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  • Question 1 - A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying...

    Correct

    • A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying for 2.5 years. The semen analysis shows azoospermia. You perform a full examination of the male partner which reveals Height 192cm, BMI 20.5, small testes and scant facial hair. You decide to organise karyotyping. What is the result likely to show?

      Your Answer: 47XXY

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter syndrome is associated with testicular atrophy, eunuchoid body shape, tall, long extremities, female hair distribution and gynaecomastia. It is a common cause of hypogonadism seen during fertility workup.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman, at 26 weeks of gestation, is involved in a car accident while wearing a seatbelt.

      On examination there are visible bruises on the abdomen but patient is otherwise normal. Fetal heart sounds are audible and are within normal parameters and CTG is reassuring.

      Which of the following will be the best next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Admit her and observe for 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Trauma is a major contributor for maternal mortality and is one of the leading causes of pregnancy-associated maternal deaths.

      As a result of maternal hypotension or hypoxemia, placental abruption, uterine rupture or fetal trauma a maternal trauma can compromise the fetus also.
      Patient’s bruises on the abdomen which are seatbelt marks, are indications that this woman has positioned the seat belt incorrectly over the uterus. So there is a good chance that the uterus and its contents, including the fetus, has been affected by the impact. In a pregnant woman, the correct position of seat belt is when the lap belt is placed on the hip below uterus and the sash is placed between breasts and above the uterus.

      A minimum of 24-hour period monitoring is recommended for all pregnant women, apart from the routine trauma workup indicated in non-pregnant women, in case they have sustained trauma in the presence of any of the following:
      – Regular uterine contractions
      – Vaginal bleeding
      – A non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing
      – Abdominal/uterine pain
      – Significant trauma to the abdomen

      Considering the bruises over her abdomen this patient should be considered as having significant abdominal trauma and must be kept under observation for a minimum of 24 hours. Such patients should not be discharged unless the clinician makes sure they do not have any complications like abruption or preterm labor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      360.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - During a speculum examination, a lady was found to have a firm, 12mm...

    Incorrect

    • During a speculum examination, a lady was found to have a firm, 12mm ulcerated, indurated lesion on her cervix. She was otherwise asymptomatic. Most likely cause would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Explanation:

      This lady is most likely suffering from primary syphilis. Since the chancre is asymptomatic, it is often only found on deep examination of the vulvo-vaginal mucosa. The chief organism causing syphilis is Treponema Pallidum which is a spirochete and one of the most widely distributed sexually transmitted infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary gland, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HCG

      Explanation:

      The following hormones are excreted from the anterior pituitary gland: TSH, GN, ACTH, LH, FSH, MSH, PRL.
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG, or human chorionic gonadotrophin) is a placental hormone secreted by syncitiotrophoblasts during the second week of gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial depolarisation

      Explanation:

      In an ECG the P wave represents atrial depolarization. The QRS complex represents the ventricular depolarization, T waves represent ventricular repolarization and the U wave represents repolarization of the interventricular septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
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  • Question 6 - Galactopoiesis is maintained by which hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Galactopoiesis is maintained by which hormone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The production of milk is regulated by the hormone Prolactin. Oxytocin on the other hand is responsible for the let down reflex that occurs during breast feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 7 - What is the most common cause of premature menopause in the UK? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cause of premature menopause in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause is most commonly idiopathic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - The sacroiliac joint is what type of joint? ...

    Incorrect

    • The sacroiliac joint is what type of joint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synovial

      Explanation:

      The SIJ is a synovial joint. The Pubic Symphysis is a Secondary Cartilaginous

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 9 - What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the anterior boundary of the pelvic outlet?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pubic arch

      Explanation:

      The pelvic outlet is bounded anteriorly by the inferior border of the pubic arch, posteriorly by the sacrotuberous ligament and the tip of the coccyx and laterally by the ischial tuberosities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The expected date of delivery of a human pregnancy can be calculated as:...

    Incorrect

    • The expected date of delivery of a human pregnancy can be calculated as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40 weeks after last menstrual period

      Explanation:

      Expected date of delivery/estimated due date (EDD) is a calculated date (i.e., an estimation), determined by counting forward 280 days (40 weeks) from the first day of the woman’s last menstrual period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
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  • Question 11 - Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contraction via which of the following messenger pathways? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oxytocin causes increased myometrial contraction via which of the following messenger pathways?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activates phospholipase-C which produces IP3 which triggers intracellular Calcium ion release

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin acts via the G protein receptors and the calcium-calmodulin complex. It activates phospholipase C which produces IP3 to further trigger the calcium-calmodulin complex increasing intracellular Ca ion release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - There are increasing rates of pregnancies among teenagers especially in low socioeconomic rural...

