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  • Question 1 - A 5 year old girl presents with a wart-like lesion on her thigh...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old girl presents with a wart-like lesion on her thigh and a hyperpigmented, rhabdoid whorl rash. She has a history of seizures since she was three years old and warts similar to the one she has now. Family history reveals the mother had two in utero stillbirths. The doctor observes small vesicles on the anterior surface of her left wrist. Other findings include mild scoliosis, thin wiry hair, and peg-shaped teeth. Her gait is normal and she is otherwise healthy. Ruth Griffiths score reveals a reduced sub quotient in terms of social skills, performance, and language and hearing skills. The doctor takes a biopsy sample which shows many intradermal eosinophils in the absence of inflammatory cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Incontinentia pigmenti

      Explanation:

      Incontinentia pigmenti is a genetic condition that affects females more than males. It usually manifests in the skin but can affect other parts of the body as well. It presents with a blistering rash that may evolve into wart-like growths. Hyperpigmentation and hair loss are also present, as well as eye and teeth abnormalities. Clinically there are three phases: 1- the bullous phase – crops of vesicles appear in the first 2 weeks of life|2- the papular phase – warty papules that flatten out over the skin| and 3- the hyperpigmented phase – pigmentary changes in the form of whorls and streaks that are hypo- and hyperpigmented in nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe...

    Correct

    • A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe jaundice within the first 24 hours of delivery. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rh incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Jaundice is considered pathologic if it presents within the first 24 hours after birth. Although up to 60 percent of term new-borns have clinical jaundice in the first week of life, few have significant underlying disease.1,2 However, hyperbilirubinemia in the new-born period can be associated with severe illnesses such as haemolytic disease, metabolic and endocrine disorders, anatomic abnormalities of the liver, and infections. The risk factors here is the mothers blood ground which suggests the cause is fetal-maternal blood group incompatibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are...

    Correct

    • A pathologist is examining a histological section and identifies Hassall's corpuscles.With what are they most commonly associated?

      Your Answer: Medulla of the thymus

      Explanation:

      Hassall’s corpuscles are groups of epithelial cells within the thymic medulla. The physical nature of these structures differs between mammalian species. Although Hassall’s corpuscles have been proposed to act in both the removal of apoptotic thymocytes and the maturation of developing thymocytes within the thymus, the function of Hassall’s corpuscles has remained an enigma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      82.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Children can be offered cow's milk starting from what age? ...

    Correct

    • Children can be offered cow's milk starting from what age?

      Your Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      Cow’s milk differs in composition to human breast milk. The sodium content of cows milk is too high, which can easily overwhelm a baby’s developing kidneys and lead to hypernatremia and dehydration. In addition to its iron content being too low, cows milk can cause further increase iron deficiency anaemia by irritating the baby’s intestinal lumen and causing blood loss per rectum. After 12 months a baby’s gastrointestinal tract and organs are able to tolerate cows milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - According to NICE guidelines, which of the following should be avoided in breastfeeding...

    Correct

    • According to NICE guidelines, which of the following should be avoided in breastfeeding women?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines:Do not offer lithium to women who are planning a pregnancy or pregnant, unless antipsychotic medication has not been effective.If antipsychotic medication has not been effective and lithium is offered to a woman who is planning a pregnancy or pregnant, ensure:the woman knows that there is a risk of fetal heart malformations when lithium is taken in the first trimester, but the size of the risk is uncertain. Lithium levels may be high in breast milk with a risk of toxicity for the baby.If a woman taking lithium becomes pregnant, consider stopping the drug gradually over 4 weeks if she is well. Explain to her that:stopping the medication may not remove the risk of fetal heart malformations and there is a risk of relapse, particularly in the postnatal period, if she has bipolar disorder.If a woman taking lithium becomes pregnant and is not well or is at high risk of relapse, consider:switching gradually to an antipsychotic or stopping lithium and restarting it in the second trimester (if the woman is not planning to breastfeed and her symptoms have responded better to lithium than to other drugs in the past) or continuing with lithium if she is at high risk of relapse and an antipsychotic is unlikely to be effective. If a woman continues taking lithium during pregnancy:- check plasma lithium levels every 4 weeks, then weekly from the 36th week. Adjust the dose to keep plasma lithium levels in the woman’s therapeutic range- ensure the woman maintains an adequate fluid balance- ensure the woman gives birth in the hospital- ensure monitoring by the obstetric team when labour starts, including checking plasma lithium levels and fluid balance because of the risk of dehydration and lithium toxicity- stop lithium during labour and check plasma lithium levels 12 hours after her last dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Palms and soles are relatively spared by which of the given medical conditions?...

