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  • Question 1 - The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal...

    Correct

    • The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal branch of the inferior palpebral nerve?

      Your Answer: Infraorbital nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior palpebral nerve is a branch of the maxillary nerve. It supplies the skin and conjunctiva of the lower eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Correct

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the? ...

    Incorrect

    • During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the?

      Your Answer: Vas deferens

      Correct Answer: Wolffian duct

      Explanation:

      The development of the kidney proceeds through a series of successive phases, each marked by the development of a more advanced kidney: the pronephros, mesonephros, and metanephros. The development of the pronephric duct proceeds in a cranial-to-caudal direction. As it elongates caudally, the pronephric duct induces nearby intermediate mesoderm in the thoracolumbar area to become epithelial tubules called mesonephric tubules. Each mesonephric tubule receives a blood supply from a branch of the aorta, ending in a capillary tuft analogous to the glomerulus of the definitive nephron. The mesonephric tubule forms a capsule around the capillary tuft, allowing for filtration of blood. This filtrate flows through the mesonephric tubule and is drained into the continuation of the pronephric duct, now called the mesonephric duct or Wolffian duct. The nephrotomes of the pronephros degenerate while the mesonephric duct extends towards the most caudal end of the embryo, ultimately attaching to the cloaca.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is the source of blood supply to the artery...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the source of blood supply to the artery of the round ligament at the head of the femur?

      Your Answer: Lateral femoral circumflex artery

      Correct Answer: Obturator artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior branch of the obturator artery provides an articular branch to the head of the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 30 year old female presented in the emergency with an irregular pulse....

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female presented in the emergency with an irregular pulse. Her ECG showed absent P-waves with irregular RR interval. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Atrial flutter

      Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common cardiac arrhythmias. It is often asymptomatic but may present with symptoms of palpitations, fainting, chest pain and heart failure. Characteristic findings are: absence of P-waves, unorganised electrical activity in their place, irregularity of RR interval due to irregular conduction of impulses to the ventricles and if paroxysmal AF is suspected, episodes may be documented with the use of Holter monitoring

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - From which branchial (pharyngeal) pouch does the inferior parathyroid gland arise? ...

    Correct

    • From which branchial (pharyngeal) pouch does the inferior parathyroid gland arise?

      Your Answer: 3rd

      Explanation:

      The following structures arise from each branchial pouch:

      1st pouch – eustachian tube, middle ear, mastoid, and inner layer of the tympanic membrane

      2nd pouch – middle ear, palatine tonsils

      3rd pouch – inferior parathyroid glands, thymus

      4th pouch – superior parathyroid glands, ultimobranchial body which forms the parafollicular C-cells of the thyroid gland, musculature and cartilage of larynx (along with the sixth pharyngeal pouch)

      5th pouch – rudimentary structure

      6th pouch – along with the fourth pouch, contributes to the formation of the musculature and cartilage of the larynx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Endocrine; Embryology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod?

      Your Answer: Proteus species

      Correct Answer: Clostridium tetani

      Explanation:

      Gram-positive rods include Clostridia, Listeria and diphtheroids.

      Gram-negative rods include Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Yersinia, Haemohilus, Pseudomonas, Shigella, Legionella, proteus and Salmonella

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral...

    Incorrect

    • In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral artery located?

      Your Answer: Deep compartment

      Correct Answer: Lateral compartment

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath also known as the crural sheath is made up of three compartments; lateral, intermediate and the medial. The femoral artery is contained in the lateral compartment of the femoral sheath while the femoral vein is in the intermediate compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27-yeaar-old woman is diagnosed with candidiasis and prescribed fluconazole. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-yeaar-old woman is diagnosed with candidiasis and prescribed fluconazole. What is the mechanism of action of fluconazole?

      Your Answer: Inhibits lipoprotein lipase

      Correct Answer: Inhibits cytochrome P450

      Explanation:

      Fluconazole is a triazole antifungal drug used in the treatment and prevention of superficial and systemic fungal infections. Like other imidazole- and triazole-class antifungals, fluconazole inhibits the fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme, 14-demethylase. It is used to treat candidiasis, blastomycosis, coccidioidomycosis, cryptococcosis, histoplasmosis, dermatophytosis, and pityriasis versicolor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 54-year-old woman is re-admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman is re-admitted to the hospital with shortness of breath and sharp chest pain 2 weeks after surgical cholecystectomy. The most probable cause of these clinical findings is:

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolus

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary embolism is caused by the sudden blockage of a major lung blood vessel, usually by a blood clot. Symptoms include sudden sharp chest pain, cough, dyspnoea, palpitations, tachycardia or loss of consciousness. Risk factors for developing pulmonary embolism include long periods of inactivity, recent surgery, trauma, pregnancy, oral contraceptives, oestrogen replacement, malignancies and venous stasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that: ...