    Incorrect

    • There are increasing rates of pregnancies among teenagers especially in low socioeconomic rural areas.

      What is the contraception method of choice for teenagers with high risk of unplanned pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine Contraceptive Device

      Explanation:

      The use of long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) is globally accepted as a strategy that is successful in decreasing rates of unintended pregnancy, especially in very young women.
      Long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs) are defined as any contraceptive that requires administration less than once per cycle (i.e. per month). This includes copper and progestogen-only intrauterine devices (IUDs), and progestogen subdermal implants and injections. However, subdermal implants and IUDs, which have a life of at least three years, have superior efficacy over injections, which require administration every three months. Implants and IUDs are highly cost-effective when compared with other contraceptive methods.

      LARCs are widely recommended by professional bodies and the World Health Organization (WHO) as first-line contraception for young women as they are safe, effective and reversible. Young women should be offered the choice of a LARC as part of a fully informed decision for their first form of contraception.

      LARCs surpass barrier methods and contraceptive pills in effectiveness and safety therefore all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      G0 is a resting phase. Interphase (G1,S,G2) is where the cell grows and DNA replication occurs forming chromatids. Mitosis is where cell division occurs and this happens in a the following phases: Prophase Chromatin condenses to chromosomes (paired as chromatids). Mitotic spindle forms Metaphase Chromatids align at the equatorial plane AKA the metaphase plate Anaphase Chromatids pulled apart into 2 constituent daughter chromosomes Telophase New nuclear envelopes form around each daughter chromosome Cytokinesis Cells divide Diagram illustrating Mitosis Image sourced from Wikipedia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
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  • Question 14 - A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient who is currently 24 weeks pregnant presents with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in Pregnancy: Erythromycin 500mg four times a day for 7 days or Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days or Amoxicillin 500 mg three times a day for 7 days or Azithromycin 1 gm stat (only if no alternative, safety in pregnancy not fully assessed) The following treatment regimes are recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia in NON-PREGNANT patients: Doxycycline 100mg bd for 7 days OR Azithromycin 1gm orally in a single dose NOTE: Doxycycline and Ofloxacin are contraindicated in pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 15 - All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery,...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following anatomical features of the pelvis favour a vaginal delivery, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obstetric conjugate is less than 10 cm

      Explanation:

      For the foetus to pass through the vagina, the obstetric conjugate should be 11cm or greater. If the diameter is less than 10 cm then its better to perform C-section as the labour might not progress. All the other options favour a normal vaginal delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 16 - Among the following which is incorrect regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following which is incorrect regarding hypothyroidism in pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroxine requirement does not increase in pregnancy and maintenance dose must be continued

      Explanation:

      Thyroxine requirement during pregnancy will increases by 25 to 30 percent, which is seen as early as fifth week of pregnancy.

      Children born to those women whose hypothyroidism was inadequately treated during pregnancy, are at higher risk for developing neuropsychiatric impairments.

      When a woman who is on thyroxine is planning to conceive, they are advised to increase their thyroxine dose by 30 percent at the time of confirmation of pregnancy.

      During pregnancy TSH also should be monitored at every 8 to 10 weeks, with necessary dose adjustments.

      Dose requirements of thyroxine will return to pre-pregnancy level soon after delivery and it will not change according to whether the mother is breastfeeding or not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 17 - A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and has no relatives who have been diagnosed with breast cancer or heart disease.

      Her weight is 90 kg, her height is 167 cm, her BMI is 32 kg/m2, and her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, as recorded on two occasions. She also suffers from hirsutism. she was diagnosed with PCOS.

      What are your plans for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis. A woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovaries (as opposed to PCOS) if she has 20 or more follicles in at least 1 ovary. The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
      Hirsutism
      Infertility
      Obesity and metabolic syndrome
      Diabetes
      Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Drugs used in the treatment of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) include metformin (off-label use), spironolactone, eflornithine (topical cream to treat hirsutism), and oral contraceptives. Oral contraceptives containing a combination of oestrogen and progestin increase sex hormone–binding globulin (SHBG) levels and thereby reduce the free testosterone level. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are also suppressed. This restores cyclic exposure of the endometrium to oestrogen-progestin, with the resumption of menstrual periods and decreased hirsutism.