    Correct

    • Palms and soles are relatively spared by which of the given medical conditions?

      Your Answer: Scarlet fever

      Explanation:

      Scarlet fever is a childhood infectious disease caused by group A Streptococcus. It produces a papular rash, which is classically described as a sand-paper rash. The rash initially appears on the trunk, groin, and underarms and then spreads to extremities, usually sparing the palms and soles. Circumoral area is also spared, giving it pallor-like appearance. Diseases like erythema multiforme, contact dermatitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, and rubella produce a rash that classically affects the palms and soles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
      Basophils are not present.
      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following statements is true regarding eczema herpeticum? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding eczema herpeticum?

      Your Answer: Is usually associated with lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      Eczema herpeticum (also called Kaposi varicelliform eruption) is a disseminated viral illness usually associated with lymphadenopathy.It is most often caused by Herpes Simplex type 1 or type 2. Occasionally, other viruses such as coxsackievirus A16 may cause eczema herpeticum. Affected children usually develop itchy blisters and fever after coming in contact with an affected individual who may or may not display cold sores.It is characterised by an itchy and sometimes painful cluster of blisters most commonly on the face initially. This spreads over one to several weeks resulting in further crops of blisters which can become confluent. Lymphadenopathy and fever are common in these patients.The severity varies from mild illness to life-threatening, especially in immunocompromised children or young infants. It is markedly more common in children with atopic dermatitis. It is one of the few dermatological emergencies, and oral antivirals are often indicated. Referral to an ophthalmologist may be needed if there is eyelid or eye involvement. Occasionally, superadded skin infections caused by staphylococci and streptococci can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      62.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following scales is NOT used to measure the impact of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following scales is NOT used to measure the impact of eczema?

      Your Answer: Eczema Severity Questionnaire

      Explanation:

      Eczema is an immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the skin characterized by intense pruritis and scaly rashes over the body. The impact of the disease can be measured by using certain scales, which include the Dermatitis Family Impact (DFI) Questionnaire, infant’s Dermatitis Quality of Life Index, Patient-oriented Eczema Measure, and Children’s Dermatology Life Quality Index among many others. Eczema severity questionnaire is not a recognized scale to determine eczema impact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency with vomiting and acute central abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to the emergency with vomiting and acute central abdominal pain. On examination, the abdomen is tense and tender but there is no guarding and bowel sounds are audible. Ankle and knee reflexes are absent and there is reduced power distally in his lower limbs. One of his older sisters has previously presented with a similar condition. The lab investigations are as follows: Hb 10 g/dlMean corpuscular volume (MCV): 65 flPlatelets: 170Blood film basophilic stipplingUrinary δ-ALA (delta-aminolaevulinic acid): 100 mmol/24 hrs (normal range 8-53)What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Arsenic poisoning

      Correct Answer: Lead poisoning

      Explanation:

      Lead Poisoning Symptoms: Abdominal pain, bluish line on the gums (Burton line), wrist/foot drop, anaemia, nephropathy, encephalopathy, cognitive impairmentDiagnosis: Detectable in bloodBasophilic stippling of erythrocytes (disorder of heme synthesis) on smearTreatment: Succimer, Dimercaprol, EDTA

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      102
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 16 year old boy was admitted with severe pain and swelling of...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old boy was admitted with severe pain and swelling of his scrotum following a kick to the groin. What is the most appropriate management that can be done at this stage?

      Your Answer: Exploratory surgery

      Explanation:

      The most worrying condition is testicular torsion and to exclude it exploratory surgery is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 6 month old baby has been exclusively breast fed for two years,...

