella ( not plantar flexion).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herniation of intervertebral disc between the fifth and sixth cervical vertebrae will compress the sixth cervical nerve root
Explanation:The vertebral (spinal) column is the skeletal central axis made up of approximately 33 bones called the vertebrae.
Cervical disc herniations occur when some or all of the nucleus pulposus extends through the annulus fibrosus. The most commonly affected discs are the C5-C6 and C6-C7 discs. Each vertebrae has a corresponding nerve root which arises at a level above it. This means that a hernation of the C5-C6 disc will cause a compression of the C6 nerve root.
The foramen transversarium is a part of the transverse process of each cervical vertebrae, however, the vertebral artery only runs through the C1-C6 foramen transversarium.
The costal facets are the point of joint formation between a rib and a vertebrae. As such, they are only present on the transverse processes of T1-T10.
The lumbar vertebrae do not form a joint with the ribs, nor do they possess a foramina in their transverse process.
Intervertebral discs are thickest in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal column. However, there are no discs between C1 and C2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced a severe reaction to the anaesthetic agent resulting in malignant hyperthermia (MH) for which he has been referred for treatment.
What investigation can be conducted to determine a patient's susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In vitro muscle contraction test using caffeine
Explanation:Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a autosomal dominant inherited medical condition which predisposes affected individuals to a clinical syndrome of hypermetabolism which involves abnormal ryanodine receptors in skeletal muscle causing a deregulation of calcium in muscle.
It is a life threatening condition requiring immediate medical intervention. It often lies dormant until triggered in susceptible individuals mostly by volatile inhaled anaesthetic agents and succinylcholine which is a muscle relaxant.
The signs and symptoms of MH are related to this hypermetabolism, which includes an increase in carbon dioxide production, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, accelerated oxygen consumption, heat production, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, hyperkalaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and multiple organ dysfunction and failure.
Early signs of MH to look out for in patients includes an uptick in end-tidal carbon dioxide (even with increasing minute ventilation), tachycardia, muscle rigidity, tachypnoea, and hyperkalaemia. Later signs include fever, myoglobinuria, and multiple organ failure.
In vitro muscle contracture test (IVCT) is the standard for determining individual susceptibility to MH. It is conducted by measuring the force of muscle contraction after exposing the patient’s muscle sample to halothane and caffeine., the sample is normally taken from the vastus medialis or lateralis under regional anaesthesia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 115
Incorrect
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Which nerve is responsible for the direct innervation of the sinoatrial node?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The sinoatrial node receives innervation from multiple nerves arising from the complex cardiac plexus.
The cardiac plexus sends tiny branches into cardiac vessels, alongside the right and left coronary arteries.
The vagal efferent fibres originate from the vagal and accessory nerves in the brainstem, and then travel to the cardiac plexus within the heart. The resulting vagal discharge controls heart rate.
No singular nerve directly innervates the sinoatrial node.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is administered intravenously. The initial plasma concentration is calculated to be 12 mcg/mL and plasma concentrations is measured hourly.
At 6 hours, how much drug will be left?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.5 mcg/mL
Explanation:In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
Rate of elimination is described by the following equation:
C = C0. e^-kt
Where:
C=drug concentration,
C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated),
k = rate constant and
t = time.The initial concentration of this drug is 12 mcg/ml therefore:
The plasma concentration will have halved to 6 mcg/ml at 2 hours.
The plasma concentration will have halved to 3 mcg/ml at 4 hours and
The plasma concentration will have halved to 1.5 mcg/ml t 6 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 117
Incorrect
-
How many unpaired branches leave the abdominal aorta to supply the abdominal viscera?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Three
Explanation:The abdominal arteries are divided into 3 branches;
– 3 main unpaired trunks (celiac trunk, superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric arteries)
– 6 paired branches
– unpaired median sacral artery.We can group the abdominal aorta as follows;
-Ventral which includes: Coeliac trunk, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric arteries
-Lateral: Inferior phrenic, middle suprarenal, renal and gonadal arteries
-Dorsal: Lumbar and median sacral arteries
-Terminal : Right and left common iliac arteriesThe celiac trunk (L1) takes blood the foregut and its found posterior to the stomach. The unpaired superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the mid-gut.
The paired renal arteries form the inferior suprarenal arteries. The renal arteries arise around L1/L2 and takes blood to either side of the kidneys.
The median sacral artery supplies blood to the lumbar vertebrae the L4 and L5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 118
Incorrect
-
A 77-year-old man, is scheduled for an angiogram to investigate gastro-intestinal bleeding. The radiologist performing the angiogram inserts the catheter into the coeliac axis.
What level of the vertebrae does the coeliac axis normally arise from the aorta?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T12
Explanation:The coeliac axis refers to one of the splanchnic arteries located within the abdomen.
It arises from the aorta almost horizontally at the level of the T12 vertebrae
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 119
Incorrect
-
Which oral hypoglycaemic agent has no effect on insulin sensitivity or secretion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
Explanation:Because alpha glucosidase inhibitors slow starch digestion in the small intestine, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity.
Biguanides decrease hepatic glucose output while increasing glucose uptake in peripheral cells.
The meglitinides are secretagogues that act on a different site of the KATP receptors.
Insulin secretion is stimulated by sulphonylureas, which stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. The KATP channels are inhibited by these substances.
Insulin-sensitive genes are influenced by thiazolidinediones, which increase the production of mRNAs for insulin-dependent enzymes. As a result, the cells make better use of glucose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 120
Incorrect
-
Which among the following is not true regarding disease rates?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The odds ratio is synonymous with the risk ratio
Explanation:The relative risk (also known as risk ratio [RR]) is the ratio of risk of an event in one group (e.g., exposed group) versus the risk of the event in the other group (e.g., nonexposed group).
The odds ratio (OR) is the ratio of odds of an event in one group versus the odds of the event in the other group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 121
Incorrect
-
Which of the following drugs can have significant clinical effects on neonates when used in appropriate doses for a caesarean section?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alfentanil
Explanation:Opioid should be avoided in the caesarean section as it crosses the placental membrane and causes respiratory depression.
Even though inhalational and intravenous anaesthetic agents readily cross the placenta, they do not have significant effects on APGAR score when used in clinical doses.
Vecuronium and suxamethonium are highly polar molecules and thus do not cross the placenta in significant amounts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 122
Incorrect
-
One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case of a 60-year old patient with history of smoking for 30 years and a FEV1 of 70%, what would be the most probable five-year course of his FEV1 if he ceases to smoke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The FEV1 will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker
Explanation:For this patient, his forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker.
There is a notable, but slow, decline in FEV1 when an individual reaches the age of 26. An average reduction of 30 mls every year in non-smokers, while a more significant reduction of 50-70 mls is observed in approximately 20% of smokers.
Considering the age of the patient, individuals who begin smoking cessation by the age of 60 are far less likely to achieve normal FEV1 levels, even in the next five years. It is expected that their FEV1 will be approximately 14% less than their peers of the same age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 123
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man will be operated on for an arterial bypass procedure to treat claudication and foot ulceration. The anterior tibial artery will be the target for distal arterial anastomosis.
Which structure is NOT closely related to the anterior tibial artery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior
Explanation:The anterior tibial artery originates from the distal border of the popliteus. In the posterior compartment, it passes between the heads of the tibialis posterior and the oval aperture of the interosseous membrane to reach the anterior compartment.
On entry into the anterior compartment, it runs medially along the deep peroneal nerve.
The upper third of the artery courses between the tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus muscles, while the middle third runs between the tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus muscles.At the ankle, the anterior tibial artery is located approximately midway between the malleoli. It continues on the dorsum of the foot, lateral to extensor hallucis longus, as the dorsalis pedis artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 124
Incorrect
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Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Have the same molecular formula but different structural formulae
Explanation:Structural isomers have a similar molecular formula, but they have a different structural formula as their atoms are arranged in a different manner. Such small changes lead to the differential pharmacological activity. Enflurane and isoflurane are two prime examples of structural isomers.
Stereoisomers are those substances that have a similar molecular and structural formula, but the arrangement spatially of atoms are different and have optical activity.
Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers, which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. They also have chiral centres of molecular symmetry. Ketamine is considered as an example of racemic mixture (contain 50% R and 50% S enantiomers)
Geometric isomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) or a rigid carbon-carbon single bond in a heterocyclic ring. Cis-atracurium is one example.
Dynamic isomers or Tautomers are a pait of unstable structural isomers, which are present in equilibrium. One isomer can easily change after the change in pH. Midazolam and thiopentone are their examples.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:The neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.
The main features are:
– Elevated creatinine kinase
– Hyperthermia and tachycardia
– Altered mental state
– Increased white cell count
– Insidious onset over 1-3 days
– Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
– Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)Management is supportive of ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs.
Since Olanzapine is a potential cause of NMS it is not a treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 126
Incorrect
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Regarding thyroid hormones, one of the following is true.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid binding globulin (TBG) is increased in pregnancy
Explanation:T3 is produced by peripheral de-iodination of T4. It is more active than T4.
TBG, like most binding proteins, is increased in pregnancy. Because of this, measurement of free thyroid hormone concentration is more important than total.
T4 and T3 concentrations are decreased in Illness and starvation.
L-T4 that is the active molecule while D-T4 is inactive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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With a 10-day history of severe vomiting, a 71-year-old man with a gastric outlet obstruction is admitted to the surgical ward.
The serum biochemical results listed below are available:
Sodium 128 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 2.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Chloride 50 mmol/L (95-107)
Urea 12 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 180 µmol/L (60-110)
Which of the following do you think you are most likely to encounter?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The standard base excess will be higher than actual base excess
Explanation:Hydrochloric acid is lost when you vomit for a long time (HCl). As a result, the following can be expected, in varying degrees of severity:
Hypokalaemia
Hypochloraemia
Increased bicarbonate to compensate for chloride loss and metabolic alkalosisThe alkalosis causes potassium to move from the intracellular to the extracellular compartment at first. Long-term vomiting and dehydration cause potassium to be excreted by the kidneys in order to conserve sodium. Dehydration can cause urea and creatinine levels to rise.
The actual base excess is always greater than the standard base excess.
The actual base excess (BE) is a measurement of a base’s contribution to a blood gas picture’s metabolic component. It’s the amount of base that needs to be added to a blood sample to bring the pH back to 7.4 after the respiratory component of a blood gas picture has been corrected (PaCO2 of 40 mmHg or 5.3 kPa). The BE has a normal range of +2 to 2. A large positive BE indicates a severe metabolic alkalosis, while a large negative BE indicates a severe metabolic acidosis. As a result, the actual BE in vitro is unaffected by CO2.
In vivo, however, standard BE is not independent of pCO2 because blood with haemoglobin acts as a better buffer than total ECF.
As a result, it is impossible to tell the difference between compensating for a respiratory disorder and compensating for the presence of a primary metabolic disorder.
The differences between in vitro and in vivo behaviour can be mostly eliminated if the BE is calculated for a haemoglobin concentration of 50 g/L (the ‘effective’ or virtual value of Hb if it was distributed throughout the extracellular space) rather than the actual haemoglobin. Because haemoglobin has a lower buffering capacity, the standard BE is higher than the actual BE. It reflects the BE better in the extracellular space rather than just the intravascular compartment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 128
Incorrect
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Which type of epithelium lines the luminal surface of the oesophagus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
Explanation:Normally, the oesophagus is lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. This epithelium can undergo metaplasia and convert to the columnar epithelium (stomach’s lining) in long-standing GERD that leads to Barret’s oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 129
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine infusions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreasing gastric transit time
Explanation:Moderately high doses of dopamine produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to Noradrenaline release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy that has ruptured.
The following is a description of the clinical examination:
Anxious
Capillary refill time of 3 seconds
Cool peripheries
Pulse 120 beats per minute
Blood pressure 120/95 mmHg
Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these clinical findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%
Explanation:The following is the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock:
Class I haemorrhage:
It has blood loss up to 15%. There is very less tachycardia, and no changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure. Usually, fluid replacement is not required.Class II haemorrhage:
It has 15-30% blood loss, equivalent to 750 – 1500 ml. There is tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure. Patient may be frightened, hostile and anxious. It can be stabilised by crystalloid and blood transfusion.Class III haemorrhage:
There is 30-40% blood loss. It portrays inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, altered mental state and fall in systolic pressure. It requires blood transfusion.Class IV haemorrhage:
There is > 40% blood volume loss. It is a preterminal event, and the patient will die in minutes. It portrays tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and pulse pressure, altered mental state, and cold clammy skin. There is need for rapid transfusion and surgical intervention. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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An 80-year old lady has a background history of a previous myocardial infarction which has left permanent damage to her heart's conduction system. The part of the conduction system with the highest velocities is damaged, and this has resulted in desynchronisation of the ventricles. The part of the heart that conducts the fastest is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.
This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.
Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 132
Incorrect
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Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes
Explanation:Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.
It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on ?1 receptors and also on ? receptors.
It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.
Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 133
Incorrect
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A sevoflurane vaporiser with a 2 percent setting and a 200 kPa ambient pressure is used.
At this pressure, which of the following options best represents vaporiser output?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The output is 1% because the saturated pressure of sevoflurane is unaffected by ambient pressure
Explanation:Ambient pressure has no effect on a volatile agent’s saturated vapour pressure (SVP). At a temperature of 20°C, the SVP of sevoflurane is approximately 21 kPa, or 21% of atmospheric pressure (100 kPa).
The SVP of sevoflurane remains the same when the ambient pressure is doubled to 200 kPa, but the output of the vaporiser is halved, now 21 percent of 200 kPa, equalling 10.5 percent. The vaporiser’s output has increased to 1%, but the partial pressure output has remained unchanged. The splitting ratio will not change because it is determined by temperature changes.
Calculations can be made as follows:
Vaporizer output % (ambient pressure) = % volatile (calibrated) x 100 kPa calibrated pressure/ambient pressure
2% = 2% (dialled) × 100/100
2% of 100 = 2 kPaAltitude, pressure 50 kPa
4% = 2% (dialled) × 100/50
4% of 50 = 2 kPaHigh pressure at 200 kPa
1% = 2% (dialled) × 100/200
1% of 200 = 2 kPaSevoflurane has a boiling point of 58°C and, unlike desflurane (which has a boiling point of 22.8°C), does not need to be heated and pressurised with a Tec 6 vaporiser.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 134
Incorrect
-
An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape.
The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance.
End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes)
Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa
Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%.
Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the FGF
Explanation:End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial–end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.
The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.
Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.
There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 135
Incorrect
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Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma has been NOT been approved in recent guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heliox
Explanation:Recommendations from the British Thoracic Society for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma are:
1. Give controlled supplementary oxygen to all hypoxemic patients with acute severe asthma titrated to maintain a SpO₂ level of 94 98%.
2. Use high-dose inhaled ?₂ agonists as first-line agents in patients with acute asthma and administer them as early as possible. Reserve
intravenous ?₂ agonists for those patients in whom inhaled therapy cannot be used reliably.
3. Give steroids in adequate doses to all patients with an acute asthma attack.
4. Add nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4–6 hourly) to ?₂ agonist treatment for acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to ?₂ agonist therapy.
5. Consider aminophylline for children with severe or life-threatening asthma unresponsive to maximal doses of bronchodilators and steroids.A review (including 12 case reports, three RCTs, and five other observational studies) of ketamine use in adults and children in status asthmaticus reported that ketamine is a potential bronchodilator. Still, prospective trials are needed before conclusions about effectiveness can be drawn.
Heliox has no place in the current guidelines issued by the British Thoracic Society.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 136
Incorrect
-
When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phentolamine
Explanation:The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.
The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.
Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.
Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.
Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.
A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.
Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).