      Drug of choice for treatment of PCOS are COCs, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm.

      Which is the best contraceptive for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A barrier method of contraception.

      Explanation:

      OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.

      When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation presented to the emergency department due to breech presentation which was confirmed on ultrasound. There is also a failed external cephalic version.

      Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elective caesarean delivery at 38 weeks of gestation

      Explanation:

      Breech presentation refers to the foetus in the longitudinal lie with the buttocks or lower extremity entering the pelvis first.

      The current recommendation for the breech presentation at term includes offering external cephalic version (ECV) to those patients that meet criteria, and for those whom are not candidates or decline external cephalic version, a planned caesarean section for delivery sometime after 39 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 20 - A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with her second child. She is worried about infections in this pregnancy as her daughter was born with a 'blueberry muffin rash' and was soon found to have sensorineural deafness due to an infection. Which of the following infections is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      Congenital infections can be the cause of various congenital abnormalities. Infection with the Rubella virus, part of the TORCH infections (toxoplasmosis, other organisms, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex), can lead to cardiac abnormalities, ophthalmic defects, sensorineural deafness and neurodevelopmental delays. At birth congenital rubella syndrome presents with a petechial rash characteristically dubbed a blueberry muffin rash, and hepatosplenomegaly with jaundice. Immunization of the mother against measles is an effective way of reducing the occurrence of congenital rubella syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 21 - Regarding congenital CMV infection, what percentage of infants are symptomatic? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding congenital CMV infection, what percentage of infants are symptomatic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-15%

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus infections are the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss in babies. Cytomegalovirus infection during the perinatal period can be transferred to the foetus especially if the primary infection is during pregnancy. In babies born with congenital CMV about 10-15% are symptomatic, while 10-15% of those who are asymptomatic will develop symptoms in life. Some of the features of CMV infection include sensorineural hearing loss, visual impairment, cerebral palsy, microcephaly and seizures. Other causes of infective congenital sensorineural hearing loss include: Rubella, HIV, Herpes Simplex Virus, Measles, Varicella Zoster virus, Mumps and West Nile Virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 22 - A 26-year-old G2P0+1 comes to the emergency department with vaginal spotting. She experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old G2P0+1 comes to the emergency department with vaginal spotting. She experienced periodic stomach pain related with the bleeding, but no fetal product passing, about 6 hours before presentation. She is now in the first trimester of her pregnancy and claims that her previous pregnancy was uneventful. She takes her prenatal vitamins regularly and does not use any other prescriptions or drugs.

      Her vital signs are normal, and her physical examination reveals that she has a closed cervical os. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Threatened abortion

      Explanation:

      Threatened abortion consists of any vaginal bleeding during early pregnancy without cervical dilatation or change in cervical consistency. Usually, no significant pain exists, although mild cramps may occur. More severe cramps may lead to an inevitable abortion.

      Threatened abortion is very common in the first trimester; about 25-30% of all pregnancies have some bleeding during the pregnancy. Less than one half proceed to a complete abortion. On examination, blood or brownish discharge may be present in the vagina. The cervix is not tender, and the cervical os is closed. No fetal tissue or membranes have passed. The ultrasound shows a continuing intrauterine pregnancy. If an ultrasound was not performed previously, it is required at this time to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, which could present similarly. If the uterine cavity is empty on ultrasound, obtaining a human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level is necessary to determine if the discriminatory zone has been passed.

      Placenta previa is an antenatal complication occurring around the third trimester of pregnancy. The cervix is closed in this condition which rules out inevitable abortion and the patient has no history of passage of tissue, this rules out complete abortion. The patient has no history of fever or offensive vaginal discharge which makes septic abortion unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 34 year old patient who has just undergone a C-section delivery has...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old patient who has just undergone a C-section delivery has lost almost 1 litre of blood. You suspect uterine atony as the likely cause, and have bimanually compressed the uterus. Which of the following pharmacological interventions should follow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Syntocin 5u by slow intravenous injection

      Explanation:

      In the management of postpartum haemorrhage, it is essential that the bleeding is first mechanically prevented, followed by the administration of oxytocic drugs, which cause the uterine smooth muscle to contract and clamping off bleeding sites in the endometrium. The drug of choice in the treatment protocol of PPH is 5 units of syntocin, a synthetic oxytocin uterotonic, by slow intravenous infusion. This is particularly suitable in the case of uterine atony. Other uterotonics, misoprostol, carboprost, ergometrine, can be used, but are not as effective in an emergency setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 24 - A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to the hands and soles of the feet. Examination reveals wart like lesions on the vagina and a diagnosis of condyloma latum is made. What stage of syphilis infection is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary

      Explanation:

      Condylomas are warty neoplasms of the vulvar area. The most common type are condyloma acuminatum which occur due to HPV 6 or 11. Condyloma latum are also known as secondary syphilis are less common. Both of these are sexually transmitted.

      Stages of Syphilis:
      – Primary 3-90 days
      Chancre and lymphadenopathy
      – Secondary 4-10 weeks
      Widespread rash typically affecting hands and soles of feet.
      Wart lesions (condyloma latum) of mucus membranes
      – Latent Early <1 yr. after secondary stage
      – Late >2 yr. after secondary stage
      Asymptomatic
      – Tertiary 3+ years after primary infection
      Gummas or
      Neurosyphilis or
      Cardiovascular syphilis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 25 - Which statement given below is correct regarding the management of deep venous thrombosis...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement given below is correct regarding the management of deep venous thrombosis during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin therapy is contraindicated throughout pregnancy but safe during breast feeding

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy is considered as a hypercoagulable state with an increased risk for the development of conditions like deep venous thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). Among these two PE is the considered the most significant cause for maternal death in Australia.
      A pregnant women with venous thromboembolism should be treated with heparin as warfarin is contraindicated. Warfarin should be avoided throughout pregnancy and especially during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy as it crosses the placenta. Intake of warfarin at 6-12 weeks of pregnancy can results in fetal warfarin syndrome which is characterised by:
      – A characteristic nasal hypoplasia
      – Short fingers with hypoplastic nails
      – Calcified epiphyses, namely chondrodysplasia punctuta which is evident by stippling of epiphyses on X-ray.
      – Intellectual disability
      – Low birth weight
      Recent studies show that the risk of fetal warfarin syndrome is around 5 % more in babies of women who require warfarin throughout pregnancy and the risk is always dose dependent.
      Later exposure to warfarin, as in after 12 weeks, is mostly associated with central nervous system anomalies like microcephaly, hydrocephalus, agenesis of corpus callosum, Dandy-Walker malformation which is characterised by complete absence of cerebellar vermis along with enlarged fourth ventricle and mental retardation. Eye anomalies such as optic atrophy, microphthalmia, and Peter anomaly which is the dysgenesis of the anterior segment are also found in association. Newborns exposed to warfarin in all three trimesters are prone to present with blindness. Other complications found in neonates exposed to warfarin are perinatal intracranial hemorrhage and other major bleeding episodes.

      Warfarin is not secreted into the breast milk and is so safe to use during the postpartum period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 14 weeks of gestation comes...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 14 weeks of gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit.  She is feeling well and has no concerns.  The patient had daily episodes of nausea and vomiting for the first few weeks of her pregnancy and those symptoms resolved 2 weeks ago.  She has had no pelvic pain or vaginal bleeding, and is yet to feel any fetal movements. 

      Her first pregnancy ended in a cesarean delivery at 30 weeks of gestation due to breech presentation, complicated with severe features of preeclampsia.  Patient has no other significant chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily dose of prenatal vitamin and have not reported of any medication allergies. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol or other illicit drugs. 

      On examination her blood pressure is 112/74 mm of Hg and BMI is 24 kg/m2. Fetal heart rate is found to be 155/min. The uterus is gravid and nontender and the remainder of the examination is unremarkable. 

      Which of the following is considered to be the next best step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low-dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      Preeclampsia prevention
      Preeclampsia is defined as a new-onset hypertension along with other features like proteinuria &/or end-organ damage at >20 weeks of gestation.
      Patients with the following histories are at high risk for preeclampsia:
      – Those with prior history of preeclampsia
      – Those with chronic kidney disease
      – Those with chronic hypertension
      – Those with diabetes mellitus
      – Multiple gestation
      – Autoimmune disease
      Patients belonging in the following criteria are at moderate risk for preeclampsia:
      – Obesity
      – Advanced maternal age
      – Nulliparity

      Preeclampsia is considered as the leading cause for maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. This is due to its increased risk for complications such as stroke, placental abruption and disseminated intravascular coagulation. It is most likely caused due to abnormal vasoconstriction and increased platelet aggregation, which thereby results in placental infarction and ischemia. The condition can be effectively prevented by the administration of low-doses of aspirin at 12 weeks of gestation.