    Correct

    • A 6 month old baby has been exclusively breast fed for two years, and now receives a mixture of bottle feeds and breast milk. The mother of the child wants advice on how to wean the baby. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate advice to give the mother?

      Your Answer: Infant led weaning can be tried first if the mother is happy with this

      Explanation:

      At the age of 6 months, children can begin to be weaned off breastmilk and formula feeds. One healthy and inexpensive way to do this is through infant led weaning as opposed to the conventional spoon feeding method. Children are able to enjoy a variety of soft finger foods even before they grow teeth, so all food does not need to be pureed or sweet. Children should however not be given cow’s milk until the age of 1 year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What does a prominent left precordium in a 15-year-old boy with an ejection...

    Incorrect

    • What does a prominent left precordium in a 15-year-old boy with an ejection murmur in the second left intercostal space indicate?

      Your Answer: ASD with aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: ASD with pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PH) is noted in 9 to 35 % of patient with a secundum type ASD. The haemodynamic definition of PH is a mean pulmonary arterial pressure (mPAP) of ≥25 mmHg at rest by means of right heart catheterization. In ASD, The findings on physical examination depend on the degree of left-to-right shunt and its hemodynamic consequences, which, in turn, depends on the size of the defect, the diastolic properties of both ventricles, and the relative resistance of the pulmonary and systemic circulations.Blood flow across the atrial septal defect (ASD) does not cause a murmur at the site of the shunt because no substantial pressure gradient exists between the atria. However, ASD with moderate-to-large left-to-right shunts results in increased right ventricular stroke volume across the pulmonary outflow tract creating a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur. This murmur is heard in the second intercostal space at the upper left sternal border.Patients with large left-to-right shunts often have a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur at the lower left sternal border because of increased flow across the tricuspid valve.ASD is an acyanotic lesion. Thus, the patient should be normally saturated. In the rare case of severe pulmonary arterial hypertension, atrial shunt reversal (Eisenmenger syndrome) may occur, leading to cyanosis and clubbing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      60.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 1-week-old baby presents with a large blue bruise-like mark on his back....

    Correct

    • A 1-week-old baby presents with a large blue bruise-like mark on his back. His mother noticed the mark that same morning and she is concerned about its severity. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mongolian spot

      Explanation:

      Mongolian spots, otherwise called congenital dermal melanocytosis, are pigmented birthmarks. They are usually located on the buttocks or back and although they’re usually present at birth, they may appear soon after. They are flat and have a blue-grey colour (bruise-like). They are benign and present no health risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 4 year old boy is wetting his bed at night or whenever...

    Correct

    • A 4 year old boy is wetting his bed at night or whenever he gets excited. His parents are concerned. What is the best strategy?

      Your Answer: Behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Generally, bed-wetting before age 7 isn’t a concern as the child may still be developing night-time bladder control. The child is less than 5 years and most children will outgrow bed-wetting on their own. Therefore only reassurance and behavioural therapy are suggested at this stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The positive likelihood ratio for a diagnostic test is 3. A patient, whose...

    Correct

    • The positive likelihood ratio for a diagnostic test is 3. A patient, whose pre-test odds were 2 tests positiveThe following is most accurate:

      Your Answer: Their prior odds of having the disease are now 6

      Explanation:

      Before the test, the patient was likely to have the disease being tested for. Their pre test odds were 2, making them twice as likely to have the disease. After testing positive, their pretest odds of 2 and the likelihood ratio of 3 are multiplied to produce 6 as the post test odds. The patient is now 6 times as likely to have the disease after the test. Likelihood ratios above 10 or below 0.1 are strong evidence to rule in and rule out a diagnosis. The negative likelihood ratio is not known here, but does not subtract from the interpretation of the outcomes in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 4-year old boy arrives at the clinic due to sudden onset knee...

