-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
The process of DNA amplification and quantification is called:
Your Answer: Southern blotting
Correct Answer: PCR
Explanation:PCR/polymerase chain reaction is a procedure carried out in a test tube that can be used on the smallest amount of DNA to amplify it, allowing for millions of copies of specific nucleotides to be made.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Synthesis of haem for haemoglobin occurs in the?
Your Answer: Nucleus of the red blood cells
Correct Answer: Mitochondria of the red blood cells
Explanation:Haemoglobin (Hb) is synthesized in a complex series of steps. The haem part is synthesized in a series of steps in the mitochondria and the cytosol of immature red blood cells, while the globin protein parts are synthesized by ribosomes in the cytosol.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
Where in the gastrointestinal tract are valvulae conniventes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Jejunum
Explanation:The circular folds (valves of Kerckring or valvulae conniventes) are large valvular flaps projecting into the lumen of the small intestine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
The pressure in the portal circulation is normally adjusted in the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sinusoids
Explanation:The pressure in the portal circulation depends on the pressure of the hepatic sinusoids mainly because the direction of transport of nutrients in the portal vein occurs from the portal vein to the hepatic sinusoids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Endotoxin will typically act on which one of the following cells, to produce endogenous pyrogens?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monocytes
Explanation:Endotoxin, also known as lipopolysaccharides or lipoglycans, are molecules that consist of a lipid and a polysaccharide. They bind to many cell types, but especially to monocytes, promoting the secretion of proinflammatory cytokines, acting as a pyrogen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
In which organ will you find extremely porous sinusoidal capillaries, with discontinuous endothelium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver
Explanation:The liver is the organ which contains sinusoidal capillaries with discontinuous endothelium. The brain, lungs and the intestine all contain continuous capillaries, however the kidney contains fenestrated capillaries to aid in filtration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells
Explanation:Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease characterized by patches of skin typically red, dry, itchy, and scaly. Psoriasis can affect the nails and produces a variety of changes in the appearance of finger and toe nails including pitting and onycholysis. Nail psoriasis occurs in 40–45% of people with psoriasis affecting the skin and has a lifetime incidence of 80–90% in those with psoriatic arthritis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which of the following skin conditions is not associated with diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sweet's syndrome
Explanation:Diabetic dermadromes constitute a group of cutaneous conditions commonly seen in people with diabetes with longstanding disease. Conditions included in this group are:- Acral dry gangrene- Carotenosis- Diabetic dermopathy- Diabetic bulla- Diabetic cheiroarthropathy- Malum perforans- Necrobiosis lipoidica- Limited joint mobility- Scleroderma- Waxy skin is observed in roughly 50%. Sweet’s syndrome is also known as acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis has a strong association with acute myeloid leukaemia. It is not associated with diabetes mellitus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
Renin is secreted by which of the following cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Juxtaglomerular cells
Explanation:The juxtaglomerular cells are cells in the kidney that synthesize, store, and secrete the enzyme renin. They are specialized smooth muscle cells mainly in the walls of the afferent arterioles, and some in the efferent arterioles, that deliver blood to the glomerulus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Renal
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Phosphate absorption in the proximal tubules is via which transporting molecule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Na/Pi co transporter
Explanation:Sodium/phosphate cotransporters are located in the renal proximal tubular brush border, and are the key elements in proximal tubular phosphate reabsorption and phosphate homeostasis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which of the following cancers is responsible in producing osteoblastic bone metastases instead of osteolytic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostate adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bone metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Connective Tissue
- Medicine
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which of the following factors is directly responsible for the breakdown of fibrinogen to fibrin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thrombin
Explanation:Prothrombin (coagulation factor II) is proteolytically cleaved to form thrombin in the coagulation cascade, the clotting process. Thrombin in turn acts as a serine protease that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble strands of fibrin, as well as catalysing many other coagulation-related reactions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman under treatment for long-term epilepsy with valproate presented with complaints of excessive weight gain. She is consuming oral contraceptive pills.Which among the following is the best alternative to valproate for treating long-term epilepsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Among the given anti-epileptics the best drug that can be given in this patient is lamotrigine.Topiramate, carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbital are all hepatic enzyme inducers and are associated with decreased effectiveness of the oral contraceptive (OCP) due to acceleration of the metabolism of oestrogens and progestogens.If she is planning on pregnancy then registry studies suggest that lamotrigine would also be the best choice.Other hepatic enzyme inducers include rifampicin, spironolactone, griseofulvin, etc.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