A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 137
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding an epidural set?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 19G Tuohy needles have 0.5 cm markings
Explanation:A paediatric 19G Tuohy catheter is available that is 5cm in length and has 0.5cm markings
18G Tuohy catheters are generally 9 to 10cm to hub
Distal end of catheter is angled (15 to 30 degrees) and closed to avoid puncturing the dura
Epidural mesh are usually 0.2 microns and are used to filter bacteria and viruses to ensure sterility of procedure
Transparent catheters are 90cm long with diameters depending on gauge size. It has 1cm graduations from 5 to 20cm to ensure they have been inserted amply and removed completely. Distal end is smooth which can be open or closed (with lateral openings)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 138
Incorrect
-
The tip of a pulmonary artery flotation catheter becomes wedged when threaded through the chambers of the heart and the pulmonary artery.
Which of the following options best describes the sequence of pressures measured at the catheter's tip during its passage through a normal patient's pulmonary artery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0-12 mmHg, 2-25 mmHg, 12-25 mmHg and 8-12 mmHg
Explanation:The tricuspid valve allows the tip of a pulmonary artery catheter to pass through the right atrium and into the right ventricle.
The balloon will be inflated before crossing the pulmonary valve and entering the pulmonary artery, where it will eventually wedge or occlude the artery, providing an indirect measure of left atrial pressure.
0-12 mmHg in the right atrium
2-25 mmHg in the right ventricle
12-25 mmHg in the pulmonary artery
8-12 mmHg is the occlusion pressure -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 139
Incorrect
-
The cardiac muscle will primarily utilize which metabolic substrate to produce energy when at rest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fatty acids
Explanation:Approximately 70% of the heart’s ATP requirement is met by cardiac mitochondria through beta-oxidation of fatty acids at rest. The remaining 30% is supplied by glucose.
Amino acids and ketones, in the presence of ketoacidosis, may supply at most 10% of the ATP requirement. And, when in high levels, lactate may also contribute to the ATP requirement of the heart, particularly during moments of high muscular activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 140
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman's blood pressure readings in the clinic are 170/109 mmHg, 162/100 mmHg and 175/107 mmHg and her routine haematology, biochemistry, and 12-lead ECG are normal.
She is assessed on the day of surgery prior to laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair and is found to be normally fit and well. Documentation of previous blood pressure measurements from her general practitioner in the primary healthcare setting are not available.
What is your next course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Proceed with scheduled surgery without treatment
Explanation:The AAGBI and the British Hypertension Society has published guidelines for the measurement of adult blood pressure and management of hypertension before elective surgery.
The objective is to ensure that patients admitted for elective surgery have a known systolic blood pressure below 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressures below 100 mmHg. The primary health care teams, if possible, should ensure that this is the case and provide evidence to the pre-assessment clinic staff or on admission.
Avoiding cancellation on the day of surgery because of white coat hypertension is a secondary objective.
Patients with blood pressures below 180 mmHg systolic and 110 mmHg diastolic (measured in the preop assessment clinic), who present to pre-operative assessment clinics without documented evidence of primary care blood pressures should proceed to elective surgery.
In this question, the history/assessment does not appear to point to obvious end-organ damage so there is no indication for further investigation for secondary causes of hypertension or an echocardiogram at this point. Further review and treatment at this point is not required.
However, you should write to the patient’s GP and encourage serial blood pressure measurements in the primary health care setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 141
Incorrect
-
Regarding gas laws, which one best explains the ability of a Bourdon gauge to measure temperature?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charles's law
Explanation:Charles’ Law states that there is a direct correlation between temperature and volume, where pressure and amount gas are constant. As temperature increases, volume also increases.
Boyle’s Law states that Pressure is inversely proportional to volume, assuming that temperature and amount of gas are constant. As volume increases, pressure decreases. In Dalton’s law of partial pressure, the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of the gases in mixture.
According to Henry’s Law for concentration of dissolved gases, at a constant temperature, the amount of a given gas that dissolves in a given type and volume of liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with that liquid. An equivalent way of stating the law is that the solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid.
Gay-Lussac’s Law states that the pressure of a given mass of gas varies directly with the absolute temperature of the gas, when the volume is kept constant. This law is very similar to Charles’ Law, with the only difference being the type of container. Whereas the container in a Charles’ Law experiment is flexible, it is rigid in a Gay-Lussac’s Law experiment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 142
Incorrect
-
Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the fastest twitch response to stimulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type IIb skeletal muscle
Explanation:Human skeletal muscle is composed of a heterogeneous collection of muscle fibre types which differ histologically, biochemically and physiologically.
It can be biochemically classified into 2 groups. This is based on muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry. These are:
Type 1 (slow twitch): Muscle fibres depend upon aerobic glycolytic metabolism and aerobic oxidative metabolism. They are rich in mitochondria, have a good blood supply, rich in myoglobin and are resistant to fatigue.
Type II (fast twitch): Muscle fibres are sub-divided into:
Type IIa – relies on aerobic/oxidative metabolism
Type IIb – relies on anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism.Fast twitch muscle fibres produce short bursts of power but are more easily fatigued.
Cardiac and smooth muscle twitches are relatively slow compared with skeletal muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 143
Incorrect
-
Regarding the anatomical relations of the first rib, one of the following is right
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The subclavius muscle attaches to the upper surface
Explanation:The first rib is an atypical rib. It is short, wide, and flattened and lies in an oblique plane.
It has a small scalene tubercle on its medial border which marks the point of attachment of scalenus anterior. The lower surface lies on the pleura and is smooth.
The tubercle on the upper surface separates an anterior groove for the subclavian vein and a posterior groove for the subclavian artery and lower trunk of the brachial plexus.
Scalenus medius is attached to a roughened area posterior to the groove for the subclavian artery.
The upper surface gives attachment anteriorly to the subclavius muscle and costoclavicular ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 144
Incorrect
-
From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: X rays
Explanation:Electromagnetic waves are categorized according to their frequency or equivalently according to their wavelength. Visible light makes up a small part of the full electromagnetic spectrum.
Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays. Electromagnetic waves with longer wavelengths and lower frequencies include infrared light, microwaves, and radio and televisions waves.
Different electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength from shorter to longer are X-rays, ultraviolet radiations, visible light, infrared radiation, radio waves. X-ray among electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength and higher frequency with wavelengths ranging from 10*-8 to 10* -12 and corresponding frequencies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 145
Incorrect
-
A caudal anaesthetic block is planned for a 3-year-old girl presenting for inguinal hernia repair. Choose the best answer that explains why the caudal epidural space is accessed via the sacral hiatus.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The failure of fusion of the laminae of S4 and S5 provides a suitable point of entry
Explanation:The sacral hiatus is shaped by incomplete midline fusion of the posterior elements of the distal portion of S4 and S5. This inverted U shaped space is covered by the posterior aspect of the sacrococcygeal membrane and is an important landmark in caudal anaesthetic block. Distal most portion of the dural sac and the sacral hiatus usually terminate between levels S1 and S3. The dural sac ends at the level of S2 in adults and S3 in children.
An equilateral triangle is formed between the apex of the sacral hiatus and the posterior superior iliac spines. This triangle is used to determine the location of the sacral hiatus during caudal anaesthetic block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 146
Incorrect
-
During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.
Which mechanism is the most important for increased blood flow?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Local autoregulation
Explanation:Skeletal muscle blood flow is in the range of 1-4 ml/min per 100 g when at rest. Blood flow can reach 50-100 ml/min per 100 g during exercise. With maximal vasodilation, blood flow can increase 20 to 50 times.
The adrenal medulla releases catecholamines and increases neural sympathetic activity during exercise. Normally, alpha-1 and alpha-2 would cause vasoconstriction in the muscle groups being used, but vasodilatory metabolites override these effects, resulting in a so-called functional sympathectomy. Local hypoxia and hypercarbia, nitric oxide, K+ ions, adenosine, and lactate are some of the stimuli that cause vasodilation.
However, the splanchnic and cutaneous circulations, which supply inactive muscles, vasoconstrict.
