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  • Question 1 - The layers of the neocortex from the 1st to the 6th are arranged...

    Correct

    • The layers of the neocortex from the 1st to the 6th are arranged as follows:

      Your Answer: Molecular, external granular, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal, multiform

      Explanation:

      The layers of neocortex from outermost to innermost include: the molecular, external granular layer, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal and multiform layer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following affects the magnitude of the action potential? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following affects the magnitude of the action potential?

      Your Answer: Changes in the external Na+ concentration

      Explanation:

      The magnitude of the action potential is determined by the sodium current. Increase in external sodium will result in increased influx of sodium and hence generation of a stronger action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In the gastric mucosa, which of the following cells is known to secrete...

    Correct

    • In the gastric mucosa, which of the following cells is known to secrete gastric lipase?

      Your Answer: Chief cell

      Explanation:

      Chief cells produce pepsinogen and gastric lipase. Parietal cells produce stomach acid and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the main function of vitamin E? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main function of vitamin E?

      Your Answer: It is an antioxidant

      Explanation:

      Vitamin E has many biological functions, the antioxidant function being the best known. Other functions include enzymatic activities, gene expression, and neurological function(s).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of glucose in ß cells?...

    Correct

    • Which glucose transporter is responsible for the uptake of glucose in ß cells?

      Your Answer: GLUT 2

      Explanation:

      Glucose transporter 2, also known as GLUT2 is a transmembrane carrier protein which is not insulin dependent. It is found in the liver and the pancreatic islet ß cells, where it functions as the primary glucose transporter that allows the transfer of glucose between these organs and blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - 5-methyltetrahydrofolate (Methyl THF) is converted to THF with the help of which of...

    Correct

    • 5-methyltetrahydrofolate (Methyl THF) is converted to THF with the help of which of the following?

      Your Answer: B 12

      Explanation:

      MTR, also known as methionine synthase, is a methyltransferase enzyme, which uses the Vitamin B12 to transfer a methyl group from 5-methyltetrahydrofolate to homocysteine, thereby generating tetrahydrofolate (THF) and methionine. This functionality is lost in vitamin B12 deficiency, resulting in an increased homocysteine level and the trapping of folate as 5-methyl-tetrahydrofolate, from which THF (the active form of folate) cannot be recovered. THF plays an important role in DNA synthesis so reduced availability of THF results in ineffective production of cells with rapid turnover, in particular red blood cells, and also intestinal wall cells which are responsible for absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which receptor type is associated with the inhibition of pancreatic endocrine secretion? ...

    Correct

    • Which receptor type is associated with the inhibition of pancreatic endocrine secretion?

      Your Answer: Α2

      Explanation:

      The activation of alpha 2-adrenergic receptors in pancreatic beta-cells works by inhibiting the secretion of insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following associations is false? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following associations is false?

      Your Answer: Mandibular nerve – foramen lacerum

      Explanation:

      – The olfactory nerves pass through the cribriform plate- The maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve passes through the foramen rotundum- The facial nerve passes through the stylomastoid foramen- The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve pass through the foramen ovale- The glossopharyngeal nerve passes through the jugular foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - With regard to X linked disorders which of the following are true ...

    Correct

    • With regard to X linked disorders which of the following are true

      Your Answer: X linked recessive disorders usually present in males and only very rarely present in homozygous females

      Explanation:

      All are true for autosomal recessive disorders. Dominance rules for sex-linked gene loci are determined by their behaviour in the female: because the male has only one allele (except in the case of certain types of Y chromosome aneuploidy), that allele is always expressed regardless of whether it is dominant or recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Myelin sheath in the CNS is produced by? ...

    Correct

    • Myelin sheath in the CNS is produced by?

      Your Answer: Oligodendrocytes

      Explanation:

      CNS myelin is produced by special cells called oligodendrocytes. PNS myelin is produced by Schwann cells. The two types of myelin are chemically different, but they both perform the same function — to promote efficient transmission of a nerve impulse along the axon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect...

    Correct

    • The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?