      Patients with predisposing factors, such as chronic kidney disease, chronic hypertension and a history of preeclampsia, particularly with severe features or at <37 weeks gestation as in this patient, are at higher risk for developing preeclampsia.
      In high risk patients, the only therapy proven to decrease the risk of preeclampsia is a daily administration of low-dose aspirin, as it inhibits platelet aggregation and helps in preventing placental ischemia. Treatment is initiated at 12 – 28 weeks of gestation, optimally before 16 weeks and is continued till delivery.

      Betamethasone is a drug used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in patients who are prone to imminent risk of preterm delivery before 37 weeks of gestation. In this case, if the patient develops pre-eclampsia requiring an urgent preterm delivery betamethasone will be indicated.

      High-doses (4 mg) of folic acid is indicated in patients with high risk for a fetus with neural tube defects, as in those who have a history of any prior pregnancies affected or those patients who use any folate antagonist medications. In the given case patient is at average risk and requires only a regular dose of 0.4 mg which is found in most prenatal vitamins.

      Intramuscular hydroxyprogesterone is indicated in pregnant patients with prior spontaneous preterm delivery due to preterm prelabor rupture of membranes, preterm labor, etc to decrease the possible risk for any recurrence. In patients who underwent preterm delivery due to other indications like preeclampsia with severe features, fetal growth restriction, etc it is not indicated.

      Vaginal progesterone is administered to decrease the risk of preterm delivery in patients diagnosed with a shortened cervix, which is usually identified incidentally on anatomy ultrasound scan done between 16 and 24 weeks of gestation. This patient is currently at her 14 weeks, so this is not advisable.

      Patients at high risk for pre-eclampsia, like those with preeclampsia in a prior pregnancy, are advised to start taking a daily low-dose aspirin as prophylaxis for prevention of pre-eclampsia during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 27 - Regarding menstruation, which of the following is the maximum normal blood loss? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding menstruation, which of the following is the maximum normal blood loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 80-85ml

      Explanation:

      Most women lose about 35-40 ml of blood on average during each menstrual cycle. The maximum amount of blood loss is 80 ml after which blood loss of more than 80 ml is defined as heavy menstrual bleeding, formerly known as menorrhagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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  • Question 28 - A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who underwent a lower (uterine) segment Caesarean section (LSCS) is informed that her placenta was retained and needed to be removed manually during the procedure. She is now experiencing intermittent vaginal bleeding with an oxygen saturation of 98%, a pulse of 84 bpm and a BP of 124/82mmHg. Her temperature is 37.8C. Which complication of C-section is the woman suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometritis

      Explanation:

      Endometritis is inflammation of the inner lining of the uterus (endometrium). Symptoms may include fever, lower abdominal pain, and abnormal vaginal bleeding or discharge. It is the most common cause of infection after childbirth. The intermittent vaginal bleeding and the requirement for manual removal of the placenta suggest endometritis as the most possible diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 29 - To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of...

    Incorrect

    • To avoid potential haemolysis, Anti D immunoglobulin should be administered to which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive

      Explanation:

      The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and even abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers who give birth to Rh-positive children to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers; its administration could result in maternal blood being bound and taken out of circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
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  • Question 30 - According to the NICE guidelines on intrapartum care a multiparous women with intact...

    Incorrect

    • According to the NICE guidelines on intrapartum care a multiparous women with intact membranes should be offered amniotomy if there is inadequate progress of the active second stage of labour (in terms of rotation and/or descent of the presenting part) after how long?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30 minutes

      Explanation:

      Multiparous women active 2nd stage labour: Suspect delay if progress inadequate after 30 minutes Diagnose delay if progress inadequate after 1 hour If delay is suspected amniotomy should be offered if membranes are intact If delay diagnosed then preparations should be made for C-section Nulliparous women active 2nd stage labour: Suspect delay if progress inadequate after 1 hour Diagnose delay if progress inadequate after 2 hours If delay is suspected amniotomy should be offered if membranes are intact If delay diagnosed then preparations should be made for C-section

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
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      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
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