Sympathetic cholinergic innervation of skeletal muscle arteries is found in some species (such as cats and dogs, but not humans). Vasodilation is induced by stimulating smooth muscle beta-2 adrenoreceptors, but at rest, the alpha-adrenoreceptor effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline predominate. During exercise, the skeletal muscle pump promotes venous emptying, but it does not necessarily increase blood flow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 147
Incorrect
-
Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) can be used to investigate the function of the heart in patients with suspected heart failure. The aim is to measure the ejection fraction, but to do that, the stroke volume must first be measured. How is stroke volume calculated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: End diastolic volume - end systolic volume
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 148
Incorrect
-
The main action of atrial natriuretic peptide is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vasodilation
Explanation:Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is secreted mainly from myocytes of right atrium and ventricle in response to increased blood volume.
It is secreted by both the right and left atria (right >> left).It is a 28 amino acid peptide hormone, which acts via cGMP
degraded by endopeptidases.It serves to promote the excretion of sodium, lowers blood pressure, and antagonise the actions of angiotensin II and aldosterone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 149
Incorrect
-
During the analysis phase, which of the provided options serves to control confounding factors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stratification
Explanation:During analytical stage a technique called stratification is used for controlling confounding variables. This technique involves sorting out the data into discernible groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 150
Incorrect
-
A 74-year old male who has a history of heart failure has an exacerbation of his symptoms and goes to the ED. An ultrasound scan is done which shows that there is a decrease in his stroke volume. Which of these choices would one expect to increase his stroke volume0
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory inspiration
Explanation:Respiratory inspiration causes a decreased pressure in the thoracic cavity, which in turn causes more blood to flow into the atrium.
Sitting up decreases venous because of the action of gravity on blood in the venous system.
Hypotension also decreases venous return.
A less compliant aorta, like in aortic stenosis increases end systolic left ventricular volume which decreases stroke volume.Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output. Increased vascular resistance impedes the flow of blood back to the heart.
Increased venous return increases end diastolic LV volume as there is more blood returning to the ventricles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 151
Incorrect
-
A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant, in preventing stroke in patients suffering from atrial fibrillation, relative to those already available in the market was performed. A 59 year old woman volunteered for it and was randomised to the treatment arm. A year later, following findings were reported:
165 out of 1050 patients who were prescribed the already prevalent medicine had a stroke while the number of patients who had a single stroke after using the new drug was 132 out of 1044.
In order to avoid one stroke case, what is the number of patients that need to be treated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 32
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (165/1050)-(132/1044)
ARR= (0.157-0.126)
ARR= 0.031
NNT= 1/0.031
NNT=32.3
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 152
Incorrect
-
Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epoprostenol
Explanation:Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.
Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.
Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.
Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.
Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 153
Incorrect
-
An 80 year old woman is due for cataract surgery.
There are no contraindications to regional anaesthesia so a peribulbar block was performed. 8mls of 2% lidocaine was injected using an infratemporal approach. However, there is still movement of the globe after 5 mins.
The least likely extraocular muscle to develop akinesia is:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior oblique
Explanation:The fibrotendinous ring formed by the congregation of the rectus muscles at the apex of the orbit does not include superior oblique. This muscle is completely outside the ring and so it is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely. A good grasp of the anatomy of the area being anaesthetised is important with all regional anaesthetic techniques so that potential problems and complications with a block can be anticipated.
The borders of this pyramid whose apex points upwards and outwards of the bony orbit are as follows:
Floor – Zygoma and Maxilla
Roof – frontal bone
Medial wall – maxilla, ethmoid, sphenoid and lacrimal bones.
Lateral wall – greater wing of the sphenoid and the zygoma.The four recti muscles (superior, medial, lateral and inferior) originate from a tendinous ring (the annulus of Zinn) and extend anteriorly to insert beyond the equator of the globe. Bands of connective tissue are present between the rectus muscles forming a conical structure and hinder the passage of local anaesthetic.
The superior oblique muscle is situated outside this ring and is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely, particularly with a single inferotemporal peribulbar injection. An additional medial injection may help to prevent this.
The cranial nerve supply to the extraocular muscles are:
3rd (inferior oblique, inferior recti, medial and superior)
4th (superior oblique), and
6th (lateral rectus).The long and short ciliary nerves provide the sensory supply to the globe and these are branches of the nasociliary nerve, (which is itself a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve).
To achieve anaesthesia for the eye, these nerves which enter the fibrotendinous ring need to be fully blocked to anaesthetise the eye for surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 154
Incorrect
-
Diagnosis of the neuroleptic malignant syndrome is best supported by which of the following statement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased Creatine Kinase
Explanation:The neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.
The main features are:
– Elevated creatinine kinase
– Hyperthermia and tachycardia
– Altered mental state
– Increased white cell count
– Insidious onset over 1-3 days
– Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
– Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)Management is supportive ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 155
Incorrect
-
The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facilitated diffusion
Explanation:Glucose transport is a highly regulated process accomplished mostly by facilitated diffusion using carrier proteins to cross cell membranes.
There are many transporters, but the most important are known as glucose transporters (GLUTs).
Stresses in various form of acute and chronic forms affect the activity of glucose transporters.
They are responsive to many types of metabolic stress, including hypoxia, injury, hypoglycaemia, numerous metabolic inhibitors, stress hormones, and other influences such as growth factors.Numerous signalling pathways appear to be involved in transporter regulation.
New evidence suggests that stresses regulating GLUTs are not only acute biological stresses. In addition, chronic low-grade inflammation, and their associated chronic diseases also lead to altered glucose transport. These include obesity, type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and the growth and spread of many tumours that are affected by altered glucose transporters. Some of these glucose transport effects are compensatory, while others are pathogenic.
Ultimately, deliberate manipulation of GLUTs could be used as treatment for some of these chronic diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 156
Incorrect
-
Which of the following options will likely play a major role in falling coronary blood flow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intracoronary artery infusion of endothelin-1
Explanation:Endothelin-1 is considered as a powerful coronary vasoconstrictor, produced by the endothelium. It acts to counter the effects of Nitric oxide (NO).
Neuropeptide-Y, angiotensin1, cocaine, vasopressin, and nicotine are some other coronary vasoconstrictors.Chronotrophy and inotrophy occur after the activation of sympathetic nerve fibres, which in turn results in increasing the myocardial oxygen consumption, leading to increased coronary blood flow via local metabolic processes.
An alpha-receptor mediated coronary vasoconstrictor effect is also initiated that usually competes with vasodilation, resulting in decreased coronary vascular resistance. Some of the other dilators include hydrogen ions, CO2, potassium, and lactic acid. The action of endothelial NO synthase (eNOS) on L-arginine results in the formation of NO. This messenger also plays a vital role in the regulation of coronary blood flow via vasodilation, inhibition of platelet aggression, and decreasing vascular resistance.
Adenosine is considered as purine nucleoside that forms after the breakdown of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Adenosine binds to adenosine type 2A (A2A) receptors in coronary vascular smooth muscles. These are coupled to the Gs protein. This mechanism leads to hyperpolarisation of muscle cells, resulting in relaxation and increased coronary blood flow.GTN is an veno and arteriolar dilator, which behaves as pro-drug with NO.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 157
Incorrect
-
Which of following statements is true regarding the comparison of fentanyl and alfentanil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fentanyl is more potent than alfentanil
Explanation:Fentanyl is a pethidine congener, 80–100 times more potent than morphine, both in analgesia and respiratory depression. Fentanyl is ten times more potent than alfentanil.
Alfentanil has a more rapid onset than fentanyl even if fentanyl is more lipid-soluble because both are basic compounds and alfentanil has lower pKa, so a greater proportion of alfentanil is unionized and is more available to cross membranes.
Elimination of alfentanil is higher than fentanyl due to its lower volume of distribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 158
Incorrect
-
Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant hepatic failure in halothane administration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple exposure
Explanation:Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.
Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 159
Incorrect
-
A study involving 64 patients of diabetes mellitus type 2 was performed. Weight of each patient was recorded and the mean weight of the patients was found to be 81 kg. The data set had a standard deviation of 12 kg.
The value of standard error associated with the mean is:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.5
Explanation:Standard error can be calculated by the following formula:
Standard Error= (Standard Deviation)/√(Sample Size)
= (12) / √(64)
= 12 / 8
= 1.5 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 160
Incorrect
-
A new clinical trial evaluates the effect of a new drug Z on all-cause mortality. The rate of death in the group receiving this drug is 8%, compared with 16% in the control group.
