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  • Question 1 - A 38 year old man is to undergo excision of the base of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old man is to undergo excision of the base of the prostate for malignant growth, which of the following structures is directly related to the base of the prostate?

      Your Answer: Superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm

      Correct Answer: Urinary bladder

      Explanation:

      The prostate is situated in the pelvic cavity and is also located immediately below the internal urethral orifice at the commencement of the urethra. It is held in position by the puboprostatic ligaments, the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm and the anterior portions of the levatores ani. The base of the prostate is directed upward and is attached to the inferior surface of the urinary bladder while the apex is directed downward and is in contact with the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the...

    Correct

    • The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the three layers of the meninges. Which of the following foramen transmits the dura mater?

      Your Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa . It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata . Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges (arachnoid, dura and pia mater), spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Correct

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25 year old women is pregnant with her second child. She is...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old women is pregnant with her second child. She is A- blood group. Her first child was Rh+ and the father is also Rh+. The second child is at a risk of developing which condition?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic disease of the new-born

      Explanation:

      This infant is at risk for haemolytic disease of the new born also known as erythroblastosis fetalis. In the pregnancy, Rh-positive RBC’s cross the placenta and enter the mothers blood system. She then becomes sensitised and forms IgG antibodies/anti-Rh antibodies against them. The second child is at a greater risk for this disease than the first child with Rh-positive blood group as during the second pregnancy, a more powerful response is produced. IgG has the ability to cross the placenta and bind to the fetal RBCs (type II hypersensitivity reaction) which are phagocytosed by the macrophages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology
      • Pathology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A middle aged man presented in OPD with a low grade fever and a persistent cough. His blood smear showed an increase in cells with large bi-lobed nuclei. Which of these cells represent the one seen on the smear?

      Your Answer: Lymphocytes

      Correct Answer: Monocytes

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are white cells that protect the body against harmful pathogens. They are mobile and are produced in the bone marrow, mature there and circulate in the blood for about 1-3 days, where they enter the tissues and transform into macrophages. They are characteristically identified by their large bi-lobed nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport...

    Correct

    • Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport of glucose in the renal tubular cells occurs via:

      Your Answer: Secondary active transport with sodium

      Explanation:

      In 1960, Robert K. Crane presented for the first time his discovery of the sodium-glucose cotransport as the mechanism for glucose absorption. Glucose transport through biological membranes requires specific transport proteins. Transport of glucose through the apical membrane of renal tubular as well as intestinal epithelial cells depends on the presence of secondary active Na+–glucose symporters, SGLT-1 and SGLT-2, which concentrate glucose inside the cells, using the energy provided by co-transport of Na+ ions down their electrochemical gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following terms best describes the movement of leukocytes towards a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following terms best describes the movement of leukocytes towards a specific target?

      Your Answer: Chemotaxis

      Explanation:

      The movement of leukocytes towards a chemical mediator is termed chemotaxis and the mediators likewise called chemoattractants.

      Diapedesis is the squeezing of the leukocytes from the capillary wall into the intercellular space.

      Endocytosis is engulfing of a small substance by the cells e.g. glucose, protein, fats.

      Margination is lining of the WBC along the periphery of the blood vessel.

      Adhesion is attachment with the vessel wall.

      Phagocytosis is described as engulfing the bacteria or the offending substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A tumour on the floor of the fourth ventricle is most likely to...

    Correct

    • A tumour on the floor of the fourth ventricle is most likely to compress which of the following cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer: Abducent

      Explanation:

      The fourth ventricle, is a cavity of the brains ventricular system in which the cerebrospinal fluid is formed. This cavity is located behind the pons and upper half of the medulla oblongata. It extends from the cerebral aqueduct, to its connection to the third ventricle, and to the obex- which is the caudal tip of the fourth ventricle. The floor of the fourth ventricle consists of three parts – superior, intermediate and inferior. This inferior aspect of the floor of the fourth ventricle has the nucleus of the abducens nerve, CN VI which is looped over by the facial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In a young, sexually active male, what is the most common cause of...

    Correct

    • In a young, sexually active male, what is the most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia

      Explanation:

      Non-gonococcal urethritis is most commonly caused by Chlamydia trachomatis (50% cases). Less common organisms include Mycoplasma genitalium, Urea urealyticum and Trichomonas vaginalis. Chlamydia is also the commonest cause of non-gonococcal cervicitis in women and proctitis in both sexes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage: ...

    Correct

    • Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage:

      Your Answer: The left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein

      Explanation:

      Spermatic or testicular veins arise from the posterior aspect of the testis and receive tributaries from the epididymis. Upon uniting, they form the pampiniform plexus that makes up the greater mass of the spermatic cord. The vessels that make up this plexus rise up the spermatic cord in front of the ductus deferens. They then unite, below the superficial ring, to form three or four veins that traverse the inguinal canal and enter the abdomen through the deep inguinal ring. They further unite to form 2 veins that ascend up the psoas major muscle behind the peritoneum each lying on either side of the testicular artery. These further unite to form one vein that empties on the right side of the inferior vena cava at an acute angle and on the left side into the renal vein, at a right angle. The left testicular vein courses behind the iliac colon and is thus exposed to pressure from the contents of this part of the bowel. The ovarian vein is the equivalent of the testicular vein in women. They form a plexus in the broad ligament near the ovary and uterine tube and communicate with the uterine plexus. They drain into similar vessels as in a man.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 -  A 45-year-old man presented to the doctor complaining of a flank pain and...

    Correct

    •  A 45-year-old man presented to the doctor complaining of a flank pain and episodes of haematuria. Abdominal ultrasound revealed a left renal mass and the patient underwent a nephrectomy. Histopathological pattern was triphasic with blastemal, epithelial, and stromal components. The pathologist suggested the tumour resulted from the lack of a tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 11. Which of the following tumours is the pathologist most likely suggesting?

