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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an accepted approach to parenting?
Your Answer: Uninvolved
Correct Answer: Dictatorial
Explanation:Parenting Styles
In the 1960s, psychologist Diana Baumrind conducted a study on over 100 preschool-age children and identified four important dimensions of parenting: disciplinary strategies, warmth and nurturance, communication styles, and expectations of maturity and control. Based on these dimensions, she suggested that most parents fall into one of three parenting styles, with a fourth category added later by Maccoby and Martin.
Authoritarian parenting is characterized by strict rules and punishment for noncompliance, with little explanation given for the rules. These parents prioritize status and obedience over nurturing their children. This style tends to result in obedient and proficient children, but they may rank lower in happiness, social competence, and self-esteem.
Authoritative parents are similar to authoritarian parents, but they tend to be more responsive to their children. They set strict rules but provide explanations for them and nurture their children when they fail to meet expectations. The focus is on setting standards while also being supportive. This style tends to result in happy, capable, and successful children.
Permissive parents rarely discipline their children and avoid confrontation, allowing their children to self-regulate. They prefer to take on the role of a friend rather than a disciplinarian. This style often results in children who rank low in happiness and self-regulation, experience problems with authority, and perform poorly in school.
Uninvolved parenting is characterized by little involvement and few demands. This style ranks lowest across all life domains, with children lacking self-control, having low self-esteem, and being less competent than their peers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You receive a call from a fellow physician who is worried she might be experiencing panic disorder. What symptom is most indicative of this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gradual onset of attacks
Correct Answer: Episodic anxiety
Explanation:Panic disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by sudden and intense episodes of anxiety that often occur without warning. Physical symptoms such as palpitations and dizziness are common during these episodes. Fear of collapsing of dying is a common psychological symptom associated with this disorder. Free-floating anxiety is a feature of generalized anxiety disorder, while situational anxiety is more characteristic of specific phobic anxiety. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10) classifies panic disorder as F41.0, also known as episodic paroxysmal anxiety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Diagnosis
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Question 3
Incorrect
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How can you differentiate between an obsession and a compulsion?
Your Answer: Checking things repeatedly
Correct Answer: Repeatedly imagining violent scenes
Explanation:The question implies that obsessions are characterized by urges, images, of thoughts, while compulsions involve acts, either motor of mental. However, it is important to note that in order to be classified as an obsession of compulsion according to DSM-5 and ICD-11 criteria, the behavior must be time-consuming (taking more than 1 hour per day) of cause significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by the presence of either obsessions or compulsions, and often both. Obsessions are repetitive and persistent thoughts, images, of impulses that are intrusive and unwanted, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors of rituals that an individual feels driven to perform in response to an obsession of according to rigid rules. The symptoms can cause significant functional impairment and/of distress. To diagnose OCD, the essential features include the presence of persistent obsessions and/of compulsions that are time-consuming of result in significant distress of impairment in important areas of functioning. The symptoms cannot be attributed to another medical condition of the effects of a substance of medication on the central nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 4
Correct
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You are evaluating a child whom you suspect may have a diagnosis of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). You determine that using an assessment tool would be helpful in confirming your diagnosis.
Which of the following assessment tools would be most advantageous for your evaluation?Your Answer: Millon clinical multiaxial inventory
Explanation:The Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory-III (MCMI-III) is a self-report questionnaire that can be utilized to evaluate personality disorders. It is designed to provide information on a patient’s personality traits, clinical syndromes, and overall psychological functioning.
The Cambridge Neuropsychological Test Automated Battery (CANTAB) is a computer-based cognitive assessment system that measures various cognitive functions such as attention, memory, and executive function. It is commonly used in research and clinical settings to assess cognitive impairment in patients with neurological disorders.
The Hayling-Brixton tests are neuropsychological tests that evaluate executive function, specifically response inhibition and initiation. These tests are often used to assess patients with brain injuries of neurological disorders.
The Luria-Nebraska Battery is a comprehensive neuropsychological battery that assesses various functions such as motor skills, memory, rhythm, reading, and writing. It is commonly used to evaluate patients with brain injuries of neurological disorders.
The Stanford-Binet test is an intelligence test that measures cognitive abilities such as verbal and nonverbal reasoning, spatial perception, and quantitative reasoning. It is commonly used in educational and clinical settings to assess intellectual functioning.