What is the number needed to treat with drug Z to prevent death?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 13
Explanation:Number needed to treat is a measure of the impact of a treatment or intervention that is often used to communicate results to patients, clinicians, the public and policymakers. It states how many patients need to be treated for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome (e.g. a death).
It is calculated as the inverse of the absolute risk reduction and is rounded to the next highest whole number.
The absolute risk reduction is 8% (16% – 8%). 100/8 = 12.5, so rounding up the next integer this gives at NNT of 13. i.e. you would need to give the new drug to 13 people to ensure that you prevented one death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 161
Incorrect
-
Among the different classes of anti-arrhythmics, which one is the first line treatment for narrow complex AV nodal re-entry tachycardia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adenosine
Explanation:Adenosine is the first line for AV nodal re-entry tachycardia. An initial dose of 6 mg is given, and a consequent second dose or third dose of 12 mg is administered if the initial dose fails to terminate the arrhythmia.
Aside from Adenosine, a vagal manoeuvre (e.g. carotid massage) is done to help terminate the supraventricular arrhythmia.
Amiodarone is not a first-line drug for supraventricular tachycardias. Digoxin and Propranolol can be considered if the arrhythmia is of a narrow complex irregular type. Verapamil is an alternative to Adenosine if the latter is contraindicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 162
Incorrect
-
A 57-year old woman, presents to her general practitioner. She has a 2 week history of a vaginal hysterectomy for which she was placed under general anaesthesia.
On examination, she has notable weakness of dorsiflexion of her left foot and a high stepping gait.
Which nerve was most likely injured during her surgery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The common peroneal (fibular) nerve is a peripheral nerve in the lower limb. It arises of the L4-S2 nerve roots and has sensory and motor innervations:
Sensory: Provides innervation of the lateral leg and foot dorsum.
Motor: Provides innervation of the short head of the biceps femoris, as well as muscles of the anterior and lateral leg compartments.
It is the most commonly damaged nerve in the lower extremity, as it is easily compressed by a plaster cast or injured when the fibula is fractured.
Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in loss of dorsiflexion at ankle (footdrop, as feet are permanently plantarflexed), with the accompanying high stepping gait.
The saphenous and sural nerve only provide sensory innervation.
The tibial nerve arises from the sciatic nerve (like the common peroneal), but it provides motor innervation to the posterior leg compartments and intrinsic foot muscles. Injury to the tibial nerve will cause loss of plantar flexion, toe flexion and weakened foot inversion.
Extreme hip flexion into the lithotomy or Lloyd-Davies position can result in stretch damage to the neurones (sciatic and obturator nerves) or by applying direct pressure (femoral nerve compression).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 163
Incorrect
-
The lung volume that is commonly measured indirectly is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity
Explanation:The functional residual capacity (FRC) is the volume in the lungs at the end of passive expiration. It is determined by opposing forces of the expanding chest wall and the elastic recoil of the lung. A normal FRC = 1.7 to 3.5 L. It a marker for lung function, and, during this time, the alveolar pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure.
FRC cannot be measured by spirometry because it contains the residual volume.
Tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume, forced expiratory volume in 1 second, and vital capacity can be measured directly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 164
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can be detected in the lymph
Explanation:Insulin is secreted from the ? cells of the pancreas. It consists of 51 amino acids arranged in two chains. It interacts with cell surface receptors (not the nuclear receptors and thus mechanism of action is not similar to steroids).
Since insulin can pass from plasma to interstitium and lymphatics, it can be measured in lymph but the concentrations here can be up to 30% less than that of plasma.It decreases blood glucose by stimulating the entry of glucose in muscle and fat (by increasing the synthesis of Glucose transporters)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 165
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache, photophobia, fever, and confusion. She is treated empirically with antibiotics. Which of the following represents the correct mechanism of action of the most commonly used first-line antibiotic class?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Explanation:Based on the presenting symptoms, this is the case of bacterial meningitis. The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 166
Incorrect
-
All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility
Explanation:The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.
Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.
Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 167
Incorrect
-
A 77-year-old woman is scheduled for day case cataract surgery under local anaesthesia. She has no cardiac or respiratory problems. Lisinopril is being used to treat her hypertension, which is under control.
Which of the following preoperative investigations are the most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No investigations
Explanation:Because the patient has mild systemic disease, he is ASA 2 and the procedure will be performed under local anaesthesia.
The following factors should be considered when requesting preoperative investigations:
Indications derived from a preliminary clinical examination
Whether or not a general anaesthetic will be used, the possibility of asymptomatic abnormalities, and the scope of the surgery.No special investigations are needed if the patient has no history of significant systemic disease and no abnormal findings on examination during the nurse-led assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 168
Incorrect
-
The parameter that is indirectly measured from a blood gas analysis is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Standard bicarbonate
Explanation:Automated blood gas analysers are commonly used to analyse blood gas samples, and they measure specific components of the arterial blood gas sample, whether directly or indirectly.
The following are the components of arterial blood gas:
pH = measured (directly determined) acid-base balance of the blood
PaO2 = measured partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood
PaCO2 = measured partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood
HCO3 = calculated (indirectly determined) concentration of bicarbonate in arterial blood
Base excess/deficit = calculated relative excess or deficit of base in arterial blood
SaO2 = calculated arterial oxygen saturation unless a co-oximetry is obtained, in which case it is measured
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 169
Incorrect
-
Bioelectric potentials that have been measured have an optimum bandwidth and typical frequency.
For a standard 12-lead ECG, which of the following bandwidth and voltage combinations is the best?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bandwidth 0.05-150 Hz, voltage 100-4000 microvolts
Explanation:The potential difference (amplitude) and bandwidth frequencies of bioelectric signals are typical.
These are the following:
ECG: A bandwidth of 0.5-50 Hz is usually sufficient in monitoring mode, but a typical diagnostic bandwidth is 0.05-150 Hz (up to 200 Hz) with a typical voltage range of 0.1-4 millivolts (100-4000 microvolts).
EEG has a frequency range of 0.5-100 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5-100 microvolts.
EMG has a frequency range of 0.5 to 350 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5 to 30 millivolts.Prior to display, these small signals will need to be amplified and processed further.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 170
Incorrect
-
Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac muscle
Explanation:Among the types of muscles, cardiac muscles have the greatest number if mitochondria due to the heart energy requirements.
Approximately 35% of the cardiac muscle volume is due to the mitochondria. While in skeletal and smooth muscles, it comprises 3-8% of the muscle volume.
Type I muscle fibre has a slow contraction velocity, with a red fibre colour, and predominantly uses oxidative phosphorylation to produce a sustained contraction. It contains more mitochondria and myoglobin than type II, and is often used for endurance training.
Type II muscle fibre has a fast contraction velocity, a white fibre colour, and predominantly uses anaerobic glycolysis. It has fewer mitochondria and myoglobin, and is often used for weight or resistance training and sprinting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 171
Incorrect
-
The whole water content of the body is calculated by multiplying body mass with 0.6. This water is diffused into distinct compartments.
Which fluid compartment can be measured indirectly?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intracellular volume
Explanation:The total body water content of a 70kg man is (70 × 0.6) = 42 litres. For a woman, the calculation is (70 × 0.55) = 38.5 litres.
For a man, it is subdivided into:
Extracellular fluid (ECF) = 14L (1/3)
Intracellular fluid (ICF) = 28L (2/3).The ECF volume is further divided into:
Interstitial fluid = 10.5 litres
Plasma = 3 litres
Transcellular fluid (CSF/synovial fluid) = 0.5 litres.Directly measured fluid compartments:
Heavy water (deuterium) can be used to measure total body water content, which is freely distributed.
Albumin labelled with a radioactive isotope or using a dye called Evans blue can be used to measure Plasma volume . They do not diffuse into red blood cells.
Radiolabelled (Cr-51) red blood cells can be used to measure total erythrocyte volume.
Inulin as the tracer can be used to measure ECF volume as it circulate freely in the interstitial and plasma volumes.Indirectly measured fluid compartments:
Total blood volume can be calculated with the level of haematocrit and the volume of total circulating red blood cells.
