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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints of light-headedness and nausea. Clinical chemistry studies were done and the results were the following:
Na: 144 mmol/L (Reference: 137-144 mmol/L)
K: 6 mmol/L (Reference: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L)
Cl: 115 mmol/L (Reference: 95-107 mmol/L)
HCO3: 24 mmol/L (Reference: 20-28 mmol/L)
BUN: 9.5 mmol/L (Reference: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L)
Crea: 301 µmol/l (Reference: 60 - 110 µmol/L)
Glucose: 3.5 mmol/L (Reference: 3.0-6.0 mmol/L)
Taking into consideration the values above, in which of the following ranges will his osmolarity fall into?Your Answer: 288-294
Correct Answer: 300-313
Explanation:Osmolarity refers to the osmotic pressure generated by the dissolved solute molecules in 1 L of solvent. Measurements of osmolarity are temperature dependent because the volume of the solvent varies with temperature. The higher the osmolarity of a solution, the more it attracts water from an opposite compartment.
Osmolarity can be computed using the following formulas:
Osmolarity = Concentration x number of dissociable particles; OR
Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)Posm = 2 (144) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 301 mOsm/L
Suppose there is electrical neutrality, the formula will double the cation activity to account for the anions.
Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+] + [K+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)
Posm = 2 (144 + 6) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 313 mOsm/L
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department. She complains of increased shortness of breath and wheezing over the last 48 hours. On examination, she is found to have tachycardia, tachypnoea, and oxygen saturation at 91% on air. She admits to a previous medical history of asthma, diagnosed 4 years ago. She requires further investigations for diagnosis.
Which of the following is true about the assessment of a patient with symptomatic asthma?Your Answer: A peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is necessary in order to assess the severity of the asthma
Correct Answer: Oxygen saturations of 91% on air would be an indication for performing arterial blood gases
Explanation:A patient presenting with symptomatic asthma should be assessed for severity to determine appropriate management options. Indications of acute severe asthma are:
Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR): 33-50% best/predicted
Respiratory rate: ≥25/min
Heart rate: ≥110/min
Inability to finish a complete sentence in a single breath.Oxygen saturation should be measured. Any measurement of an oxygen saturation of 92% or less, either on air or on oxygen, indicates severe, life threatening asthma, and requires an arterial blood gas (ABG) to detect normo- or hypercarbia.
A chest x-ray would not be routine as it will not provide any relevant information. It is only required in specific cases, including:
Diagnosis of a subcutaneous emphysema
Indications of a unilateral pneumothorax
Indications of a lobar collapse of consolidation
Treatment-resistance life-threatening asthma
If mechanical ventilation is indicatedA peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can provide relevant information to help distinguish between acute, moderate, severe and life threatening asthma. However, it is not necessary as other parameters exist that can also help make the same distinction.
An ECG is indicated in this case as the patient has tachycardia and tachypnoea which are indicative of acute severe asthma. The ECG would indicate if arrhythmia is also present which would suggest life-threatening asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 80-year old lady has a background history of a previous myocardial infarction which has left permanent damage to her heart's conduction system. The part of the conduction system with the highest velocities is damaged, and this has resulted in desynchronisation of the ventricles. The part of the heart that conducts the fastest is which of the following?
Your Answer: Atrioventricular node
Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres
Explanation:The electrical conduction system of the heart starts with the SA node which generates spontaneous action potentials.
This is conducted across both atria by cell to cell conduction, and occurs at around 1 m/s. The only pathway for the action potential to enter the ventricles is through the AV node in a normal heart.
At this site, conduction is very slow at 0.05ms, which allows for the atria to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood before the ventricles depolarise and contract.The action potentials are conducted through the Bundle of His from the AV node which then splits into the left and right bundle branches. This conduction is very fast, (,2m/s), and brings the action potential to the Purkinje fibres.
Purkinje fibres are specialised conducting cells which allow for a faster conduction speed of the action potential (,2-4m/s). This allows for a strong synchronized contraction from the ventricle and thus efficient generation of pressure in systole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Medical history revealed he is on anti-epileptic medication Phenytoin. His plasma phenytoin levels are maintained between 10-12 mcg/mL (Therapeutic range: 10-20 mcg/mL). He is given a H2 antagonist receptor agent (Cimetidine) for his GERD symptoms.
Upon follow-up, his plasma phenytoin levels increased to 38 mcg/mL.
Regarding metabolism and elimination, which of the following best explains the pharmacokinetics of phenytoin at higher plasma levels?Your Answer: Change in plasma concentration is not linear
Correct Answer: Plasma concentration plotted against time is linear
Explanation:Drug elimination is the termination of drug action, and may involve metabolism into inactive state and excretion out of the body. Duration of drug action is determined by the dose administered and the rate of elimination following the last dose.