For further reading on these assessments, additional information can be found through Pearson, the publisher of the MCMI-III.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 5
Correct
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A 42 year old man with depression and reduced sexual desire has been referred to our clinic. Following a thorough discussion of his symptoms, he has agreed to a trial of antidepressants. However, he is concerned about potential side effects and specifically requests a medication that is less likely to exacerbate his sexual dysfunction. What antidepressant would you recommend in this case?
Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:To ensure adherence, it is crucial to prescribe medication based on the individual’s needs to prevent sexual issues. Among the options provided, mirtazapine has the least occurrence of sexual dysfunction.
Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male on an acute psychiatric unit was diagnosed with severe depression with psychotic features. He is being treated with oral haloperidol, venlafaxine, mirtazapine, and procyclidine, but his adherence to the medication regimen is inconsistent. He experiences restlessness, sweating, tremors, shivering, myoclonus, and confusion.
What is the probable reason for these symptoms?Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome
Explanation:The symptoms listed are indicative of serotonin syndrome, which is a potential risk when prescribing two antidepressants. If left untreated, serotonin syndrome can lead to seizures and even death. Treatment typically involves supportive measures such as benzodiazepines and IV access, as well as serotonin receptor antagonists like cyproheptadine. Anticholinergic syndrome, on the other hand, presents with symptoms such as fever, dry skin and mucous membranes, mydriasis, and hyperthermia. Antidepressant discontinuation syndrome can cause a range of neurological, gastrointestinal, and affective symptoms. Idiopathic parkinsonism is characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia, while neuroleptic malignant syndrome presents with symptoms such as hyperthermia, rigidity, confusion, tachycardia, and elevated CK and WCC levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which hypnosis demonstration in 1886 piqued the curiosity of Sigmund Freud about psychological therapy?
Your Answer: Charcot
Explanation:Hypnosis and its origins
Jean-Marie Charcot, a renowned French neurologist, was known for his captivating personality. In 1886, Freud witnessed Charcot’s demonstration of hypnosis in Paris, which sparked his interest in the field. Initially, Freud experimented with hypnosis in his practice before developing his own psychoanalytic therapy. The term ‘hypnosis’ was coined by James Braid in 1841. However, it is important to note that hypnosis is different from Franz Mesmer’s theory of ‘animal magnetism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Salty taste is triggered by:
Your Answer: hyperpolarization-activated cyclic nucleotide gated cation channel.
Correct Answer: Amiloride-sensitive sodium channel
Explanation:Amiloride-sensitive sodium channels also known as epithelial Na channels is a membrane bound ion channel that is selectively permeable to Na+ ions. These channels are located throughout different epithelial membranes in the body. It is found in taste receptor cells, where it plays an important role in salt taste perception. They are also located in the kidney, the lung and the colon. Hyperpolarization-activated, cyclic nucleotide-gated (HCN) voltage-gated ion channels are widely seen in the cortex, hippocampus, thalamus and brain regions that underlie the generation of both focal and generalized-onset seizures. The metabotropic glutamate receptor (mGluRs) perform a variety of functions in the central and peripheral nervous systems. They are involved in learning, memory, anxiety, and the perception of pain. Gustducin is a G protein associated with taste and gustatory system. It plays a major role in sensation of bitter, sweet and umami stimuli.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the term coined by Robert Rosenthal that refers to the bias that can result from the non-publication of a few studies with negative of inconclusive results, leading to a significant impact on research in a specific field?
Your Answer: Publication bias
Correct Answer: File drawer problem
Explanation:Publication bias refers to the tendency of researchers, editors, and pharmaceutical companies to favor the publication of studies with positive results over those with negative of inconclusive results. This bias can have various causes and can result in a skewed representation of the literature. The file drawer problem refers to the phenomenon of unpublished negative studies. HARKing, of hypothesizing after the results are known, is a form of outcome reporting bias where outcomes are selectively reported based on the strength and direction of observed associations. Begg’s funnel plot is an analytical tool used to quantify the presence of publication bias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What are some common symptoms that are typically observed in the initial phases of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Ventricular enlargement
Correct Answer: Hippocampal atrophy
Explanation:The medial temporal lobe, comprising the hippocampus and parahippocampal gyrus, exhibits the earliest neuropathological alterations.
Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions does not exhibit a vertical transmission pattern?
Your Answer: Huntington's
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Autosomal dominant conditions exhibit vertical transmission, except for cystic fibrosis, which is a widely recognized autosomal recessive condition.
Modes of Inheritance
Genetic disorders can be passed down from one generation to the next in various ways. There are four main modes of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked (sex-linked), and multifactorial.
Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when one faulty gene causes a problem despite the presence of a normal one. This type of inheritance shows vertical transmission, meaning it is based on the appearance of the family pedigree. If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance of each child expressing the condition. Autosomal dominant conditions often show pleiotropy, where a single gene influences several characteristics.
Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
In autosomal recessive conditions, a person requires two faulty copies of a gene to manifest a disease. A person with one healthy and one faulty gene will generally not manifest a disease and is labelled a carrier. Autosomal recessive conditions demonstrate horizontal transmission.
X-linked (Sex-linked) Inheritance
In X-linked conditions, the problem gene lies on the X chromosome. This means that all males are affected. Like autosomal conditions, they can be dominant of recessive. Affected males are unable to pass the condition on to their sons. In X-linked recessive conditions, the inheritance pattern is characterised by transmission from affected males to male grandchildren via affected carrier daughters.
Multifactorial Inheritance
Multifactorial conditions result from the interaction between genes from both parents and the environment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the center of the cell?
Your Answer: Telophase
Correct Answer: Metaphase
Explanation:Cytokinesis: The Final Stage of Cell Division
Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cell splits into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus. This process is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms. In mitosis, cytokinesis occurs after telophase, while in meiosis, it occurs after telophase I and telophase II.
During cytokinesis, a contractile ring made of actin and myosin filaments forms around the cell’s equator, constricting it like a belt. This ring gradually tightens, pulling the cell membrane inward and creating a furrow that deepens until it reaches the center of the cell. Eventually, the furrow meets in the middle, dividing the cell into two daughter cells.
In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of a cleavage furrow, while in plant cells, a cell plate forms between the two daughter nuclei, which eventually develops into a new cell wall. The timing and mechanism of cytokinesis are tightly regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the correct amount of cytoplasm and organelles.
Overall, cytokinesis is a crucial step in the cell cycle, ensuring that genetic material is equally distributed between daughter cells and allowing for the growth and development of multicellular organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Who was the first person to use the term 'learning disability'?
Your Answer: Watts
Correct Answer: Kirk
Explanation:Historical Terminology and Figures in Psychiatry
Paragraph 1: The term ‘learning disability’ was first used by Samuel Kirk in 1963 during a conference in Chicago. It is important for trainees to understand the history of terminology in psychiatry, including phrases like mental handicap, retardation, and intellectual disability, as they are associated with attitudes and concepts that have shaped care styles over the last century.
Paragraph 2: James Watts was a prominent practitioner and advocate of psychosurgery, a controversial treatment that involved surgical intervention in the brain to treat mental illness. His work has had a lasting impact on the field of psychiatry.
Paragraph 3: Wilhelm Griesinger, a German psychiatrist, is credited with describing ‘primary insanity’ (primäre verrücktheit), a term used to describe mental illness that arises without any apparent physical cause.
Paragraph 4: Johann Christian Reil, another German psychiatrist, is known for coining the term ‘psychiatry’ in the late 18th century. His work helped to establish psychiatry as a distinct field of medicine.
Paragraph 5: Charles Perry, an English physician, published ‘A mechanical account and explication of the hysterical passion’ in the 17th century. This work helped to shape early understandings of hysteria, a condition that was once believed to be caused by a ‘wandering womb’ in women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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An individual's ability to make decisions regarding their medical care is associated with which of the following ethical principles?