    Correct

    • A 4-year old boy arrives at the clinic due to sudden onset knee pain that has been occurring over the past 2 days. The pain is associated with mild fever that started on the 2nd day. The patient is able to walk but with a limp. Examination reveals painful and restricted motion of the right knee. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Septic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Septic (infectious) arthritis is a bacterial infection of the joint space. Contamination occurs either via the bloodstream, iatrogenically, or by local extension (e.g., penetrating trauma). Patients with damaged (e.g., patients with rheumatoid arthritis) or prosthetic joints have an increased risk. Patients usually present with an acutely swollen, painful joint, limited range of motion, and a fever. Suspected infectious arthritis requires prompt arthrocentesis for diagnosis. In addition to the immediate broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy, surgical drainage and debridement may be necessary to prevent cartilage destruction and sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      109.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 2-day old baby who suffered from voiding difficulties is diagnosed with hypospadias....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day old baby who suffered from voiding difficulties is diagnosed with hypospadias. Which of the following abnormalities is most often associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      Hypospadias is an abnormality of anterior urethral and penile development. The urethral opening is located on the ventral aspect of the penis proximal to the tip of the glans penis, which, in this condition, is open. The urethral opening may be located as proximal as in the scrotum or perineum. The penis may also have associated ventral shortening and curvature, called chordee, with more proximal urethral defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An 18-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of persistent palpitations. The ECG...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of persistent palpitations. The ECG shows a regular rhythm with a rate of 200 beats/min and QRS duration of 80ms. The tachycardia spontaneously resolves and presents in sinus rhythm. The PR interval is 60 ms and QRS duration is 120 ms, there is a positive delta wave in V1. Regarding the boy's tachycardia, which of the following statements holds true?

      Your Answer: Verapamil is contraindicated

      Explanation:

      Although WPW syndrome is a type of supraventricular re-entrant tachycardia, CCBs are contraindicated in its management. This is because CCBs depress AVN conduction| the current then passes through the accessory pathway (bundle of Kent) instead, causing ventricular tachycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 5-month-old baby was brought by the mother for assessment. The baby can...

    Correct

    • A 5-month-old baby was brought by the mother for assessment. The baby can sit with support but not on his own. On examination, there is palmar grasp. How is the current development of this child?

      Your Answer: Normal

      Explanation:

      All the given development milestones are compatible with the given age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur radiating to between her scapulae. A radio-femoral delay was also found. Which of the following is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Noonan's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      These cardiovascular findings are suggestive of coarctation of the aorta, which is common among patients with Turner’s syndrome. Physical features of Turner’s syndrome include a short neck with a webbed appearance, a low hairline at the back of the head, low-set ears, and narrow fingernails and toenails that are turned upward.Atrioventricular septal defect is the most common cardiac anomaly in Down’s syndrome. Structural heart defects at birth (i.e., ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus) are common in Edward’s syndrome. Pulmonary stenosis with or without dysplastic pulmonary valve and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are common in Noonan’s syndrome. Supravalvar aortic stenosis and peripheral pulmonary stenosis are found in William’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he has achieved normal developmental miles stones so far?

      Your Answer: Pick up a raisin between forefinger and thumb

      Explanation:

      In a child with an age of 12 months – pincer grasp should be well developed. It is essential to have a good grasp of important milestones. Most 12-month-old children will be mobile, by standing holding onto a support, lifting one foot and moving it sideways (‘cruising’ around the furniture). They will demonstrate a neat pincer grasp, e.g. picking up a raisin or piece of paper between the tip of the index finger and the thumb. Words (or meaningful word-like utterances) are produced, but words are not usually chosen and put together deliberately by a child until after the second birthday (typically around the age of 30 months). Word combinations used earlier than this are likely to be an echo of a learnt phrase which may be understood by the child to be one single word even though they are a combination of more than one word (e.g. daddy, home). Building a tower of three cubes and following a one-step command such as ‘take off your socks’, is expected at 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a...

    Correct

    • Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. Which of these changes will decrease the rate of diffusion of a substance?

      Your Answer: An increase in the molecular weight of the substance

      Explanation:

      Unless given IV, a drug must cross several semipermeable cell membranes before it reaches the systemic circulation. Drugs may cross cell membranes by diffusion, amongst other mechanisms. The rate of diffusion of a substance is proportional to the difference in the concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane, the temperature of the solution, the permeability of the membrane and, in the case of ions, the electrical potential difference between the two sides of the membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 17-year-old female, who works at a day-care centre presents to the physician...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old female, who works at a day-care centre presents to the physician with vomiting, joint pains, diarrhoea and crampy abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals a purpuric rash on her legs and over the belt area. She has microscopic haematuria, proteinuria and RBC casts on urine testing. Which of the underlying diagnoses is most likely in this case?