There are two types of elimination: first-order and zero-order elimination.
In first-order elimination, the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration; the concentration decreases exponentially over time. It observes the characteristic half-life elimination, where the concentration decreases by 50% for every half-life.
In zero-order elimination, the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration; the concentration decreases linearly over time. A constant amount of the drug being excreted over time, and it occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms.
Since phenytoin is observed in elevated levels, the elimination mechanisms for it has been saturated and, thus, will have to undergo zero-order elimination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The SI unit of measurement is kgm2s-2 in the System international d'unités (SI).
Which of the following derived units of measurement has this format?Your Answer: Force
Correct Answer: Energy
Explanation:The derived SI unit of force is Newton.
F = m·a (where a is acceleration)
F = 1 kg·m/s2The joule (J) is a converted unit of energy, work, or heat. When a force of one newton (N) is applied over a distance of one metre (Nm), the following amount of energy is expended:
J = 1 kg·m/s2·m =
J = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2The unit of velocity is metres per second (m/s or ms-1).
The watt (W), or number of joules expended per second, is the SI unit of power:
J/s = kg·m2·s-2/s
J/s = kg·m2·s-3Pressure is measured in pascal (Pa) and is defined as force (N) per unit area (m2):
Pa = kg·m·s-2/m2
Pa = kg·m-1·s-2 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is an alpha-blocker?
Your Answer: Doxazosin
Explanation:Doxazosin is selective alpha 1 blocker (it causes less tachycardia than a non-selective alpha-blocker) and is the drug of choice for a patient with hypertension and benign hyperplasia of the prostate (BHP).
The major adverse effect of an alpha-blocker is first-dose hypotension.
Atenolol and Labetalol are beta blockers. It works by relaxing blood vessels and slowing heart rate to improve blood flow and decrease blood pressure.
Clonidine is an α2A-adrenergic agonist used to treat high blood pressure, ADHD, drug withdrawal (alcohol, opioids, or nicotine), menopausal flushing, diarrhea, spasticity, and certain pain conditions.
Methyldopa is a centrally-acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used to manage hypertension alone or in combination with hydrochlorothiazide, and to treat hypertensive crises.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The following is true about the extracellular fluid (ECF) in a normal adult woman weighing 60 kg.
Your Answer: Is isotonic throughout the body
Correct Answer: Has a total volume of about 12 litres
Explanation:Total body water (TBW) is about 50% to 70% in adults depending on how much fat is present. ECF is relatively contracted in an obese person.
The simple rule is 60-40-20. (60% of weight = total body water, 40% of body weight is ICF and 20% is ECF)
For this woman, the total body water is 36 litres (0.6 × 60). ECF is 12 litres (1/3 of TBW) and 24 litres (2/3 of TBW) is intracellular fluid .
Sodium concentration is approximately 135-145 mmol/L in the ECF.
The ECF is made up of both intravascular and extravascular fluid and plasma proteins is found in both.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true with regards to acetylcholine?
Your Answer: Edrophonium decreases acetylcholine levels
Correct Answer: Excess cholinesterase inhibitor medication causes cholinergic crisis
Explanation:Myasthenic and cholinergic crises are two crises which are similar in their clinical presentation.
Myasthenic crisis can be caused by:
-lack of acetylcholine,
-poor compliance with medication,
-infectionCholinergic crisis can be caused by excess cholinesterase inhibitor medication (mimicking organophosphate poisoning) causing excess acetylcholine.
Differentiation between the 2 crises is made by giving incremental doses of the short acting cholinesterase inhibitor, Edrophonium.
This increase acetylcholine levels and will make a myasthenic crisis better and a cholinergic crisis worse. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 9
Correct
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About low molecular weight (LMW) heparin, Which of these is true?
Your Answer: Is excreted in the urine
Explanation:Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) creates a complex by binding to antithrombin. This complex binds with and inactivates factor Xa.
There is less risk of bleeding with LMWH because it binds less to platelets, endothelium and von Willebrand factor.
LMW binds Xa more readily. The shorter chains are less likely to bind both antithrombin and thrombin.
There is need for monitoring in renal impairment because LMHW is excreted in the urine (and partly by hepatic metabolism)
LMWH have been shown to be as efficacious as unfractionated heparin. It is also safer and have improved inpatient stay and reduced hospital cost.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the internal jugular vein?