Your Answer: Autonomy
Explanation:The four moral principles are a useful tool in clinical practice. For instance, if a patient arrives in critical condition after a car accident and is unable to provide informed consent, the principle of beneficence requires healthcare professionals to prioritize treatment for the patient. The principle of justice may also be considered if there are many patients in need of care of if the treatment is expensive of scarce, potentially depriving others of medical attention. Non-maleficence is relevant if the treatment is likely to cause more harm than good. Respect for autonomy is important if the patient has previously expressed a desire to decline treatment in such circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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Question 15
Correct
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The thalamic nuclei that project over wide regions of the neocortex are:
Your Answer: Specific relay nuclei
Explanation:The thalamus is considered the relay station for sensory and motor stimuli. There are three basic types of thalamic nuclei: relay nuclei, association nuclei and non-specific nuclei. Relay nuclei receive very well defined inputs and project this signal to functionally distinct areas of the cerebral cortex. These include the nuclei that relay primary sensations and also the nuclei involved in feedback of cerebellar signals and basal gangliar output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 16
Correct
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At what stage of cognitive development, as per Jean Piaget, do children exhibit egocentric behavior?
Your Answer: Preoperational stage
Explanation:Piaget’s theory of cognitive development highlights that Preoperational children are egocentric, meaning they view the world solely from their own perspective and cannot comprehend that others may have different viewpoints. Piaget believed that cognitive development is a result of the interplay between innate abilities and environmental factors, and progresses through four distinct stages: the sensorimotor stage, Preoperational stage, concrete operational stage, and formal operational stage. While Piaget’s theory has greatly contributed to our understanding of cognitive development, it has also faced criticism over time. Other notable theories in this field include Vygotsky’s theory, Bruner’s theory, and the information-processing approach. Vygotsky’s theory, for instance, examines human development across three levels: cultural, interpersonal, and individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 17
Correct
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Which antihistamine is most likely to cause delirium in an elderly patient?
Your Answer: Promethazine
Explanation:Delirium is more likely to occur with first generation H1 antihistamines.
Risk Factors for Delirium
Delirium is a common condition that affects many elderly individuals. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing delirium. These risk factors include age, cognitive impairment, severe medical illness, previous history of delirium of neurological disease, psychoactive drug use, polypharmacy, and anticholinergic drug use.
Medications are the most common reversible cause of delirium and dementia in the elderly. Certain classes of drugs, such as opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticholinergics, are strongly associated with the development of drug-induced dementia. Long-acting benzodiazepines are more troublesome than shorter-acting ones. Opioids are associated with an approximately 2-fold increased risk of delirium in medical and surgical patients. Pethidine, a member of the opioid class, appears to have a higher risk of delirium compared with other opioids due to its accumulation in individuals with impaired renal function and conversion to a metabolite with anticholinergic properties.
Overall, it is important to be aware of these risk factors and to carefully monitor medication use in elderly individuals to prevent the development of delirium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A child with a learning disability is observed to have prominent ears and a stretched-out face. They seem extremely timid and exhibit minimal eye contact. What trinucleotide repeats do you anticipate?
Your Answer: CAG
Correct Answer: CGG
Explanation:Fragile X is a genetic syndrome that results in mental retardation, an elongated face, large protruding ears, and enlarged testicles (in males). Individuals with this syndrome tend to be shy, have difficulty making eye contact, and struggle with reading facial expressions. They may also exhibit stereotypic movements such as hand flapping. The cause of fragile X is a mutation in the FMR1 gene, which is crucial for neural development and functioning. This gene is located at Xq27, and in individuals with fragile X, there are excessive trinucleotide repeats (CGG) at this gene. Similar to other trinucleotide repeat disorders (such as Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, and spinocerebellar ataxia), the severity of the condition increases with the number of repeats.
Trinucleotide Repeat Disorders: Understanding the Genetic Basis
Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that arise due to the abnormal presence of an expanded sequence of trinucleotide repeats. These disorders are characterized by the phenomenon of anticipation, which refers to the amplification of the number of repeats over successive generations. This leads to an earlier onset and often a more severe form of the disease.
The table below lists the trinucleotide repeat disorders and the specific repeat sequences involved in each condition:
Condition Repeat Sequence Involved
Fragile X Syndrome CGG
Myotonic Dystrophy CTG
Huntington’s Disease CAG
Friedreich’s Ataxia GAA
Spinocerebellar Ataxia CAGThe mutations responsible for trinucleotide repeat disorders are referred to as ‘dynamic’ mutations. This is because the number of repeats can change over time, leading to a range of clinical presentations. Understanding the genetic basis of these disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis, genetic counseling, and the development of effective treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which structure is most likely to show signs of atrophy in a patient with Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: Subthalamic nuclei
Correct Answer: Hippocampus
Explanation:Alzheimer’s disease often results in the shrinkage of the hippocampus, which is a component of the limbic system and is responsible for the formation and retention of long-term memories.
Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A male adolescent patient reports experiencing erectile dysfunction and premature ejaculation after starting antipsychotic medication. Which receptor site is responsible for the antipsychotic effect?
Your Answer: Serotonin
Correct Answer: alpha 1
Explanation:Men may experience difficulties with achieving erections and ejaculation when taking medications that inhibit peripheral alpha 1-adrenoceptors. Antipsychotics can lead to disrupted sexual arousal due to their antimuscarinic effects. Impairment of both desire and arousal may occur as a result of dopaminergic blockade and hyperprolactinaemia. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants, which increase serotonin activity, have been associated with anorgasmia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A client in their 60s presents with insomnia and requires short term night sedation. They have an early morning commute and need to drive to work at 6:30 am. Considering the half-life, what would be the most suitable option?
Your Answer: Zopiclone
Correct Answer: Zolpidem
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.
Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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In his influential theory of psychiatric classification (1953), Lewis emphasized which method of diagnosis?
Your Answer: Socially deviant behaviour
Correct Answer: Disturbance of part functions
Explanation:Lewis’ Views on Mental Illness Diagnosis
Lewis believed that mental illness could be understood by examining the disturbance of part functions of the brain, such as emotion, perception, and memory, as well as a reduction in general efficiency. However, he cautioned against using socially deviant behavior as a means of diagnosis. Instead, he advocated for a multi-axial formulation approach, which was first proposed by Essen-Möller in 1947. Lewis also warned against relying on response to psychotropic medication as a reliable method of diagnosis. Overall, Lewis emphasized the importance of a comprehensive and nuanced approach to diagnosing mental illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is accurate about the historical categorization of autism?
Your Answer: Rutter used the term 'autistic psychopathy' to refer to cases of Asperger Syndrome
Correct Answer: The diagnosis of Asperger disorder first appeared in the DSM-IV
Explanation:Autism: A Brief History
The term autism was first coined in 1911 by Eugen Bleuler to describe individuals with schizophrenia who had cut themselves off as much as possible from any contact with the external world. In 1926, Grunya Sukhareva attempted to delineate autism spectrum disorders as distinct diagnostic entities, referring to them as schizoid personality disorder. However, her work remained largely unknown until 1996.
The first widely publicized use of the term autism to describe a distinct condition was in 1943 by Leo Kanner, who referred to it as autistic disturbance of affective contact. Kanner suggested that autism may be a manifestation of childhood schizophrenia and that it was characterized by an inability to related to themselves in the ordinary way to people and situations from the beginning of life. In 1944, Hans Asperger published descriptions of four cases of a condition he termed der autistichen psychopathie, which he regarded as a limitation of social relationships.
In 1980, infantile autism was included in the DSM-III under a new category of pervasive developmental disorders. Lorna Wing redefined Asperger Syndrome in 1981, proposing a triad of impairments in social interaction, communication, and imaginative activities. In 2000, the DSM-IV utilized the umbrella category of pervasive developmental disorders, with five main subcategories. Finally, in 2013, the DSM-5 combined the subcategories into a single label of autism spectrum disorder, asserting that autism is a single disorder on a wide spectrum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the scale used to determine the presence of psychiatric disorders in a population?
Your Answer: Repertory grid
Correct Answer: GHQ
Explanation:The college is evaluating your comprehension of the term ‘caseness’ through this question. The GHQ is an established instrument used to detect individuals who meet the criteria for ‘caseness’.
Defining ‘Caseness’ in Psychological Rating Scales
When utilizing a psychological rating scale for screening purposes, it is crucial to establish a clear definition of ‘caseness.’ This refers to the threshold at which a respondent of participant is identified as a case, typically represented by a numerical cutoff value. Without a defined caseness, the results of the screening may be ambiguous of inconsistent. Therefore, it is essential to establish a clear operational definition of caseness to ensure accurate and reliable screening outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which receptor type is associated with uterine contracture in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Α2
Correct Answer: Α1
Explanation:Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors cause uterine contraction during pregnancy. They are linked to Gq-proteins that activate smooth muscle contraction through the IP3 signal transduction pathway.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which study utilized the Heinz dilemma to explore the development of children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kohlberg
Explanation:The Heinz dilemma was a scenario used by Kohlberg to explore moral development. It goes as follows: A woman is dying from a rare cancer, and a druggist in the same town has discovered a drug that could save her. However, the druggist is charging ten times the cost of production for the drug. The women’s husband, Heinz, cannot afford the price and asks the druggist to sell it cheaper of let him pay later, but the druggist refuses. In desperation, Heinz breaks into the store to steal the drug for his wife.