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), also known as IgA vasculitis, is a disease of the skin, mucous membranes, and sometimes other organs that most commonly affects children. In the skin, the disease causes palpable purpura (small, raised areas of bleeding underneath the skin), often with joint pain and abdominal pain. It is an acute immunoglobulin A (IgA)–mediated disorder. The tetrad of purpura, arthritis, kidney inflammation, and abdominal pain is often observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - When discussing child development with a parent, which one of the following motor...

    Correct

    • When discussing child development with a parent, which one of the following motor skills would NOT be expected of a 3-year-old?

      Your Answer: Catching a bounced ball

      Explanation:

      Milestones of 3 years old:Social and Emotional:Copies adults and friends Shows affection for friends without prompting Takes turns in games Shows concern for crying friend Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” Shows a wide range of emotions Separates easily from mom and dad May get upset with major changes in routineDresses and undresses self Language/Communication:Follows instructions with 2 or 3 steps Can name most familiar things Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” Says first name, age, and sexNames a friend Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentences Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving):Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces Understands what “two” means Copies a circle with pencil or crayon Turns book pages one at a time Builds towers of more than 6 blocks Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns door handle Movement/Physical Development:Climbs well Runs easily Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) Walks up and down stairs, one foot on each step

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Children with eczema herpeticum exhibit which of the following features? ...

    Correct

    • Children with eczema herpeticum exhibit which of the following features?

      Your Answer: Atopic children have reduced immunity to the herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Eczema herpeticum is a form of Kaposi varicelliform eruption, characterized by extensive vesicular skin eruptions that arise from a pre-existing skin condition, usually atopic dermatitis. The most common pathogen is the herpes simplex virus type 1, which has a higher propensity of attacking the epidermis already damaged by atopic dermatitis. The incubation period of the illness is 5-14 days. The eruption is initially small, monomorphic, dome-shaped papulovesicles that rupture to form tiny punched-out ulcers. It is diagnosed by taking viral swabs for culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Bone age would be delayed in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Bone age would be delayed in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome in a 7 year old boy

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21 in a 10 year old boy

      Explanation:

      Bone age is used to determine the maturation of a child’s bones’ and is used to detect pathological growth. This is done using the X-ray of the wrist. Several conditions can either advance or delay the bone age such that they may not match the child’s chronological age. Bone age is advanced in conditions where there are prolonged or elevated sex hormone levels such as precocious puberty, or in genetic overgrowth conditions such as Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome. Bone age is delayed in constitutional growth delay, chronic ill health, endocrine disorders such as growth hormone deficiencies or hypothyroidism, genetic disorders such as Trisomy 21, Trisomy 18, and Turner’s syndrome. Obesity is unlikely to cause growth delay.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      69.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following...

    Correct

    • Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following diseases?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Advanced paternal age is associated with poor quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility along with an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, Marfan’s syndrome, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor. Turner syndrome is not found to be caused by advanced paternal age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the following is the most common adverse effect he might complain about?

      Your Answer: Dental abscess

      Correct Answer: Dysphonia

      Explanation:

      Usage of inhaled corticosteroids are less associated with systemic adverse effects. However they are associated with local complications including dental caries and most commonly dysphonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Treacher Collins syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?...

    Correct

    • Treacher Collins syndrome is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Hirsutism

      Explanation:

      Treacher Collins syndrome is a congenital disorder transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. The basic abnormality is the TCOF 1 gene mutation, which leads to a multitude of clinical features, of which the most striking is the symmetrical craniofacial deformities. Important clinical features include conductive deafness, coloboma of lower eyelids, cleft palate, antimongoloid (short and downward slanting) palpebral fissures, deformed or absent ears, sleep apnoea, and airway issues. Hirsutism is not a recognized feature of this syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      74.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (6/6) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (2/2) 100%
Neonatology (1/1) 100%
Nutrition (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/1) 0%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Child Development (4/4) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (1/2) 50%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/2) 50%
Fluid And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Passmed