ICF volume can be calculated by subtracting ECF volume from total blood volume. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 172
Incorrect
-
A 71-year-old woman will undergo surgery for a fractured femur neck.
1 mg midazolam is used to induce anaesthesia, followed by 75 mg propofol.
Which of the following options best describes how these two drugs interact pharmacologically?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Synergism
Explanation:Drug interactions can be seen in the following examples:
Additive interaction (summation).
Additive effects are described for intravenous drug combinations such as ketamine and thiopentone or ketamine and midazolam. Different mechanisms of action are used by them. Thiopentone and midazolam are GABAA receptor agonists, whereas ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist. Nitrous oxide and halothane are two other examples.
Synergism is a supra-additive interaction.
Refers to the administration of two drugs with similar pharmacological properties and closely related sites of action, resulting in a combined effect that is greater than the sum of the contributions of each component. The construction of an isobologram can be used to interpret and understand these. The best example is the hypnotic effect of benzodiazepines and intravenous induction agents like propofol. As part of a co-induction technique, midazolam is frequently given before propofol.
Potentiation
In a dose-dependent manner, volatile agents enhance the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents. Electrolyte disturbance (hypomagnesaemia), Penicillin, and probenecid can all increase the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents (the latter has no similar pharmacological activity).
Infra-additive interaction (antagonism).
This can be subdivided into the following categories:
-Pharmacokinetic interference occurs when one drug affects the absorption of another through the gastrointestinal tract or when hepatic microsomal enzyme induction influences metabolism.
-Heparin and protamine, for example, or heavy metals and chelating agents, are examples of chemical antagonists.
-Competitive reversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors, such as opioids and naloxone, and irreversible antagonistic antagonism of receptors -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 60-year old male has anaemia and is being investigated. The most common combination of globin chains in a normal adult is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: α2β2
Explanation:There are 4 different types of globin chains which surround 4 heme molecules in haemoglobin (Hb) – α (alpha), β (beta), γ (gamma), and δ (delta)
α chains are essential.
δ2β2 and β2γ2 are not found in a healthy adult.
97% of the Hb in a healthy adult is made of α2β2 (2 α chains and 2 β chains).
α2δ2 accounts for around 1.5-3% of the adult Hb.
α2γ2 accounts for less than 1%.With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.
Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain. There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions. The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 174
Incorrect
-
Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:Insulin is the primary anabolic hormone that dominates regulation of metabolism during digestive phase. It promotes glucose uptake in skeletal myocytes and adipocytes, and other insulin-target cells. It promotes glycogenesis and inhibits gluconeogenesis.
Glucagon is the primary counterregulatory hormone that increases blood glucose levels, primarily through its effects on liver glucose output.
Similar to glucagon, growth hormone, catecholamines and corticosteroids are also counterregulatory factors released in response to decreased glucose concentrations. Growth hormone promotes glycogenolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis; catecholamines stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; while corticosteroids stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 175
Incorrect
-
During the design phase of a study, which among the given is aimed at addressing confounding factors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Randomisation
Explanation:Randomisation allows for performance of experimental trials in a random order. Using this method gives us control over the confounding variables that are not supposed to be held constant.
For an instance, by employing randomisation we get to control biological differences among individual human beings during experimental trials.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 176
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man is to be operated.
His past history is significant for a stroke, and some residual neurological deficit. The cranial nerves are examined clinically. He is unable to rotate his head to the left side when resistance is applied. Moreover, there is tongue wasting on the right side. There are no unusual sensory signs and symptoms.
The most likely reason for these clinical findings is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Damage to hypoglossal (XII) and spinal accessory (XI) nerves
Explanation:The upper five cervical segments of the spinal cord give rise to the XI cranial nerve. They connect with a few smaller branches before exiting the skull through the jugular foramen. The sternomastoid and trapezius muscles get their motor supply from the accessory root. Except for the palatoglossus, the hypoglossal nerve supplies motor supply to all tongue muscles.
The inability to shrug the shoulder on the affected side and rotate the head to the side against resistance is caused by damage to the spinal accessory nerve. This is due to the trapezius and sternomastoid muscles’ weakness.
The hypoglossal nerve is damaged, resulting in tongue wasting and inability to move from side to side.
The stylopharyngeus receives motor supply from the glossopharyngeal nerve. It also carries taste sensory fibres from the back third of the tongue, as well as the carotid sinus, carotid body, pharynx, and middle ear.
Motor supply to the larynx, pharynx, and palate; parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lung, and gut; and sensory fibres from the epiglottis and valleculae are all provided by the vagus nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 177
Incorrect
-
Which of the following drugs is an enzyme inducer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rifampicin
Explanation:Rifampicin is a potent inducer of liver cytochrome enzymes. Other enzyme inducers are:
Carbamazepine
Sodium valproate
Phenytoin
Phenobarbitone -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 178
Incorrect
-
Which statement is false in regards to the Circle of Willis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Majority of blood passing through the vessels mix together
Explanation:There is minimum mixing of blood passing through the vessels.
The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries. It lies in the subarachnoid space within the basal cisterns that surround the optic chiasma and infundibulum.
Each half of the circle is formed by:
1. Anterior communicating artery
2. Anterior cerebral artery
3. Internal carotid artery
4. Posterior communicating artery
5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply; the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 179
Incorrect
-
A 24-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She has just been involved in a car accident. She is examined and undergoes various diagnostic investigations. Her X-ray report states that a fracture was noted on the surgical neck of her humerus.
What structure is most likely to the damaged as a result of a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:Fractures to the surgical neck of the humerus are common place as it is the weakest point of the proximal humerus bone.
The structures most likely to be damaged are the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery as they surround the surgical neck.
The radial nerve runs along the radial groove, so injury to it would likely occur with a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus.
The brachial artery is most likely to be injured as a result of a supracondylar fracture of the humerus which increases the risk of volkmaan’s ischemic contractures.
Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve is least likely to happen and it very uncommon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 180
Incorrect
-
The most sensitive indicator of mild obstructive airway disease is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Forced expiratory flow (FEF25-75%)
Explanation:The volume expired in the first second of maximal expiration after a maximal inspiration is known as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and it indicates how quickly full lungs can be emptied. It is the most commonly measured parameter for bronchoconstriction assessment.
The maximum volume of air exhaled after a maximal inspiration is known as the ‘slow’ vital capacity (VC). VC is normally equal to FVC after a forced vital capacity (FVC) or slow vital capacity (VC) manoeuvre, unless there is an airflow obstruction, in which case VC is usually higher than FVC.
The FEV1/FVC (Tiffeneau index) is a clinically useful index of airflow restriction that can be used to distinguish between restrictive and obstructive respiratory disorders.
The average expired flow over the middle half (25-75 percent) of the FVC manoeuvre is the forced expiratory volume (FEF25-75). The airflow from the resistance bronchioles corresponds to this. It’s a more sensitive indicator of mild small airway narrowing than FEV1, but it’s difficult to tell if the VC (or FVC) is decreasing or increasing.
The maximum expiratory flow rate achieved is called the peak expiratory flow (PEF), which is usually 8-14 L/second.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 181
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman presents to emergency department. She is experiencing generalised seizures.
She is given emergency management of her symptoms before being referred to the neurologist who diagnoses her with new onset of tonic-clonic epilepsy.
What is the most appropriate first line of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine should be offered as first line of treatment
Explanation:Tonic-clonic (Grand mal) epilepsy is characterised by a general loss of consciousness with violent involuntary muscle contractions.
The NICE guidelines for treatment indicates the use of sodium valproate and lamotrigine, but sodium valproate unsuitable in this case and she is a woman of reproductive age and it is known to have teratogenic effects. Lamotrigine is a more suitable choice, prescribed as 800mg daily.
NICE guidelines also advice an additional prescription of 5mg of folic acid daily for women on anticonvulsant therapy looking to get pregnant. It also warns of the need for extra contraceptive precaution as there is a possibly that the anticonvulsant agent can reduce levels of contraceptive agents.