    Correct

    • A cerebellar tremor can be differentiated from a Parkinsonian tremor in that:

      Your Answer: It only occurs during voluntary movements

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar disease leads to intention tremors, which is absent at rest and appears at the onset of voluntary movements. In comparison, Parkinson’s tremor is present at rest. Frequency of tremor is a less reliable means to differentiate between the two as the oscillation amplitude of the tremor is not constant throughout a voluntary action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a...

    Incorrect

    • Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. Which of these changes will decrease the rate of diffusion of a substance?

      Your Answer: An increase in the concentration gradient

      Correct Answer: An increase in the molecular weight of the substance

      Explanation:

      Unless given IV, a drug must cross several semipermeable cell membranes before it reaches the systemic circulation. Drugs may cross cell membranes by diffusion, amongst other mechanisms. The rate of diffusion of a substance is proportional to the difference in the concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane, the temperature of the solution, the permeability of the membrane and, in the case of ions, the electrical potential difference between the two sides of the membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      65.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer: Central sulcus

      Correct Answer: Postcentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus and is the largest cortical receiving area for information from somatosensory receptors. Through corticocortical fibres, it then sends the information to other areas of the neocortex and further analysis takes place in the posterior parietal association cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which cells are most commonly seen in a granulomatous lesion that suggests an...

    Incorrect

    • Which cells are most commonly seen in a granulomatous lesion that suggests an underlying chronic inflammation?

      Your Answer: Mast cells

      Correct Answer: Lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Lymphocytes and monocytes are commonly and characteristically recognised in a case of chronic inflammation.

      Eosinophils and neutrophils are seen with acute inflammation.

      Mast cells release histamine in early inflammation.

      Basophils are seen with allergies.

      Plasma cells are seen with viral infection.

      Platelets are not characteristic of any type of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in...

    Incorrect

    • When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in which part of the pleural space?

      Your Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costo-diaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity or sac. Any fluid in the pleura will by gravity accumulate here when a patient is standing erect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 40-year old gentleman, known with a history of peptic ulcer disease, was...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old gentleman, known with a history of peptic ulcer disease, was brought to the clinic in a dehydrated state with persistent vomiting. His blood investigations revealed:
      • sodium = 142 mmol/l
      • potassium = 2.6 mmol/l
      • chloride = 85 mmol/l
      • pH = 7.55
      • p(CO2) = 50 mmHg
      • p(O2) = 107 mmHg
      • standard bicarbonate = 40 mmol/l
      This patient has a:

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      High pH with high standard bicarbonate indicates metabolic alkalosis. The pa(CO2) was appropriately low in compensation. This is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic acidosis due to prolonged vomiting. Treatment includes treating the cause and intravenous sodium chloride with potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      79.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45-year old with sarcoidosis has enlarged tracheobronchial lymph nodes. Which nerve is...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old with sarcoidosis has enlarged tracheobronchial lymph nodes. Which nerve is most likely to be irritated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Right vagus

      Correct Answer: Left recurrent laryngeal

      Explanation:

      Tracheobronchial lymph nodes are located at the bifurcation of the trachea and are in three groups i.e. the right superior, left superior and inferior. The aorta arches over the left bronchus near the point of tracheal bifurcation. Thus, the nerves that are closely associated with the aorta might be irritated if these nodes become inflamed. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is such a nerve. The phrenic nerves, both the left and the right, are lateral and thus would not be affected. The right recurrent nerve loops around the right subclavian artery and is distant from this area. The right vagus artery is not associated with the aorta and the sympathetic chain is located in the posterior chest parallel to the vertebra, also not associated with the tracheobronchial tree.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal...

    Incorrect

    • Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal between tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus was lacerated. Which of the following arteries was injured?

      Your Answer: Posterior tibial

      Correct Answer: Peroneal

      Explanation:

      The peroneal artery is deeply seated at the back of the fibular side of the leg, contained in a fibrous canal between the tibialis posterior and the flexor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive...