Your Answer: It lies within the carotid sheath
Correct Answer: The terminal part of the thoracic duct crosses anterior to it to insert into the right subclavian vein
Explanation:The internal jugular vein is found on both sides of the neck and collects blood from the brain, superficial regions of the face, and neck. It drains into the right atrium.
It is a continuation of the sigmoid sinus and begins in the posterior cranial fossa and exits the skull via the jugular foramen.
It runs within the carotid sheath as it descends in the neck and is accompanied by the vagus nerve posteriorly and the common carotid anteromedially.The hypoglossal nerve emerges from the hypoglossal canal medial to the internal carotid artery and the internal jugular vein and ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves.
The internal jugular vein crosses anterior to the thoracic duct on the left side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A pre-operative evaluation for a trans-sphenoidal pituitary adenectomy is being performed on a 57-year-old woman. Her vision is causing her problems.
A macroadenoma compressing the optic chiasm is visible on MRI.
What is the most likely visual field defect to be discovered during an examination?Your Answer: Homonymous hemianopia
Correct Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia
Explanation:The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in the neuro-endocrine axis. It is located at the base of the skull in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone. It is connected superiorly to the hypothalamus, third ventricle, and visual pathways, and laterally to the cavernous sinuses, internal carotid arteries, and cranial nerves III, IV, V, and VI.
Pituitary tumours make up about 10-15% of all intracranial tumours. The majority of adenomas are benign. Over-secretion of pituitary hormones (most commonly prolactin, growth hormone, or ACTH), under-secretion of hormones, or localised or generalised pressure effects can all cause symptoms.
Compression of the optic chiasm can result in visual field defects, the most common of which is bitemporal hemianopia. This is caused by compression of the nasal retinal fibres, which carry visual impulses from temporal vision across the optic chiasm to the contralateral sides before continuing to the optic tracts.
The interruption of the visual pathways distal to the optic chiasm causes a homonymous visual field defect. The loss of the right or left halves of each eye’s visual field is referred to as homonymous hemianopia. It’s usually caused by a middle or posterior cerebral artery territory stroke that affects the occipital lobe’s optic radiation or visual cortex.
Binasal hemianopia is a condition in which vision is lost in the inner half of both eyes (nasal or medial). It’s caused by compression of the temporal visual pathways, which don’t cross at the optic chiasm and instead continue to the ipsilateral optic tracts. Binasal hemianopia is a rare complication caused by the internal carotid artery impinging on the temporal (lateral) visual fibres.
A monocular visual loss (that is, loss of vision in only one eye) can be caused by a variety of factors, but if caused by nerve damage, the damage would be proximal to the optic chiasm on the ipsilateral side.
A central scotoma is another name for central visual field loss. Every normal mammalian eye has a scotoma, also known as a blind spot, in its field of vision. The optic disc is a region of the retina that lacks photoreceptor cells and is where the retinal ganglion cell axons that make up the optic nerve exit the retina. When both eyes are open, visual signals that are absent in one eye’s blind spot are provided for the other eye by the opposite visual cortex, even if the other eye is closed.
Scotomata can be caused by a variety of factors, including demyelinating disease such as multiple sclerosis, damage to nerve fibre layer in the retina, methyl alcohol, ethambutol, quinine, nutritional deficiencies, and vascular blockages either in the retina or in the optic nerve.
Bilateral scotoma can occur when a pituitary tumour compresses the optic chiasm, causing a bitemporal paracentral scotoma, which then spreads out to the periphery, causing bitemporal hemianopsia. A central scotoma in a pregnant woman could be a sign of severe pre-eclampsia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A new intravenous neuromuscular blocking agent has been developed. It has a hepatic extraction ratio of 0.25 and three quaternary nitrogen atoms in its structure. It has been discovered that it has a half-life of fifteen minutes in healthy volunteers.
Which of the following elimination mechanisms is the most likely to explain this pharmacological behaviour?Your Answer: It is metabolised primarily in the liver
Correct Answer: It is filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules
Explanation:The neuromuscular blocking agent is likely to be filtered and not reabsorbed by the renal tubules due to an exclusion process.
Neuromuscular blocking agents that contain one or more quaternary nitrogen atoms are polar and ionised. As a result, the molecules have low lipid solubility, low membrane diffusion capacity, and low distribution volume.
It’s unlikely that a compound with three quaternary nitrogen atoms is an ester. Its high polarity would prevent molecules from moving quickly into tissues.
When drugs have a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.3), the venous and arterial drug concentrations are nearly identical. The liver is not the primary site of drug metabolism.
Therefore:
Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on clearance.
Protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion are all very sensitive to changes in clearance.
