-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness, ipsilateral arm weakness, and slurring of speech. She also has a history of migraine and is currently using contraception. The physician makes a diagnosis of transient ischemic attack. Which method of contraception most likely contributed to her TIA?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The risk of ischemic stroke in patients using combined oral contraceptives is increased in patients with additional stroke risk factors, including smoking, hypertension, and migraine with aura.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old male arrives at the clinic, 7 days after having unprotected intercourse with his girlfriend, and complains of dysuria and purulent urethral discharge. He is otherwise feeling well. Microscopic examination of the urethral swab shows gram negative diplococci. Which of the following drugs should be used in this patient?
Your Answer: Metronidazole
Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Effective treatment can cure gonorrhoea and help prevent long-term complications. CDC recommends a single dose of 250mg of intramuscular ceftriaxone AND 1g of oral azithromycin. It is important to take all of the medication prescribed to cure gonorrhoea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 17-year-old female presents with pelvic pain occurring during her periods, with 'deep' pain during intercourse and pain on defecation during this time. She states that her periods are regular with little bleeding.What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Endometriosis is defined as the presence of normal endometrial mucosa (glands and stroma) abnormally implanted in locations other than the uterine cavityAbout one third of women with endometriosis remain asymptomatic. When they do occur, symptoms, such as the following, typically reflect the area of involvement:- Dysmenorrhea- Heavy or irregular bleeding- Pelvic pain- Lower abdominal or back pain – Dyspareunia- Dyschezia (pain on defecation) – Often with cycles of diarrhoea and constipation- Bloating, nausea, and vomiting- Inguinal pain- Pain on micturition and/or urinary frequency- Pain during exercise- Patients with endometriosis do not frequently have any physical examination findings beyond tenderness related to the site of involvement. – The most common finding is nonspecific pelvic tenderness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. Which of the following treatment strategies should be employed?
Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. Primary and secondary syphilis are easy to treat with a penicillin injection. Penicillin is one of the most widely used antibiotics and is usually effective in treating syphilis. People who are allergic to penicillin will likely be treated with a different antibiotic, such as:doxycyclineazithromycinceftriaxone
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular menstrual cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?
Your Answer: Combined pill
Explanation:Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Anorexia nervosa is associated with which of the following skin and nail related changes?
Your Answer: Beau lines to the nails
Correct Answer: Acrocyanosis
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder which is characterized by distorted self-image leading to abnormally decreased calorie intake. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the skin, GI, and endocrine system. Due to extreme weight loss, patients with anorexia nervosa develop cold intolerance along with bluish discoloration of their fingers, nose, and ears, which is known as acrocyanosis. This phenomenon may be due to the shunting of the blood from the peripheries to the central body systems as a reaction to hypothermia. Other notable changes in the integumentary system include extreme dryness (xerosis), lanugo hairs, decubitus ulcers, and easy bruisibility.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 15 year old girl is brought to the emergency after collapsing at a shopping mall. She is accompanied by her mother who reveals that she has had amenorrhea for the past 7 consecutive months. There is fine hair on her body. Which of the following investigations is mandatory in this case?
Your Answer: Urea & Electrolytes
Explanation:Although some individuals with Anorexia Nervosa exhibit no laboratory abnormalities, the semistarvation characteristic of this disorder can affect most major organ systems and produce a variety of disturbances. The induced vomiting and abuse of laxatives, diuretics, and enemas can also cause a number of disturbances leading to abnormal laboratory findings.Haematology: Leukopenia and mild anaemia are common| thrombocytopenia occurs rarely.Chemistry: Dehydration may be reflected by an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN). Hypercholesterolemia is common. Liver function tests may be elevated.Hypomagnesemia, hypozincaemia, hypophosphatemia, and hyperamylasaemia are occasionally found. Induced vomiting may lead to metabolic alkalosis (elevated serum bicarbonate), hypochloraemia, and hypokalaemia, and laxative abuse may cause a metabolic acidosis. Serum thyroxine levels are usually in the low-normal range| triiodothyronine levels are decreased. Hyperadrenocorticism and abnormal responsiveness to a variety of neuroendocrine challenges are common.In females, low serum oestrogen levels are present, whereas males have low levels of serum testosterone. There is a regression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis in both sexes in that the 24-hour pattern of secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) resembles that normally seen in prepubertal or pubertal individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
Use of ipecac in patients with eating disorders is associated with which of the following?
