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  • Question 1 - A 16 year old dies in a road traffic accident. What is the...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old dies in a road traffic accident. What is the mortality proportion attributed to accidents in this age group?

      Your Answer: 40-50%

      Explanation:

      Deaths by age group: 60% <1 year - due mainly to congenital, neonatal, and infection related problems.10% 1-4 years - due to accident (15%), cancer (15%), or congenital problems (14%)18% 15-19 years - accidental (42%) accidents reflect increased risk taking

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old boy's mother notices he has a lump in his arm, near his right shoulder. An X-ray reveals a lateral projection in the metaphyseal region of his humerus. The lesion is removed and it is found to be composed of bony cortex, capped by cartilage. What's the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondromas, or osteocartilaginous exostoses, are the most common benign bone tumours, and tend to appear near the ends of long bones. The overgrowth can occur in any bone where cartilage forms bone, and they are capped by cartilage. They are most common in people between the ages of 10-20 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A young child presents with a dull and greyish tympanic membrane and no...

    Incorrect

    • A young child presents with a dull and greyish tympanic membrane and no shadow of the handle of malleus is evident. His mother complains that he does not respond when she calls him and that he lately raises the volume of the TV. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic OM

      Correct Answer: Secretory OM

      Explanation:

      In secretory OM, effusion in the middle ear is present which does not produce any pain to the patient in comparison to acute OM which produces otalgia. The family members are the ones to notice hearing loss as the patient usually is not aware of it. On otoscopy, the features described in the question are prominent. Otitis externa is usually painful and it also produces an itching sensation. Chronic otitis media is painful and may interfere with balance problems. Cholesteatoma is an abnormal cystic growth in the middle ear that usually discharges foul-smelling fluids and as it grows, otalgia can appear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 11-month-old child was given breakfast cereal containing cashew nuts following which he...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-month-old child was given breakfast cereal containing cashew nuts following which he suddenly developed stridor and is struggling to breathe. The patient was brought to the emergency room tired and unable to cough. On examination, he is found to be conscious, and there is no rash. Auscultation did not reveal any abnormal breath sounds.What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline intramuscularly

      Correct Answer: Five back blows

      Explanation:

      This clinical presentation is highly suggestive of choking. According to the BLS algorithm, the next step in managing a case of choking in a conscious child with an ineffective cough is five back blows.Other options:- Adrenaline intramuscularly: The history is similar to anaphylaxis, but the absence of a rash or oedema and the acute onset make choking more likely in this situation. Thus, adrenaline will not be of use in this patient.- CPR at a ratio of 15:2: Since the child is conscious, it is not advised. If the child were unconscious, you would commence basic life support.- Five abdominal thrusts: In the given scenario, the child is an infant. Abdominal thrusts are avoided in infants due to the risk of intra-abdominal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      75.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 9 year old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started...

    Correct

    • A 9 year old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started two days ago with profound diarrhoea and emesis. Blood exams show the following: Sodium=148mmol/l, Potassium=2.2mmol/l, Urea=20mmol/l, Glucose=4.3mmol/l. What would be the best management?

      Your Answer: V normal saline and potassium supplement

      Explanation:

      The boy needs re-hydration and hydro-electrolytic re-balancing due to fluid losses from the gastroenteritis and subsequent dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 17-year-old female presents with pelvic pain occurring during her periods, with 'deep'...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female presents with pelvic pain occurring during her periods, with 'deep' pain during intercourse and pain on defecation during this time. She states that her periods are regular with little bleeding.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease

      Correct Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is defined as the presence of normal endometrial mucosa (glands and stroma) abnormally implanted in locations other than the uterine cavityAbout one third of women with endometriosis remain asymptomatic. When they do occur, symptoms, such as the following, typically reflect the area of involvement:- Dysmenorrhea- Heavy or irregular bleeding- Pelvic pain- Lower abdominal or back pain – Dyspareunia- Dyschezia (pain on defecation) – Often with cycles of diarrhoea and constipation- Bloating, nausea, and vomiting- Inguinal pain- Pain on micturition and/or urinary frequency- Pain during exercise- Patients with endometriosis do not frequently have any physical examination findings beyond tenderness related to the site of involvement. – The most common finding is nonspecific pelvic tenderness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage...

    Correct

    • An 11-year-old boy with a suspected brain tumour displays features of disinhibition. Damage to which of the following areas would most likely result in these findings?