The question is whether Heinz should have broken into the store to steal the drug. This dilemma raises ethical questions about the value of human life versus the right to property and profit. Some argue that Heinz was justified in stealing the drug because he was trying to save his wife’s life, and the druggist’s greed was preventing him from doing so. Others argue that stealing is always wrong, regardless of the circumstances, and that Heinz should have found another way to obtain the drug.
Kohlberg used this dilemma to study moral reasoning and development. He believed that people’s responses to moral dilemmas reveal their level of moral reasoning, which progresses through stages of increasing complexity and sophistication. According to Kohlberg, Heinz’s decision to steal the drug would be considered morally justifiable at the higher stages of moral reasoning, where individuals prioritize universal ethical principles over personal gain of social norms.
Overall, the Heinz dilemma highlights the complex nature of moral decision-making and the importance of considering multiple perspectives and ethical principles.
Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development
Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.
The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.
The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.
It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been informed that her mother has frontotemporal dementia with parkinsonism. She is curious about the likelihood of inheriting the same condition. What genetic mutation is linked to this disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MAPT gene mutation
Explanation:Down’s syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, also known as trisomy 21. This genetic condition is characterized by developmental delays, intellectual disability, and distinct physical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the primary constituent of the neurofibrillary tangles observed in Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tau
Explanation:Tau and Tauopathies
Tau proteins are essential for maintaining the stability of microtubules in neurons. Microtubules provide structural support to the cell and facilitate the transport of molecules within the cell. Tau proteins are predominantly found in the axons of neurons and are absent in dendrites. The gene that codes for tau protein is located on chromosome 17.
When tau proteins become hyperphosphorylated, they clump together, forming neurofibrillary tangles. This process leads to the disintegration of cells, which is a hallmark of several neurodegenerative disorders collectively known as tauopathies.
The major tauopathies include Alzheimer’s disease, Pick’s disease (frontotemporal dementia), progressive supranuclear palsy, and corticobasal degeneration. These disorders are characterized by the accumulation of tau protein in the brain, leading to the degeneration of neurons and cognitive decline. Understanding the role of tau proteins in these disorders is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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How can the inheritance pattern of a knight's move be demonstrated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy
Explanation:The only X-linked condition among the 5 options is Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
Modes of Inheritance
Genetic disorders can be passed down from one generation to the next in various ways. There are four main modes of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked (sex-linked), and multifactorial.
Autosomal Dominant Inheritance
Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when one faulty gene causes a problem despite the presence of a normal one. This type of inheritance shows vertical transmission, meaning it is based on the appearance of the family pedigree. If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance of each child expressing the condition. Autosomal dominant conditions often show pleiotropy, where a single gene influences several characteristics.
Autosomal Recessive Inheritance
In autosomal recessive conditions, a person requires two faulty copies of a gene to manifest a disease. A person with one healthy and one faulty gene will generally not manifest a disease and is labelled a carrier. Autosomal recessive conditions demonstrate horizontal transmission.
X-linked (Sex-linked) Inheritance
In X-linked conditions, the problem gene lies on the X chromosome. This means that all males are affected. Like autosomal conditions, they can be dominant of recessive. Affected males are unable to pass the condition on to their sons. In X-linked recessive conditions, the inheritance pattern is characterised by transmission from affected males to male grandchildren via affected carrier daughters.
Multifactorial Inheritance
Multifactorial conditions result from the interaction between genes from both parents and the environment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Increase Gamma motor neuron activity produces what effect on the muscle spindle sensitivity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase
Explanation:The muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is Type Ia fibers whereas motor supply is via gamma motor neurons. These neurons also play a role in adjusting the sensitivity of muscle spindles. Increased neuron activity increases the muscle spindle sensitivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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