    Correct

    • A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive myocardial infarction. She was found to be in hypotensive shock with focal neurological signs. Unfortunately the patient demised. What would be the expected findings on the brain biopsy?

      Your Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      Liquefactive necrosis is often associated with bacterial or fungal infections. However, hypoxic death of cells within the central nervous system can also result in liquefactive necrosis. The focal area is soft with a liquefied centre containing necrotic debris and dead white cells. This may later be enclosed by a cystic wall

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Neurology
      • Pathology
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following is most likely to cause hypovolaemic hypernatremia: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most likely to cause hypovolaemic hypernatremia:

      Your Answer: Central diabetes insipidus

      Correct Answer: Hyperalimentation

      Explanation:

      Hypernatremia, characterised by a high serum sodium concentration, is rarely associated with volume overload (hypervolemia). A hypovolaemic hypernatremia may be seen during excessive administration of hypertonic sodium bicarbonate, hypertonic saline or hyperalimentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      68.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man is diagnosed with emphysema and cirrhosis of the liver. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is diagnosed with emphysema and cirrhosis of the liver. Which of the following condition may be the cause of both cirrhosis and emphysema in this patient?

      Your Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Correct Answer: Alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT) deficiency is a condition characterised by the lack of a protein that protects the lungs and liver from damage, called alpha1-antytripsin. The main complications of this condition are liver diseases such as cirrhosis and chronic hepatitis, due to accumulation of abnormal alpha 1-antytripsin and emphysema due to loss of the proteolytic protection of the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 45-year old gentleman presented to the emergency department at 5.00 AM with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old gentleman presented to the emergency department at 5.00 AM with pain in his left flank. The pain began suddenly and presented in waves throughout the night. Urine examination was normal except for presence of blood and few white blood cells. The pH and specific gravity of the urine were also found to be within normal range. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma of bladder

      Correct Answer: Ureteric calculus

      Explanation:

      A calculus in the ureter, if less than 5mm in diameter is likely to pass spontaneously. However, a larger calculus irritates the ureter and may become lodged, leading to hydroureter and/or hydronephrosis. Likely sites where the calculus might get lodged, include pelviureteric junction, distal ureter at the level of iliac vessels and the vesicoureteric junction. An obstruction can result in reduced glomerular filtration. There can be deterioration in renal function due to hydronephrosis and a raised glomerular pressure, leading to poor renal blood flow. Permanent renal dysfunction usually takes about 4 weeks to occur. Secondary infection can also occur in chronic obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the innervation of the laryngeal mucosa inferior to the true vocal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the innervation of the laryngeal mucosa inferior to the true vocal cord?

      Your Answer: External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Motor innervation to all other muscles of the larynx and sensory innervation to the subglottis is by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that the hernial sac is protruding out of the superficial inguinal ring. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?

      Your Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique just above and lateral to the pubic crest. The opening is oblique and corresponds to the fibres of the aponeurosis. It is bound inferiorly by the pubic crest, on either side by the margins of the opening in the aponeurosis and superiorly by the curved intercrural fibres.

      The inferior crus is formed by the portion of the inguinal ligament that is inserted into the pubic tubercle.

      The falx inguinalis is made of arching fibres of the transversalis fascia and the internal abdominal oblique muscle. It forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      The internal abdominal oblique forms the root of the inguinal canal.

      Scarpa’s and Camper’s fascia are the membranous and fatty layers, respectively of subcutaneous fascia.

      Transversalis fascia covers the posterior surface of the rectus abdominis muscle inferior to the arcuate line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A correct statement about the RECTUM: ...

    Incorrect

    • A correct statement about the RECTUM:

      Your Answer: It is surrounded by peritoneum along its entire length (about 12 cm long, normally)

      Correct Answer: It is an important anastomotic site for the portal and caval (systemic) venous systems

      Explanation:

      The rectum is part of the gastrointestinal tract that is continuous above with the sigmoid colon and below with the anal canal. It contains both longitudinal and circular smooth muscles. These are supplied by the enteric nervous system. It is about 12 cm long. It has no sacculations comparable with those of the colon. It has three permanent transverse folds called the valves of Houston. The peritoneum is related to the upper two thirds of the rectum only whereas the lower part is not covered by peritoneum. It is supplied by the superior rectal (hemorrhoidal) branch of the inferior mesenteric artery and the median sacral artery that is a direct branch from the abdominal aorta. It is drained by veins that begin as a plexus that surround the anus. These veins form anastomoses with the portal system (portocaval anastomoses).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The third branch of the maxillary artery lies in which fossa? ...