Your Answer: Cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Ipecac, or syrup of ipecac (SOI), is a medication once used to induce vomiting. Its medical use has virtually vanished, and it is no longer recommended for routine use in toxic ingestion. The abuse of SOI as a purgative in eating disorders, however, is increasing. Ipecac has a high safety profile. Common side effects include prolonged vomiting (greater than 1 hour), lethargy, somnolence, diarrhoea, fever, irritability. More severe complications can consist of aspiration pneumonia, Mallory-Weiss tears, pneumomediastinum, and gastric rupture.The abuse of syrup of ipecac by patients with major eating disorders have been shown to have toxic effects on the skeletal and cardiac muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of eating disorders?
Your Answer: Total parenteral nutrition is used if BMI is 14-15
Correct Answer: Evidence-based self-help programme is first line in patients with bulimia
Explanation:Most individuals with eating disorders do not receive treatment. The treatment gap may involve individuals’ attitudes about accessing various types of treatment, as well as perceived barriers to seeking treatment. Therapies to be considered for the psychological treatment of anorexia nervosa include cognitive analytic therapy (CAT), cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT), interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), focal psychodynamic therapy and family interventions focused explicitly on eating disorders.The first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. Antidepressants may be helpful for patients with substantial concurrent symptoms of depression, anxiety, obsessions, or certain impulse disorder symptoms. They may be particularly good for patients who have not benefited from or had suboptimal response to suitable psychosocial therapy or who have a chronic, difficult course in combination with other treatments.Acute pharmacologic treatment of anorexia nervosa is rarely required. However, vitamin supplementation with calcium should be started in patients, and although oestrogen has no established effect on bone density in patients with anorexia nervosa, oestrogen replacement (i.e., oral contraceptives) has been recommended for the treatment of osteopenia. Note: Oestrogen should not be used in children (due to premature fusion of the bones).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department at about 6 am with reduced responsiveness and muscle rigidity. His mother reports that he attended a rave and came home euphoric, ataxic, and experiencing multiple hallucinations.Which of the following illicit substances is the most likely to have been consumed?
Your Answer: MDMA (ecstasy)
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:The given presentation is highly suggestive of withdrawal effect of ketamine.Ketamine is known for its unique property of inducing dissociative anaesthesia. Emergence phenomenon (as seen in the child in question) is an adverse effect that occurs during recovery from dissociative anaesthesia. The components of emergence phenomenon include a euphoric state associated with hallucinations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
What is the main mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?
Your Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:The progesterone is primarily responsible for preventing pregnancy. The main mechanism of action is the prevention of ovulation| they inhibit follicular development and prevent ovulation. Progestogen negative feedback works at the hypothalamus to decreases the pulse frequency of gonadotropin-releasing hormone. This, in turn, will decrease the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and decreases the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH). If the follicle isn’t developing, then there is no increase in the oestradiol levels (the follicle makes oestradiol). The progestogen negative feedback and lack of oestrogen positive feedback on LH secretion stop the mid-cycle LH surge. With no follicle developed and no LH surge to release the follicle, there is the prevention of ovulation. Oestrogen has some effect with inhibiting follicular development because of its negative feedback on the anterior pituitary with slows FSH secretion| it’s just not as prominent as the progesterone’s effect. Another primary mechanism of action is progesterone’s ability to inhibit sperm from penetrating through the cervix and upper genital tract by making the cervical mucous unfriendly. Progesterone induced endometrial atrophy should deter implantation, but there is no proof that this occurs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother, who is worried that her daughter might be using illicit substances. The patient is sweating and appears agitated, talkative and is repeatedly clenching her jaw. She has generalized piloerection. She has most likely taken which of the following substances?
Your Answer: MDMA (ecstasy)
Explanation:3,4-methylenedioxy-methamphetamine (MDMA) is a synthetic drug that alters mood and perception (awareness of surrounding objects and conditions). It is chemically similar to both stimulants and hallucinogens, producing feelings of increased energy, pleasure, emotional warmth, and distorted sensory and time perception. MDMA’s effects last about 3 to 6 hours, although many users take a second dose as the effects of the first dose begin to fade. Over the course of the week following moderate use of the drug, a person may experience:irritabilityimpulsiveness and aggressiondepressionsleep problemsanxietymemory and attention problemsdecreased appetitedecreased interest in and pleasure from sex
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding teenage pregnancy?