When taken orally, there is no first-pass metabolism.There is no reason for the lungs to eliminate any neuromuscular blocking agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are:
Your Answer: interstitial>intravascular
Correct Answer: intracellular>extracellular
Explanation:Body fluid compartments in a 70kg male:
Total volume=42L (60% body weight)
Intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) =28L
Extracellular fluid compartment (ECF) = 14LECF comprises:
Intravascular fluid (plasma) = 3L
Extravascular fluid = 11LExtravascular fluids comprises:
Interstitial fluid = 10.5L
Transcellular fluid = 0.5L -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best fit its properties?
Your Answer: Is accurate even in rhythm disturbances
Correct Answer: The cuff should be positioned at the same level as the heart
Explanation:Dinamap continuously measures the systolic, diastolic and mean arterial pressure along with pulse rate, thereby providing a continuous monitoring of the blood pressure using the osscillitonometric principle of measurement.
The device loses accuracy towards the extremes of BP and is more accurate with systolic compared with diastolic pressure. In arrhythmias such as AF, the devices are also inaccurate due to the major fluctuations associated with the individual pulse pressure variations.
The manual BP device is still the gold standard for BP measurement and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 15
Correct
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Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck?
Your Answer: Internal jugular vein
Explanation:The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.
The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
posteriorly – trapezius
roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene musclesThe contents of the posterior triangle are:
1. fat
2. lymph nodes (level V)
3. accessory nerve
4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
5. inferior belly of omohyoid
6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
7. third part of the subclavian artery
8. external jugular vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which among the given choices can be used to describe a persistent and expected level of disease in a particular population?
Your Answer: Prosodemic
Correct Answer: Endemic
Explanation:Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Regarding thermocouple, which of the following best describes its properties?
Your Answer: The measuring junction can be incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge
Correct Answer: The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin concentration
Explanation:The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:
CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma
CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)
where:
1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.
Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.
Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.
Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which structure has the greatest amount of musculi pectinati?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right atrium
Explanation:The pectinate muscles (musculi pectinati) are parallel muscular ridges that extend anterolaterally on the right atrial walls. The most prominent pectinate muscle, which forms the bridge of the sulcus terminalis internally, is the taenia sagittalis (second crest or septum spurium).
In the left atrium, the pectinate muscles are confined to the inner surface of its atrial appendage. They tend to be fewer and smaller than in the right atrium. This is due to the embryological origin of the auricles, which are the true atria.
Pectinate muscles of the atria are different from the trabeculae carneae, which are found on the inner walls of both ventricles.
The interior of the right atrium has five distinct features:
1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
2. Musculi pectinati – a rough anterior wall of pectinate muscles
3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum, which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive signals that are relayed by second messenger systems.
In the human body, which second messenger is most abundant?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium ions
Explanation:Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.
These include:
Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
Apoptosis
Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
Lymphocyte activation
Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.
The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:
Beta (?1, ?2, and ?3)
Dopamine (D1 and D5)
Histamine (H2)
Glucagon
Vasopressin (V2).The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.
The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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All of the following are part of the endocrine response to uncontrolled bleeding except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased secretion of insulin
Explanation:With regards to compensatory response to blood loss, the following sequence of events take place:
1. Decrease in venous return, right atrial pressure and cardiac output
2. Baroreceptor reflexes (carotid sinus and aortic arch) are immediately activated
3. There is decreased afferent input to the cardiovascular centre in medulla. This inhibits parasympathetic reflexes and increases sympathetic response
4. This results in an increased cardiac output and increased SVR by direct sympathetic stimulation. There is increased circulating catecholamines and local tissue mediators (adenosine, potassium, NO2)
5. Fluid moves into the intravascular space as a result of decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure absorbing interstitial fluid.A slower response is mounted by the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis.
6. Reduced renal blood flow is sensed by the intra renal baroreceptors and this stimulates release of renin by the juxta-glomerular apparatus.
7. There is cleavage of circulating Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I, which is converted to Angiotensin II in the lungs (by Angiotensin Converting Enzyme ACE)Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor that sets off other endocrine pathways.
8. The adrenal cortex releases Aldosterone
9. There is antidiuretic hormone release from posterior pituitary (also in response to hypovolaemia being sensed by atrial stretch receptors)
10. This leads to sodium and water retention in the distal convoluted renal tubule to conserve fluid
Fluid conservation is also aided by an increased amount of cortisol which is secreted in response to the increase in circulating catecholamines and sympathetic stimulation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Iron is one of the most important micronutrients in the body.