      Your Answer: Wilms’ tumour

      Explanation:

      Wilms’ tumour is one of the most common malignant tumours of childhood but it can also rarely be found in adults. In biopsy, classical histopathological findings include the triphasic pattern composed by blastemal, epithelial, and stromal elements. First symptoms in children include an abdominal palpable mass, while in adults pain and haematuria are the most common complaints. Deletions of tumours’ suppressor genes on chromosome 11 are usually associated with Wilms’ tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 60-year old woman who has a left sided post-pneumonic effusion, was to...

    Correct

    • A 60-year old woman who has a left sided post-pneumonic effusion, was to have some pleural fluid aspirated for culture and sensitivity. If the medical intern in charge of the procedure decided to aspirate while the patient is sitting up on her bed, where in the pleural cavity would the fluid tend to accumulate?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The lowest part of the pleural cavity is the costodiaphragmatic recess and it the space in which the pleural fluid will accumulate when the patient sits up.

      The cupola is part of the pleural cavity that extends into the root of the neck above the first rib.

      The costomediastinal recess is the junction at which the costal pleura becomes the mediastinal pleura.

      The middle mediastinum is the part of the mediastinum that is occupied by the heart.

      The hilar reflection is the point where the mediastinal pleura is reflected to continue on as the visceral pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following conditions of the breast is most often associated with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions of the breast is most often associated with use of oral contraceptives?

      Your Answer: Cyst formation

      Explanation:

      Breast cysts are common and are smooth, firm, mobile lumps that can sometimes be tender. Cysts can also be bilateral and are known to recur in 10% of cases. They are more common in women in the third and fourth decades and most often disappear after menopause. Cysts are filled with fluid from the breast which occurs due to the normal menstrual cycle of a woman. The end of the menstrual cycle causes breast cells to swell. After the menses, the cells shrink and the released fluid disappears. However, in some cases this fluid forms a cyst. Incidence of cysts was also linked to use of oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A medical student is told a substance is freely filtered but is not...

    Correct

    • A medical student is told a substance is freely filtered but is not metabolised, secreted, or stored in the kidney. It has a plasma concentration of 1000 mg/l and its urine excretion rate is 25 mg/min, and the inulin clearance is 100 ml/min. What is the rate of tubular reabsorption of the substance?

      Your Answer: 75 mg/min

      Explanation:

      Reabsorption or tubular reabsorption is the process by which the nephron removes water and solutes from the tubular fluid (pre-urine) and returns them to the circulating blood. To calculate the reabsorption rate of substance Z we use the following equation: excretion = (filtration + secretion) – reabsorption. As this substance is freely filtered, its filtration rate is equal to that of inulin. So 25 = (100 + 0) – reabsorption. Reabsorption = 100 – 25 therefore reabsorption = 75 mg/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be...

    Correct

    • A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be suffering from an oesophageal hiatal hernia. Which muscle fibres of the diaphragm border this hernia directly if the stomach herniates through an enlarged oesophageal hiatus?

      Your Answer: Right crus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is a natural fissure on the thoracic diaphragm that allows passage of the oesophagus and the vagal nerve. The oesophageal hiatus is located in one of the tendinous structures of the diaphragm that connect it to the spine which is known as the right crus. In case of an hiatal hernia, this diaphragmatic structure would be the one bordering the hernia as it is the structure that encircles the oesophageal hiatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into which of the following structures?...

    Correct

    • The ostium of the maxillary sinus opens into which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Middle meatus

      Explanation:

      The maxillary sinuses usually develop symmetrically. The maxillary sinus ostium drains into the infundibulum which joins the hiatus semilunaris and drains into the middle meatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following clinical signs will be demonstrated in a case of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical signs will be demonstrated in a case of Brown-Séquard syndrome due to hemisection of the spinal cord at mid-thoracic level?

      Your Answer: Contralateral spastic paralysis, contralateral loss of vibration and proprioception (position sense) and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation beginning one or two segments below the lesion

      Correct Answer: Ipsilateral spastic paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception (position sense) and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation beginning one or two segments below the lesion

      Explanation:

      Brown–Séquard syndrome results due to lateral hemisection of the spinal cord and results in a loss of motricity (paralysis and ataxia) and sensation. The hemisection of the cord results in a lesion of each of the three main neural systems: the principal upper motor neurone pathway of the corticospinal tract, one or both dorsal columns and the spinothalamic tract. As a result of the injury to these three main brain pathways the patient will present with three lesions. The corticospinal lesion produces spastic paralysis on the same side of the body (the loss of moderation by the upper motor neurons). The lesion to fasciculus gracilis or fasciculus cuneatus results in ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception (position sense). The loss of the spinothalamic tract leads to pain and temperature sensation being lost from the contralateral side beginning one or two segments below the lesion. At the lesion site, all sensory modalities are lost on the same side, and an ipsilateral flaccid paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left...

    Correct

    • A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?

      Your Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to...

    Correct

    • A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?

      Your Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his...

    Incorrect

    • A swimmer was struggling to finish his training following an injury to his right arm. On further examination it was found that any movements involving adduction, medial rotation and extension of her arm were particularly weak. Which nerve in this case was damaged?

      Your Answer: Medial pectoral

      Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal

      Explanation:

      Weakness on these particular movements indicate that there is a problem with the latissimus dorsi muscle. This muscle is very important particularly in swimming movements and is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      14
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (9/11) 82%
Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Head & Neck (4/4) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology; Haematology (1/1) 100%
Pathology (5/6) 83%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/2) 50%
Physiology (2/3) 67%
Renal (4/4) 100%
Abdomen (3/3) 100%
Thorax (2/2) 100%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Passmed