Your Answer: aPTT is prolonged
Correct Answer: Maternal weight gain is maximum during mid-pregnancy
Explanation:Teenagers may have poor eating habits and neglect to take their vitamin supplements. They are less likely than older women to be of adequate pre-pregnancy weight or to gain an adequate amount of weight during pregnancy. Low weight gain increases the risk of having a low birthweight baby. Weight gain is maximal during the 2nd trimester.aPTT and gallbladder emptying is decreased during pregnancy whereas d-dimers is increased.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with nausea, vomiting and abdominal swelling. Physical examination also reveals digital clubbing and linea nigra on her abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Clinical signs of early pregnancy-Amenorrhoea-Nausea and vomiting -Breast enlargement and tenderness -Hyperpigmentation of the areola and formation of linea nigra: Most likely due to increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone produced by the placenta -Increased urinary frequency-Fatigue-Cravings for or aversions to certain foods-Abdominal bloating and constipation
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 16 year old female has been admitted to hospital after overdosing on paracetamol 4 hours ago. She has also consumed a large amount of alcohol. Her plasma paracetamol concentration is only just below a level which requires treatment. From the list of options, choose the most appropriate treatment option for this patient.
Your Answer: Serum plasma paracetamol
Correct Answer: Refer to psychiatry ward
Explanation:As her paracetamol level is under the required treatment threshold, she requires no medical treatment. However, she has taken a simultaneous drug overdose and excessive alcohol consumption. These two factors together require psychiatric evaluation and so she should be referred to the psychiatry ward.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old female presents to the clinic with a mass in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Which of the following statements regarding the breast is untrue?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Nipple retraction may occur as a result of tumour infiltration of the clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:Patients with breast cancer develop clinical symptoms rather late at advanced tumour stages. Typical signs may include:Changes in breast size and/or shape| asymmetric breastsPalpable mass: typically a single, nontender, firm mass with poorly defined margins, most commonly in the upper outer quadrantSkin changes: Retractions or dimpling (due to tightening of the Cooper ligaments), Peau d’orange: skin resembling an orange peel (due to obstruction of the lymphatic channels): Redness, oedema, and pitting of the hair folliclesNipple changes: inversion, blood-tinged dischargeAxillary lymphadenopathy: firm, enlarged lymph nodes (> 1 cm in size), that are fixed to the skin or surrounding tissueIn advanced stages: ulcerations
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 15-year-old girl has been diagnosed with Chlamydia. She is sexually active with a boy her age. Which of the following advice should be given to her?
Your Answer: They both need immediate treatment without further testing. A test of cure is not necessary.
Explanation:Treating persons infected with C. trachomatis prevents adverse reproductive health complications and continued sexual transmission, and treating their sex partners can prevent reinfection and infection of other partners. Treating pregnant women usually prevents transmission of C. trachomatis to neonates during birth. Chlamydia treatment should be provided promptly for all persons testing positive for infection. Treatment delays have been associated with complications (e.g. PID) in a limited proportion of women. To minimise disease transmission to sex partners, persons treated for chlamydia should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse for 7 days after single-dose therapy or until completion of a 7-day regimen and resolution of symptoms if present. To minimise risk for reinfection, patients also should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse until all of their sex partners are treated. Persons who receive a diagnosis of chlamydia should be tested for HIV, GC, and syphilis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Withdrawal from which of the following substances is associated with hypersomnia, hyperphagia, irritability?
Your Answer: Cannabis
Correct Answer: Amphetamine
Explanation:Drug withdrawal symptoms after a period of substance abuse can lead to a range of symptoms. Amphetamines are known to cause hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and irritability, as well as vivid dreams as a result of withdrawal. Similar symptoms are found in cocaine withdrawal. Alcohol withdrawal presents with symptoms such as insomnia, tremulousness and delirium. Ecstasy withdrawal includes irritation, mood swings, fatigue and insomnia. Heroin withdrawal presents with symptoms which include dilated pupils, insomnia, abdominal cramps and muscle aches. Withdrawal from prolonged cannabis use can cause depression, anxiety restlessness and insomnia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 16 year old girl with a history of diabetes presents with a vaginal discharge that is white and thick. She also complains of vaginal itchiness. Doctors suspect candidiasis and start her on clotrimazole. How does this drug work?
Your Answer: Decreases ergosterol biosynthesis, increasing membrane permeability and disrupting membrane-bound enzyme systems
Explanation:Clotrimazole interferes with the ergosterol biosynthesis by decreasing ergosteron I biosynthesis, increasing membrane permeability, and disrupting membrane-bound enzyme systems.Vaginal candidiasis is an extremely common condition. Predisposing factors include:- diabetes mellitus- drugs: antibiotics, steroids- pregnancy- immunosuppression – iatrogenic
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old doctor who has recently been diagnosed with melanoma asks about survival rates associated with this condition. Which of the following statistical methods is employed to predict the survival rates?
Your Answer: Student t-test
Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator
Explanation:The Kaplan–Meier estimator, also known as the product limit estimator, is a non-parametric statistic used to estimate the survival function from lifetime data. In medical research, it is often used to measure the fraction of patients living for a certain amount of time after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)