      Your Answer: Factor Xa

      Explanation:

      Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH): It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot. LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation. Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.Dosage and uses:LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.Adverse effects:The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.Less commonly it can cause:Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)Osteoporosis and spontaneous fracturesHypoaldosteronismHypersensitivity reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 34-year-old man was brought to the ER following a road-traffic-accident. An X-ray...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old man was brought to the ER following a road-traffic-accident. An X-ray of his left thigh revealed a fractured shaft of the left femur. He has a known history of opioid abuse. You are called to the ward to assess him after he becomes unwell. Which of the following clinical features are NOT compatible with a diagnosis of opioid withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, hypothermia is not a symptom of opioid withdrawal.Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include dysphoric mood, yawning, insomnia, muscle aches, lacrimation/rhinorrhoea, papillary dilatation, piloerection, fever, sweating, nausea/vomiting, diarrhoea.If the patient is having an opioid withdrawal reaction, then give 10 mg of methadone syrup and wait about 60 min to determine its effect.COWS (Clinical Opioid Withdrawal Scale) assessment for opioid withdrawal is commonly used to determine the severity of opioid withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - All valves are closed in which phase of the cardiac cycle? ...

    Correct

    • All valves are closed in which phase of the cardiac cycle?

      Your Answer: Isovolumetric relaxation

      Explanation:

      The cardiac cycle refers to a complete heartbeat from its generation to the beginning of the next beat, and so includes the diastole, the systole, and the intervening pause.The first stage, diastole, is when the semilunar valves (the pulmonary valve and the aortic valve) close, the atrioventricular (AV) valves (the mitral valve and the tricuspid valve) open, and the whole heart is relaxed. The second stage, atrial systole, is when the atrium contracts, and blood flows from atrium to the ventricle.The third stage, isovolumic contraction is when the ventricles begin to contract, the AV and semilunar valves close, and there is no change in volume. The fourth stage, ventricular ejection, is when the ventricles are contracting and emptying, and the semilunar valves are open. During the fifth stage, isovolumic relaxation time, pressure decreases, no blood enters the ventricles, the ventricles stop contracting and begin to relax, and the semilunar valves close due to the pressure of blood in the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Intermediate filaments achieve cell to cell contact via: ...

    Correct

    • Intermediate filaments achieve cell to cell contact via:

      Your Answer: Desmosomes

      Explanation:

      At the plasma membrane, some keratins interact with desmosomes (cell-cell adhesion) and hemidesmosomes (cell-matrix adhesion) via adapter proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which lipoprotein is responsible for lowering of plasma lipids? ...

    Correct

    • Which lipoprotein is responsible for lowering of plasma lipids?

      Your Answer: HDL

      Explanation:

      High-density lipoproteins (HDL) are one of the five major groups of lipoproteins. Lipoproteins are complex particles composed of multiple proteins which transport all fat molecules (lipids) around the body within the water outside cells. Unlike the larger lipoprotein particles which deliver fat molecules to cells, HDL particles remove fat molecules from cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided...

    Correct

    • A 78 year old woman presents to the clinic complaining of left sided temporal headaches and jaw claudication that has been going on for a month. A left temporal artery biopsy is negative. Results show:Hb: 130g/lPlatelets: 359*109/lWBC: 10*109/lCRP: 89mg/lWhich of the following options would be the next best step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which enzyme facilitates the function of pancreatic lipase by increasing exposure of its...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme facilitates the function of pancreatic lipase by increasing exposure of its active site?

      Your Answer: Colipase

      Explanation:

      Colipase is a co enzyme that optimize the activity of lipase by facilitating the exposure of its active sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Cytochrome p450 enzymes expressed in hepatocytes serve to? ...

    Correct

    • Cytochrome p450 enzymes expressed in hepatocytes serve to?

      Your Answer: Facilitate oxidations or hydrolysis of drugs.

      Explanation:

      Cytochrome p 450 are a family of proteins involved in drug metabolism which accounts for about 75% of the total metabolism. Most drugs are deactivated directly or by facilitated excretion from the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis...

    Correct

    • What is the rationale concerning the use of sodium cromoglycate in the prophylaxis of bronchial asthma?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of mast-cell degranulation

      Explanation:

      Sodium cromoglycate principally acts by inhibiting the degranulation of mast cells triggered by the interaction of antigen and IgE. The inhibitory effect on mast cells appears to be cell-type specific since cromoglycate has little inhibitory effect on mediator release from human basophils.Thus, it inhibits the release of histamine, leukotrienes, and slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis from mast cells by inhibiting degranulation following exposure to reactive antigens.Adverse effects include cough, flushing, palpitation, chest pain, nasal congestion, nausea, fatigue, migraine, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains: ...