Stimulation of the vagal nerve stimulation is only necessary in patients who are refractory to medical treatment and not candidates for surgical resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 182
Incorrect
-
A study of blood pressure measurements is being performed in patients with chronic kidney disease.
Considering that the results are normally distributed, what percentage of values lie within two standard deviations of the mean blood pressure reading?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 95.40%
Explanation:Normal distribution, also called Gaussian distribution, the most common distribution function for independent, randomly generated variables, and describes the spread for many biological and clinical measurements.
Properties of the Normal distribution
symmetrical i.e. Mean = mode = median
68.3% of values lie within 1 SD of the mean
95.4% of values lie within 2 SD of the mean
99.7% of values lie within 3 SD of the mean
The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule, tells you where most of the values lie in a normal distribution: Around 68% of values are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.
Around 95% of values are within 2 standard deviations of the mean. Around 99.7% of values are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
the standard deviation (SD) is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean.SD = square root (variance)
The empirical rule, or the 68-95-99.7 rule states where most of the values lie in a normal distribution. Around 68% of values fall within 1 S.D of the mean, about 95% within 2 S.D of the mean, and about 99.7% of values within 3 S.D of the mean. Therefore, 95.4% is the most reasonable answer if results are normally distributed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 183
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is about the measurement of glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The result matches clearance of the indicator if it is renally inert
Explanation:The measurements of GFR are done using renally inert indicators like inulin, where passive rate of filtration at the glomerulus = rate of excretion. Normal value is about 180 litres per day.
GFR is altered by renal blood flow but blood flow does not need to be measured.
The reabsorption of Na leads to a low excretion rate and low urine concentration and therefore its use as an indicator would lead to an erroneously LOW GFR.
If there is tubular secretion of any solute, the clearance value will be higher than that of inulin. This will be either due to tubular reabsorption or the solute not being freely filtered at the glomerulus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 184
Incorrect
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Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the external carotid artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mandibular artery
Explanation:The external carotid artery has eight important branches:
1. Superior thyroid artery
2. Ascending pharyngeal artery
3. Lingual artery
4. Facial artery
5. Occipital artery
6. Posterior auricular artery
7. Maxillary artery (terminal branch)
8. Superficial temporal artery (terminal branch)There is no mandibular artery but the first part of the maxillary artery is called the mandibular part as it is posterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle.
The maxillary artery is divided into three portions by its relation to the lateral pterygoid muscle:
first (mandibular) part: posterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle
second (pterygoid or muscular) part: within the lateral pterygoid muscle
third (pterygopalatine) part: anterior to the lateral pterygoid muscle -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 185
Incorrect
-
These proprietary preparations of local anaesthetic are available in your hospital:
Solution A contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine (plain), and
Solution B contains 10 mL 0.5% bupivacaine with adrenaline 1 in 200,000.
What is the pharmacokinetic difference between the two solutions?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The onset of action of solution A is quicker than solution B
Explanation:The reasons for adding adrenaline to a local anaesthetic solution are:
1. To Increase the duration of block
2. To reduce absorption of the local anaesthetic into the circulation
3. To Increase the upper safe limit of local anaesthetic (2.5 mg/kg instead of 2 mg/kg, in this case).The addition of adrenaline to bupivacaine does not affect its potency, lipid solubility, protein binding, or pKa(8.1 with or without adrenaline).
The pH of bupivacaine is between 5-7. Premixed with adrenaline, it is 3.3-5.5.
The onset of a local anaesthetic and its ability to penetrate membranes depends upon degree of ionisation. Compared with the ionised fraction, unionised local anaesthetic readily penetrates tissue membranes to site of action. The onset of action of solution B is slower. this is because the relationship between pKa(8.1) and pH(3.3-5.5) of the solution results in a greater proportion of ionised local anaesthetic molecules compared with solution A. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 186
Incorrect
-
A 30-year old lady has a sub total thyroidectomy. On the 5th post-operative day, the wound becomes erythematous and there is a purulent discharge. The most likely organism causing this is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 187
Incorrect
-
Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of 35 is pre-oxygenated.
Which method of pre-oxygenation with a tight-fitting face mask is the most effective?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxygen 6 litres per minute via a Mapleson A breathing system, with patient sitting up at 30 degrees breathing four vital capacity breaths
Explanation:This patient is morbidly obese and has a high risk of developing hypoxia. This will be exacerbated by the patient’s supine position, as a result of:
Functional residual capacity has been reduced (FRC)
Increased closing capacity (CC)
Reduced tidal volume due to increased airway resistance, decreased thoracic cage compliance, and decreased respiratory muscle strength and endurance
Following induction of general anaesthesia, there is a tendency for atelectasis and increased O2 consumption due to the increased workload of respiratory muscles and the overall increase in metabolism.Pre-oxygenation with 100 percent oxygen via a tight-fitting mask can be done using either tidal volume breaths for three to five minutes or four vital capacity breaths in normal circumstances. In the head-up position, this patient is much more likely to be adequately pre-oxygenated, maximising the FRC and minimising the CC. In spontaneously breathing patients, the Mapleson A and circle systems are both effective, but the Mapleson D requires 160-200 ml/kg/minute to prevent rebreathing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 188
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a glucose concentration 2/3 that of the plasma glucose
Explanation:The pH of CSF is 7.31 which is lower than plasma.
Compared to plasma, it has a lower concentration of potassium, calcium, and protein and a higher concentration of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate and magnesium.
CSF usually has no cells present but if white cells are present, there should be no more than 4/ml.
The pressure of CSF should be less than 20 cm of water.
The concentration of glucose is approximately two-thirds of that of plasma, and it has a concentration of approximately 3.3-4 mmol/L.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 189
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is a selective alpha 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist.
Explanation:Selective ?1 -Blockers like prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, and alfuzosin cause a decrease in blood pressure with lesser tachycardia than nonselective blockers (due to lack of ?2 blocking action.
The major adverse effect of these drugs is postural hypotension. It is seen with the first few doses or on-dose escalation (First dose effect).
Its half-life is approximately three hours.
It is excreted primarily through bile and faeces (not through kidneys)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 190
Incorrect
-
All of the following are causes of hypalbuminaemia except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Starvation
Explanation:Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.
Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.
Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.
If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
It is not catabolised during starvation.
Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.Causes of low albumin are
1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
4. Increased catabolism (very rare) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 191
Incorrect
-
Which plasma protein will bind the thyroid hormone triiodothyronine (T3) more readily?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroxine binding globulin
Explanation:Secreted T4 and T3 circulate in the bloodstream almost entirely bound to proteins. Normally only about 0.03% of total plasma T4 and 0.3% of total plasma T3 exist in the free state. Free T3 is biologically active and mediates the effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissues in addition to exerting negative feedback on the pituitary and hypothalamus. The major binding protein is thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which is synthesized in the liver and binds one molecule of T4 or T3. About 70% of circulating T4 and T3 is bound to TBGl 10% to 15% is bound to another specific thyroid-binding protein called transthyretin (TTR). Albumin binds 15% to 20%, and 3% to lipoproteins. Ordinarily only alterations in TBG concentration significantly affect total plasma T4 and T3 levels.
Two important biological functions have been ascribed to TBG. First, it maintains a large circulating reservoir of T4 that buffers any acute changes in thyroid gland function. Second, binding of plasma T4 and T3 to proteins prevents loss of these relatively small hormone molecules in urine and thereby helps conserve iodide. TTR transports T4 in CSF and provides thyroid hormones to the CNS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 192
Incorrect
-
An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old man (75 kg). For perioperative and postoperative analgesia, you decide to perform an inguinal field block.
Which of the following local anaesthetic solutions is the most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30 mL bupivacaine 0.5%
Explanation:Perioperative and postoperative analgesia can both be provided by an inguinal hernia field block. The Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves, as well as the skin, superficial fascia, and deeper structures, must be blocked for maximum effectiveness. The local anaesthetic should ideally have a long duration of action, be highly concentrated, and have a volume of at least 30 mL.
Plain bupivacaine has a maximum safe dose of 2 mg/kg body weight.