    Incorrect

    • The third branch of the maxillary artery lies in which fossa?

      Your Answer: Cranial cavity

      Correct Answer: Pterygopalatine fossa

      Explanation:

      The maxillary artery supplies deep structures of the face. It branches from the external carotid artery just deep to the neck of the mandible. It is divided into three portions:

      – The first or mandibular portion (or bony portion) passes horizontally forward, between the neck of the mandible and the sphenomandibular ligament.

      – The second or pterygoid portion (or muscular portion) runs obliquely forward and upward under cover of the ramus of the mandible, on the surface of the lateral pterygoid muscle; it then passes between the two heads of origin of this muscle and enters the fossa.

      – The third portion lies in the pterygopalatine fossa in relation to the pterygopalatine ganglion. This is considered the terminal branch of the maxillary artery. Branches from the third portion includes: the sphenopalatine artery, descending palatine artery, infraorbital artery, posterior superior alveolar artery, artery of pterygoid canal, pharyngeal artery, middle superior alveolar artery and anterior superior alveolar artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What...

    Incorrect

    • Myoglobin is released as a result of rhabdomyolysis from damaged skeletal muscles. What function do they perform in the muscle?

      Your Answer: Produces ATP

      Correct Answer: Acts like haemoglobin and binds with O2

      Explanation:

      Myoglobin is a pigmented globular protein made up of 153 amino acids with a prosthetic group containing haem around which the apoprotein folds. It is the primary oxygen carrying protein of the muscles. The binding of oxygen to myoglobin is unaffected by the oxygen pressure as it has an instant tendency to bind given its hyperbolic oxygen curve. It releases oxygen at very low pO2 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus?

      Your Answer: Hyoglossus

      Correct Answer: Tensor veli palatini

      Explanation:

      The tensor veli palatini tenses the soft palate and by doing so, assists the levator veli palatini in elevating the palate to occlude and prevent entry of food into the nasopharynx during swallowing. It arises by a flat lamella from the scaphoid fossa at the base of the medial pterygoid plate, from the spina angularis of the sphenoid and from the lateral wall of the cartilage of the auditory tube. Descending vertically between the medial pterygoid plate and the medial pterygoid muscle, it ends in a tendon which winds around the pterygoid hamulus, being retained in this situation by some of the fibres of origin of the medial pterygoid muscle. Between the tendon and the hamulus is a small bursa. The tendon then passes medialward and is inserted onto the palatine aponeurosis and the surface behind the transverse ridge on the horizontal part of the palatine bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - If a catheter is placed in the main pulmonary artery of a healthy...

    Incorrect

    • If a catheter is placed in the main pulmonary artery of a healthy 30-year-old woman, which of the following will be its mean pulmonary arterial pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15 mmHg

      Explanation:

      The pulmonary artery pressure (PA pressure) is a measure of the blood pressure found in the main pulmonary artery. The hydrostatic pressure of the pulmonary circulation refers to the actual pressure inside pulmonary vessels relative to atmospheric pressure. Hydrostatic (blood pressure) in the pulmonary vascular bed is low compared with that of similar systemic vessels. The mean pulmonary arterial pressure is about 15 mmHg (ranging from about 13 to 19 mmHg) and is much lower than the average systemic arterial pressure of 90 mmHg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of the neck and divides the anterior triangle into three smaller triangles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digastric

      Explanation:

      The digastric muscle is a small muscle located under the jaw. It lies below the body of the mandible, and extends, in a curved form, from the mastoid process to the symphysis menti. The digastric divides the anterior triangle of the neck into three smaller triangles:

      – The submaxillary triangle, bounded above by the lower border of the body of the mandible and a line drawn from its angle to the sternocleidomastoid, below by the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid and in front by the anterior belly of the digastric

      – The carotid triangle, bounded above by the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid, behind by the sternocleidomastoid and below by the omohyoid

      – The suprahyoid or submental triangle, bounded laterally by the anterior belly of the digastric, medially by the midline of the neck from the hyoid bone to the symphysis menti and inferiorly by the body of the hyoid bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (5/14) 36%
Head & Neck (4/6) 67%
Embryology (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (0/3) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Physiology (4/7) 57%
Endocrine; Embryology (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (1/7) 14%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (3/4) 75%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/2) 0%
Inflammation & Immunology (0/1) 0%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (0/2) 0%
General (1/1) 100%
Passmed