      Your Answer: Right frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation of the boy suggests the involvement of the right frontal lobe.Psychiatric or behavioural disturbances secondary to frontal lobe lesions exhibit lateralisation. The lesions of the left hemisphere are associated with depression, especially if the lesion involves the dorsolateral portion of the prefrontal cortex. Whereas, lesions of the right hemisphere are associated with impulsivity, disinhibition, and aggression, as it is the case with the child in question.Presenting symptoms of lobar dysfunctions:- Frontal lobe: Contralateral hemiplegia, impaired problem solving, disinhibition, and lack of initiative. Broca’s aphasia and agraphia suggest the involvement of the dominant hemisphere.- Temporal lobe: Wernicke’s aphasia (dominant hemisphere involvement), homonymous upper quadrantanopia and auditory agnosia (non-dominant hemisphere involvement).- Parietal lobe: Anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect and constructional apraxia are observed when the non-dominant hemisphere is involved. Gerstmann’s syndrome is observed when the dominant hemisphere is involved.- Occipital lobe: Visual agnosia, visual illusions and contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Correct

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?

      Your Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure

      Explanation:

      Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights. congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy, who had developed shortness of breath and a loss of appetite over the last month, was referred to a haematologist because he presented with easy bruising and petechiae. His prothrombin time, platelet count, partial thromboplastin and bleeding time were all normal. Which of the following would explain the presence of the petechiae and easy bruising tendency?

      Your Answer: Scurvy

      Explanation:

      Scurvy is a condition caused by a dietary deficiency of vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid. Humans are unable to synthesize vitamin C, therefore the quantity of it that the body needs has to come from the diet. The presence of an adequate quantity of vitamin C is required for normal collagen synthesis. In scurvy bleeding tendency is due to capillary fragility and not coagulation defects, therefore blood tests are normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      72.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old swimmer develops an infection in his external auditory meatus. The infection is extremely painful.Which one of the following nerves conveys sensation from this region?

      Your Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve

      Explanation:

      The sensory innervation of the external auditory meatus is provided by branches of several cranial nerves. The auriculotemporal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V3) with the nerve to external acoustic meatus supplies the anterior and superior wall of the canal with sensory innervation. The auricular branch of the vagus nerve (CN X) supplies the posterior and inferior walls of the canal, and the facial nerve (CN VII) may also supply it due to its connection with the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - As the junior doctor on duty you are called to see a 4...

    Correct

    • As the junior doctor on duty you are called to see a 4 year old boy who is has been experiencing intermittent temperature spikes of 38.7C throughout the night. He underwent a laparoscopic appendicectomy for a perforated appendix four days ago, and has opened his bowels with diarrhoea. His chest is clear on examination.Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his condition?

      Your Answer: Intra-abdominal collection

      Explanation:

      Perforated appendices are common in children as it is more difficult to surgically assess an unwell child due to poor localisation of abdominal pain, and their inability to express discomfort. They are therefore prone to a greater risk of post operative complications including would infections, intra abdominal fluid collections, and chest infections. In the above scenario the spiking temperature points to an abscess, which characteristically presents with a swinging temperature. The fever is unlikely due to bacterial resistance as blood tests performed post surgery would have indicated any resistance, and a UTI is also unlikely since the child is already on antibiotics. As his chest is clinically clear, a severe chest infection may be ruled out, leaving intra-abdominal collection as the most likely explanation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 12-year-old female presented with a bleeding nose. On examination by the ENT...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old female presented with a bleeding nose. On examination by the ENT surgeon, it was noticed that the bleeding was coming from the anterior part of the nose and the bleeding point was clearly visualised. Which of the following options is the most suitable choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Cautery

      Explanation:

      In the case of anterior nasal bleeds, when the bleeding point is clearly visualised the best management step is cautery, either electrical or chemical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Where would you visualise the azygous lobe on an antero-posterior (A-P) chest X-ray?...

    Incorrect

    • Where would you visualise the azygous lobe on an antero-posterior (A-P) chest X-ray?

      Your Answer: Left upper zone

      Correct Answer: Right upper zone

      Explanation:

      The azygos lobe is usually well seen on the chest radiograph, where it is limited by the azygos fissure, a fine, convex (relative to the mediastinum) line that crosses the apex of the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 12-year-old child has hypertrophic villi found on biopsy. The most possible diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old child has hypertrophic villi found on biopsy. The most possible diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Coeliac Disease

      Correct Answer: Allergy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic villi is a response to chronic irritation by allergic reactions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia?

      Your Answer: Venous blood haematocrit > 65%

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is described as an abnormal increase in the red cell mass. As this influences hyper-viscosity, a peripheral venous sample of blood haematocrit can be used to determine the packed cell volume. Polycythaemia is present if the venous haematocrit is >65% or <22g/dl if converted into a haemoglobin value. Though it is the method of choice for screening, capillary blood samples obtained though heel pricks in new-born may be as much as 15% higher than venous samples and thus high values must be confirmed with a venous sample.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcaemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand.What is the treatment of choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:Short statureStocky habitusObesityDevelopmental delayRound faceDental hypoplasiaBrachymetacarpalsBrachymetatarsalsSoft tissue calcification/ossificationThe goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following best describes odds ratios? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes odds ratios?