Because the patient weighs 75 kg, 150 mg bupivacaine can be safely administered. Both 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) and 60 mL 0.25 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) are acceptable doses, but 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine represents the optimal volume and strength, potentially providing a denser and longer block.
The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine has been estimated to be between 3.5 and 5 mg/kg. The patient weighs 75 kg and can receive a maximum of 375 mg using the higher dosage regimen:
There are 200 mg of lidocaine in 10 mL of 2% lidocaine (and therefore 11 mL contains 220 mg)
200 mg of lidocaine is contained in 20 mL of 1% lidocaine.While alternatives are available, Although the doses of 11 mL lidocaine 2% and 20 mL lidocaine 1% are well within the dose limit, the volumes used are insufficient for effective field block for this surgery.
With 1 in 200,000 epinephrine, the maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 7 mg/kg. The patient can be given 525 mg in this case. Even with epinephrine, 60 mL of 1% lidocaine is 600 mg, which could be considered an overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 193
Incorrect
-
The thebesian veins contribute to the venous drainage of the heart. Into which of the following structures do they primarily drain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrium
Explanation:The heart has two venous drainage systems:
1. Greater venous system – it parallels the coronary arterial circulation and provides 70% venous drainage to the heart
2. Lesser venous system – includes the thebasian veins and provides up to 30% of the venous drainage to the heartThebasian veins (also called venae cordis minimae) are the smallest coronary veins and run in the myocardial layer of the heart. They serve to drain the myocardium and are present in all four heart chambers. They are more abundant on the right side of the heart and, more specifically, are most abundant in the right atrium. Thebesian veins drain the subendocardial myocardium either directly, via connecting intramural arteries and veins, or indirectly, via subendocardial sinusoidal spaces.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 194
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements about calcium channel antagonists are incorrect except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May cause potentiation of muscle relaxants
Explanation:Calcium channel blocker (CCB) blocks L-type of voltage-gated calcium channels present in blood vessels and the heart. By inhibiting the calcium channels, these agents decrease the frequency of opening of calcium channels activity of the heart, decrease heart rate, AV conduction, and contractility.
Three groups of CCBs include
1) Phenylalkylamines: Verapamil, Norverapamil
2) Benzothiazepines : Diltiazem
3) Dihydropyridine : Nifedipine, Nicardipine, Nimodipine, Nislodipine, Nitrendipine, Isradipine, Lacidipine, Felodipine and Amlodipine.Even though verapamil as good absorption from GIT, its oral bioavailability is low due to high first-pass metabolism.
Nimodipine is a Cerebro-selective CCB, used to reverse the compensatory vasoconstriction after sub-arachnoid haemorrhage and is more lipid soluble analogue of nifedipine
Calcium channel antagonist can potentiate the effect of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 195
Incorrect
-
Regarding the carbon dioxide monitoring, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbon dioxide absorbs infrared radiation at 4.28 µm
Explanation:Carbon dioxide (CO2), is a carbonic gas made up of two dissimilar atoms, namely one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms. Capnography is a technique used to measure carbon dioxide during a respiratory cycle, and it consists in calculating the concentration of the partial pressure of CO2, through the absorption of the infrared light, namely that CO2 absorbs infrared radiation at a wavelength of 4.28 µm.
End-tidal CO2 (ETCO2), referring to the level of the carbon dioxide released at the end of an exhaled breath, is required to be continuously monitored, especially in ventilated patients, as it is a sensitive and a non invasive technique that provides immediate information about ventilation, circulation, and metabolism functions. ETCO2 is normally lower than the arterial partial pressure and varies between 0.6 and 0.7 kPa.
There are two methods used to measure carbon dioxide. The sidestream capnometer method samples gases at a set flow rate (150-200 mL/min) from a sampling area through small diameter tubing, and the mainstream analyser method that uses a direct measurement of the patient exhaled CO2 by a relatively large and heavy sensors. Sidestram method allows the analysis of multiple gases and anaesthetic vapours comparing to the mainstream method that does not allow the measurement of other gases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 196
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus colonises the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus colonizes the nasopharynx in >20% of the general population.
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to flucloxacillin.
Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
All ?-lactam antibiotics like penicillin interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 197
Incorrect
-
From the following statements, which is true of humidification?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasonic humidifier can achieve greater than 100% relative humidity
Explanation:Increasing temperature increases the amount of water vapour contained in air; for example, at 20°C, air contains about 17 g/m3, and at 37°C, air contains about 44 g/m3. The wet and dry bulb hygrometer, like the hair hygrometer, measures relative humidity.
Under normal operating conditions, Heat and moisture exchangers (HMEs) allows relative humidity of up to 70% to be achieved. Mucus can impair their performance, and they should not be used for longer than 24 hours.
Hot water bath humidifiers might cause scalding, condensed water in the tubing can interfere with gas flow, and there is a danger of infection.
The ultrasonic humidifier operates at roughly 2 MHz and may attain relative humidity levels much above 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 198
Incorrect
-
Following a lumbar epidural for foot surgery, a patient has residual weakness on hip flexion but normal knee flexion/extension.
Which nerve roots are most likely implicated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L1/2/3
Explanation:Iliacus, and Psoas major are the most important muscles that produce flexion at the hip.
They are collectively called the iliopsoas muscle. The iliacus muscle originates from the ilium while the psoas major muscle takes its origin from the lumbar vertebrae and sacrum. Their insertion is the lesser trochanter of the femur. They work together to produce flexion and external rotation of the hip. The nerve supply is from branches of the lumbar plexus (L1, 2, 3) femoral nerve (L2, 3, 4) and short direct muscular branches (T12, L1, L2, L3 and L4).
Sartorius, Rectus femoris, Tensor fasciae latae, and Pectineus muscles are two-joint muscles acting at the knee and having less influence on hip flexion:
Rectus femoris and sartorius are involved in extension of the knee. They are supplied by branches of the femoral nerve.
Myotomes associated with key movement of the lower limb are:
L1/L2 – Hip flexion
L2/L3/L4 – Hip adduction, quadriceps (knee extension)
L4/L5 – Hip abduction
L5 – Great toe dorsiflexion.Since knee extension is not affected, L2, L3 and L4 are still intact.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 199
Incorrect
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Which among the following is summed up by F statistic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ANOVA
Explanation:ANOVA is based upon within group variance (i.e. the variance of the mean of a sample) and between group variance (i.e. the variance between means of different samples). The test works by finding out the ratio of the two variances mentioned above. (Commonly known as F statistic).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A 40-year old female comes to the GP's office with unexplained weight gain, cold intolerance and fatigue. Her thyroid function tests are performed as there is a suspicion of hypothyroidism. A negative feedback mechanism is incorporated in the control of thyroid hormone release. All of choices below are also controlled by a negative feedback loop except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clotting cascade
Explanation:The correct answer is the clotting cascade, which occurs via a positive feedback mechanism. As clotting factors are attracted to a site, their presence attracts further clotting factors. This continues until a functioning clot is formed.
This patient has presented with symptoms of hypothyroidism and symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, dry skin, coarse hair and constipation. It can be treated by replacing the missing thyroid hormone with levothyroxine which is a synthetic version of thyroxine (T4).
Serum carbon dioxide (CO2) is controlled via a negative feedback mechanism as well. Chemoreceptors can detect when the serum CO2 is high, and send an impulse to the respiratory centre of the brain to increase the respiratory rate. As a result, more CO2 is exhaled which lowers the serum concentration.
Cortisol is also released according to a negative feedback mechanism. Cortisol acts on both the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary. Its action serve to decrease the formation of corticotrophin releasing hormone (CRH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), respectively. CRH acts on the anterior pituitary to release ACTH. This then acts on the adrenal gland to cause the release of cortisol. Thus, inhibition of CRH and ACTH formation results in high levels of cortisol which inhibit its further release.
Blood pressure (BP) is controlled via a negative feedback mechanism. Low BP results in renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) activation. This leads to vasoconstriction and retention of salt and water which increased BP.
Blood sugar is controlled via a negative feedback mechanism. A rise in blood sugar causes insulin to be released. Insulin acts to transport glucose into the cell which lowers blood sugar. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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