    Correct

    • The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains:

      Your Answer: Zn and Cu

      Explanation:

      The cytoplasmic form of superoxide dismutase [SOD] contains zinc and copper

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Stroke volume in a average sized man lying in supine position is about?...

    Correct

    • Stroke volume in a average sized man lying in supine position is about?

      Your Answer: 70 ml

      Explanation:

      The stroke volume of an average sized man who is lying is the supine position is about 70 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Hyperkalaemia [K+ =7meq/l] can lead to the following ECG changes [Ca++ normal] ...

    Correct

    • Hyperkalaemia [K+ =7meq/l] can lead to the following ECG changes [Ca++ normal]

      Your Answer: Peaked T waves

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia causes the formation of tall tented T waves due to altered repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The choroid plexus: ...

    Correct

    • The choroid plexus:

      Your Answer: All are true

      Explanation:

      The choroid plexus is a vascular structure found in all cerebral ventricles. The functional unit of the choroid plexus, composed of a capillary, enveloped by a layer of differentiated ependymal epithelium. Unlike the capillaries that form the blood-brain barrier, choroid plexus capillaries are fenestrated and have no tight junctions. The endothelium, therefore, does not form a barrier to the movement of small molecules. Instead, the blood-CSF barrier at the choroid plexus is formed by the epithelial cells and the tight junctions that link them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Cranial nerves VI, VII, VIII enter/exit the base of the brain at the:...

    Correct

    • Cranial nerves VI, VII, VIII enter/exit the base of the brain at the:

      Your Answer: Ponto-medullary junction

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerves III, IV and V exit from the pons, VI, VII, VIII exit from the pontomedullary junction and cranial nerve IX, X, XI, XII exit from the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)? ...

    Correct

    • What is the principle site of action of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)?

      Your Answer: Adrenal gland

      Explanation:

      Adrenocorticotropic hormone, also known as ACTH or corticotropin, is a polypeptide tropic hormone. It is synthesized by the corticotropic cells of the anterior pituitary. It works by regulating the secretion of glucocorticoid hormones from the cortex cells in the adrenal gland. It binds to the melanocortin (MC) 2 receptors on the surface of the adrenal zona glomerulosa cells, producing cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following best describe Clostridium infection? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describe Clostridium infection?

      Your Answer: Anaerobe

      Explanation:

      Clostridium is a genus of Gram-positive bacteria, which includes several significant human pathogens, including the causative agent of botulism and an important cause of diarrhoea, Clostridium difficile. They are obligate anaerobes capable of producing endospores. The normal, reproducing cells of Clostridium, called the vegetative form, are rod-shaped, which gives them their name, from the Greek κλωστήρ or spindle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In the absence of insulin: ...

    Correct

    • In the absence of insulin:

      Your Answer: Glucose uptake by most of the brain is normal

      Explanation:

      Although it is known that insulin levels affect glucose uptake, oxidation and storage in peripheral tissues, its role in the brain isn’t as clear. However, studies have shown that bulk brain glucose uptake isn’t affected by insulin. Glucose transport into the neurons is GLUT3 dependent, and its transport into glia and brain endothelial cells rely on GLUT1. Insulin isn’t necessary for GLUT1 or GLUT3, which explains why brain glucose uptake isn’t affected by insulin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is...

    Correct

    • The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: Telomerase reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The formation of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme? ...

    Correct

    • The formation of superoxide is catalysed by which enzyme?

      Your Answer: NADPH oxidase

      Explanation:

      Superoxide is biologically toxic and is deployed by the immune system to kill invading microorganisms. In phagocytes, superoxide is produced in large quantities by the enzyme NADPH oxidase for use in oxygen-dependent killing mechanisms of invading pathogens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Vasodilatation in skeletal muscle can be caused by: ...

    Correct

    • Vasodilatation in skeletal muscle can be caused by:

      Your Answer: Sympathetic cholinergic nerves

      Explanation:

      In skeletal muscles some fibers that cause vasodilation run with the nerves of the sympathetic system but are cholinergic in nature. These nerves are not active during rest but become active during exercise and stress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (30/30) 100%
Neurology (6/6) 100%
Cardiovascular (5/5) 100%
Gastrointestinal (2/2) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Genetics (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (3/3) 100%
Cell Biology (2/2) 100%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Connective Tissue (1/1) 100%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Passmed