      Your Answer: The odds of an event in one group divided by the odds of the event in another

      Explanation:

      Odds ratios are best described as the odds of an event in one group divided by the odds of the event in another. They form an alternative to the relative risk in case–control studies and are close to the relative risk when events are rare. The odds are the number of the event divided by the number without the event, which is less intuitive than the risk, which is the number with the event divided by the total. Odds ratios are therefore less intuitive than relative risks. Logistic regression analysis outputs variable coefficients which are the log of the odds ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following would a 9-year old girl with newly diagnosed type...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would a 9-year old girl with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes not require annually?

      Your Answer: Retinopathy screening

      Explanation:

      Retinopathy screening need not be done on an annual basis for a 9-year-old child. Screening for diabetic retinopathy should begin at the age of 12.Diabetes mellitus is an increasing problem in both developing and developed countries alike. Some of the risk factors include:ObesityFamily historyFemale sex Asian and African racesPresence of acanthosis nigricans is seen with type 2 but not type 1 diabetesThe diagnosis is mostly incidental or subacute.The treatment aims are good blood sugar control, maintenance of normal BMI, and reduction of complications. The treatment modality also includes lifestyle modifications and cessation of smoking. Even after all this, diabetic ketoacidosis can still occur.Management of diabetes mellitus – NICE guidelines (Updated, 2015): – Standard release metformin should be offered from the moment of diagnosis.- HBA1c should be measured every three months. The target HBA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower is ideal for minimising the risk of long term complications.- Children should undergo an eye examination by an optician every two years.- Annual immunisation against influenza and pneumococcal infections are essential.- There is an increased risk of psychological and psychosocial difficulties if the child with type 1 diabetes is on insulin or oral hypoglycaemic medications. These include anxiety disorder, depression, behavioural and conduct disorders and family conflict.- Annual monitoring to be done for:Hypertension starting at diagnosis.Dyslipidaemia starting at diagnosis.Screening for microalbuminuria starting at diagnosis.Diabetic retinopathy from 12 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following conditions does not commonly cause a Trendelenburg gait pattern?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions does not commonly cause a Trendelenburg gait pattern?

      Your Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Trendelenburg gait is an abnormal gait resulting from a defective hip abductor mechanism. The primary musculature involved is the gluteal musculature, including the gluteus medius and gluteus minimus muscles. The weakness of these muscles causes drooping of the pelvis to the contralateral side while walking.Any pathology of the fulcrum, load, effort or the lever which binds all three will lead to a positive Trendelenburg gait.Failure of the fulcrum presents in the following conditions:Osteonecrosis of hipLegg-Calve-Perthes diseaseDevelopmental dysplasia of the hipChronically dislocated hips secondary to traumaChronically dislocated hips secondary to infections like tuberculosis of the hipFailure of the lever is a feature in the following conditions:Greater trochanteric avulsionNon-union of the neck of the femurCoxa VaraFailure of effort presents in the following conditions:PoliomyelitisL5 radiculopathySuperior gluteal nerve damageGluteus medius and minimus tendinitisGluteus medius and minimus abscessPost total hip arthroplastyThe gait of Juvenile idiopathic arthritis patients can be explained as a crouch-like gait with hyperflexion in hip and knee joints and less plantar flexion in the ankle

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is complaining of severe acne. She does not have her period yet and her BMI is 37. She has high insulin levels on her lab results. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 6 year old boy presents with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration. He is...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy presents with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration. He is receiving IV fluids and a routine blood test is done to evaluate kidney function and look for signs of acute kidney injury. All of the following are being used to evaluate for kidney injury, except:

      Your Answer: Potassium >6mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is not to evaluate or detect AKI but rather the result of it. If one of the rest of the options is present, then AKI would be suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows...

    Correct

    • Which of the given medical conditions is associated with renal cysts and follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in autosomal dominant fashion. It is caused by the mutations of the VHL gene located on chromosome 3. The syndrome is characterized by the creation of multiple benign and malignant tumours involving various bodily systems along with the formation of numerous visceral cysts, including the renal and epididymal cysts. Down’s syndrome is associated with renal cysts, but it does not follow the autosomal dominant mode of inheritance, rather it is caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during meiosis. Exomphalos is a defect of the medial abdominal wall leading to abnormal protrusion of abdominal viscera through it. It is not associated with renal cysts. Turner’s syndrome may be associated with renal cysts formation, but it is not transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion. Polycystic kidney disease of childhood follows an autosomal recessive pattern of transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In the treatment of infants with gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is...

    Correct

    • In the treatment of infants with gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is the most accurate one?