Out of the following, which one has the most abundant storage of iron in the body?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemoglobin
Explanation:Iron is a necessary micronutrient for proper erythropoietic function, oxidative metabolism, and cellular immune responses. Although dietary iron absorption (1-2 mg/d) is tightly controlled, it is only just balanced by losses.
The adult body contains 35-45 mg/kg iron (about 4-5 g)
Iron can be found in a variety of forms, including haemoglobin, ferritin, haemosiderin, myoglobin, haem enzymes, and transferrin bound proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood (CaO2) and mixed-venous blood (CvO2).
At rest, which organ has the greatest a-vO2 difference?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heart
Explanation:At rest, the heart has the greatest a-vO2 difference, a high capillary to myocyte ratio, short diffusion distances, and a high mitochondrial density. The flow of blood through the coronary arteries is also tightly controlled. At rest, 70-80 percent of the oxygen available to the cardiac muscle is extracted, increasing to 90 percent during exercise.
The a-vO2 difference indicates the body’s or an individual organ’s ability to extract oxygen from the blood.
CaO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including Hb concentration, PaO2 and pulmonary diffusion capacity.
CvO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including capillary density, regional blood flow, heart, resting skeletal muscle, kidney, intestine and skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid artery
Explanation:The descending thoracic aorta begins at the lower border of T4 near the midline as a continuation of the arch of the aorta. It descends and ends at the level of T12 at the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm, where it becomes the abdominal aorta.
The aorta gives off the following branches: (descending order)
1. Bronchial arteries
2. Mediastinal arteries
3. Oesophageal arteries
4. Pericardial arteries
5. Superior phrenic arteriesThe posterior intercostal arteries are branches that originate throughout the length of the posterior aspect of the descending thoracic aorta.
The inferior thyroid artery is usually derived from the thyrocervical trunk, a branch of the subclavian artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The following statements are about the cervical plexus. Which one is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve block is a complication of a cervical plexus block
Explanation:The cervical plexus is a complex network of nerves within the head and neck region, providing nerve innervation to regions within the head, neck and trunk.
It is comprised of nerves arising from the anterior primary rami of the C1-C4 nerve roots.
The cervical plexus gives off superficial and deep branches. The superficial branches penetrate through the deep fascia at the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. It provides sensory innervation from the lower border of the mandible to the 2nd rib. The deep branches provide motor innervation to the neck and diaphragmatic muscles.
Cervical plexus block is surgically relevant as it is used to provide regional anaesthesia for procedures in the neck region. The anaesthesia should be injected into the centre point of the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid. Complications arise when anaesthesia is instead injected into the wrong point, including into the vertebral artery, subarachnoid and epidural spaces, blockade of phrenic and recurrent laryngeal nerves, and the cervical sympathetic plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about fluid balance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After intravenous administration of crystalloids, the distribution of these fluids throughout the body depends on its osmotic activity
Explanation:When there is capillary leakage as seen in dependent oedema or ascites, oncotic pressure becomes a problem.
The intracellular sodium concentration is very sensitive to the extracellular sodium concentrations. When there is an imbalance, osmosis occurs resulting in shifts in water between the two compartments.
The microvascular endothelium relies upon osmosis and other processes as it is not freely permeable to water.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following is correct regarding nitric oxide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is produced by both inducible and constitutive forms of nitric oxide synthetase
Explanation:Nitric oxide is generated from L-arginine by nitric oxide synthase. It is produced in response to haemodynamic stress by the vascular endothelium, and it produces both smooth muscle relaxation and reduced vascular resistance.
Nitric oxide may be inactivated through interaction with other oxygen free radicals, (e.g. oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)).
Nitric oxide causes the production of the second messenger, cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Regarding the basal metabolic rate (BMR), one of the following is correct.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is the single largest component of energy expenditure
Explanation:BMR is lower in females than males.
It decreases with increasing age.
There is an increase in BMR with increased muscle (i.e. lean tissue)
BMR is increased in stress and illness. There is also an catabolic state in these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these enzymes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ALA synthetase
Explanation:Heme a exists in cytochrome a and heme c in cytochrome c; they are both involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation. 5′-Aminolevulinic acid synthase (ALA-S) is the regulated enzyme for heme synthesis in the liver and erythroid cells.
There are two forms of ALA Synthase, ALAS1, and ALAS2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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The phenomenon that the patients behaved in a different manner when they know that they are being observed is termed as?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect
Explanation:Hawthorne effect explains the change in any behavioural aspect owing to the awareness that the person is being observed.
Simpson’s Paradox explains the association developed when the data from several groups is combined to form a single larger group.The remaining terms are made up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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