      Your Answer: Should be admitted to hospital if they are unable to tolerate fluid orally

      Explanation:

      The main problem with infants having gastroenteritis is dehydration. So they should be admitted to the hospital for IV fluids if they are not tolerating oral fluids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      91.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a...

    Correct

    • Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. Which of these changes will decrease the rate of diffusion of a substance?

      Your Answer: An increase in the molecular weight of the substance

      Explanation:

      Unless given IV, a drug must cross several semipermeable cell membranes before it reaches the systemic circulation. Drugs may cross cell membranes by diffusion, amongst other mechanisms. The rate of diffusion of a substance is proportional to the difference in the concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane, the temperature of the solution, the permeability of the membrane and, in the case of ions, the electrical potential difference between the two sides of the membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for...

    Incorrect

    • The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for which of the following?

      Your Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous return with obstruction

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid atresia

      Explanation:

      Tricuspid atresia is the third most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease, with a prevalence of 0.3-3.7% in patients with congenital heart disease. The deformity consists of a complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve with the absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle.The following 3 considerations guide the treatment of infants with tricuspid atresia:- The amount of pulmonary blood flow must be regulated to decrease hypoxemia or symptoms of congestive heart failure.- Myocardial function, the integrity of the pulmonary vascular bed, and pulmonary vascular integrity must be preserved to optimize conditions for a later Fontan operation.- The risk of bacterial endocarditis and thromboembolism must be minimized.Infants with decreased pulmonary blood flow: encompasses most of the infants with tricuspid atresia.Marked cyanosis and hypoxemia characterize the clinical course. Acidaemia may occur if the hypoxemia is profound, and death can ensue.Promptly treat infants with severe hypoxemia with prostaglandin E infusions to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus and improve pulmonary blood flow.Infants with increased pulmonary blood flow: These infants have an associated unrestrictive ventricular septal defect and transposed great vessels.They present with severe congestive heart failure and benefit from digitalis and diuretic therapy until an operative intervention can be undertaken to restrict the pulmonary blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Renal tubular acidosis affects the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule or...

    Incorrect

    • Renal tubular acidosis affects the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule or excretion of hydrogen ions from the distal tubule. Which of the following is a key difference in clinical presentation of these two types of renal tubular acidosis?

      Your Answer: There is failure to thrive

      Correct Answer: Renal stone formation

      Explanation:

      Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes calcium and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria. This precipitates calcium compounds in the kidney, predisposing it to renal stone formation. On the other hand, proximal renal tubular acidosis is characterised by an impairment in bicarbonate resorption. Both types lead to metabolic acidosis and electrolyte imbalances including potassium depletion. Children often present with failure to thrive. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA (type 2) administering an ammonium chloride load will decrease the urinary pH whereas in distal disease (type 1), the urine pH will not decrease below 5.3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      63.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her face. Some of the blisters are crusted and some are weeping. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HSV 1

      Correct Answer: Impetigo

      Explanation:

      Impetigo appears more commonly on the face than other exposed areas like the limbs. Its blisters are clustered and may have a fluid discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A nursery teacher has expressed concern to the parents of an 18-month-old girl...

    Incorrect

    • A nursery teacher has expressed concern to the parents of an 18-month-old girl about her language development.Which feature would NOT be associated with language delay in an 18-month-old child?

      Your Answer: Failure to respond to own name

      Correct Answer: Lack of imitative gesture

      Explanation:

      18-month-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalLikes to hand things to others as play May have temper tantrums May be afraid of strangers Shows affection to familiar people Plays simple pretend, such as feeding a doll May cling to caregivers in new situations Points to show others something interesting Explores alone but with parent close by Language/CommunicationSays several single words Says and shakes head “no” Points to show someone what he wants Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Knows what ordinary things are for| for example, telephone, brush, spoon Points to get the attention of others Shows interest in a doll or stuffed animal by pretending to feed Points to one body part Scribbles on his own Can follow 1-step verbal commands without any gestures| for example, sits when you say “sit down” Movement/Physical DevelopmentWalks alone May walk up steps and run Pulls toys while walking Can help undress herself Drinks from a cup Eats with a spoon

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      63.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old...

    Correct

    • A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old child.Which of the following could cause low calcium levels due to an artefact?

      Your Answer: Albumin

      Explanation:

      The accuracy of the test for calcium levels in the blood is affected by the blood level of albumin. If albumin levels are low, the calcium level can also appear low.This is termed as pseudohypocalcemia.Hypocalcaemia usually presents with muscle spams. These can include spasms of voluntary muscle but also smooth muscle such as in the airways (causing bronchospasm) and in the heart (causing angina).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      20.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
ENT (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (3/4) 75%
Adolescent Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology And Neurodisability (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Neonatology (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Genitourinary (0/1) 0%
Nephro-urology (2/3) 67%
Fluid And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Child Development (0/1) 0%
Passmed