What is the average life span of red blood cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 months
Explanation:Approximately 2.4 million new erythrocytes are produced per second in human adults. The cells develop in the bone marrow and circulate for about 100–120 days (4 months) in the body before their components are recycled by macrophages.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Immortality can result from over expression of which enzyme?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Telomerase
Explanation:Telomerase activity is seen in germ cells and is absent in somatic cells. Telomeres prevent the chromosomes from shortening and prevent the coding portion of the DNA from being lost, thus allowing the cell to replicate indefinitely.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Medicine
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Which of the following proteins are NOT synthesized in the liver?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steroid
Explanation:Human steroidogenesis occurs in a number of locations:- Corticosteroids are produced in the adrenal cortex.- Oestrogen and progesterone are made primarily in the ovary and the placenta during pregnancy, and testosterone in the testes.- Testosterone is also converted to oestrogen to regulate the supply of each in females and males.- Some neurons and glia in the central nervous system (CNS) express the enzymes required for the local synthesis of pregnant neurosteroids, de novo or from peripheral sources.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 62 year old female complains of pain and stiffness in her shoulders. She also finds it difficult to get out of her chair. From the list of symptoms below, choose the one most likely to support the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low grade fever
Explanation:Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory disease which usually causes stiffness and pain in the shoulder – this can also occur in the pelvic girdle muscles. Its onset can either be subacute or acute and is associated with a systemic inflammatory response. This, therefore, causes symptoms such as fever, weight loss, anorexia, and malaise. Polymyalgia rheumatica is unpredictable in its course and it is known that 30 per cent of patients also present with giant cell arteritis. The cause of this disease is unknown but studies have shown it have infectious origins. Diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica can be difficult and other inflammatory diseases have to be excluded first. Patients with this disease are usually over 60 years of age (it is very rarely seen in those under 50). Muscle weakness does not present, although this can be hard to assess when the patient is in pain. Low-grade fever and weight loss are typical of this disease due to chronic inflammation. As such, weight gain is very rare and peripheral joints are usually not affected (they can be affected but it is very rare). Also, muscle tenderness is not a specific symptom of the disease – it is therefore not a classical finding of polymyalgia rheumatica. Although patients usually complain of stiffness and pain, the muscles are usually not significantly tender – this is usually more associated with fibromyalgia or myositis. When investigated, a normochromic/normocytic anaemia; a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate often over 50 mm/hr., and raised C reactive protein are usually revealed. Symptoms of giant cell arteritis should also be sought, such as headaches, visual disturbances, TIAs (transient ischemic attacks), jaw claudication, and thickened temporal arteries. The patient response to a moderate dose of steroids is useful when confirming a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica. The maximum dose of prednisolone should not exceed 20mg once a day. After treatment, patients should show a 70 per cent improvement in symptoms within a month (between 3-4 weeks). Inflammatory markers should also fall back to their normal levels. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are of little use and are associated with morbidity. There is also little evidence for the use of steroidal-sparing agents.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatrics
- Medicine
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
The Plateau phase in myocyte action potentials does all of the following except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It allows early reactivation of the myocytes
Explanation:The presence of the plateau in the action potential causes ventricular contraction to last as much as 15 times longer in cardiac muscle as in skeletal muscle. The plateau phase which follows is unique to myocytes and results from a small, but sustained inward calcium current through L-type calcium channels lasting 200-400 ms. This calcium influx is caused by a combined increase in permeability of the cell and especially the sarcolemmal membranes to calcium. This plateau (refractory) phase prevents early reactivation of the myocytes and directly determines the strength of contraction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Which of the following do not pass through the cavernous sinus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CN 2
Explanation:Oculomotor nerve (N3), trochlear nerve (N4), ophthalmic and mandibular divisions of the trigeminal nerve (N5) pass along its lateral border. The abducent nerve (N6) passes through it along with the internal carotid artery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Mean intra pleural pressure at rest with inspiration can reach:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: -6 mmHg
Explanation:It is a negative pressure as it is lower than the atmospheric pressure. It can start from -2.5 and reach around -6 mmHg
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
What is the effect of vasopressin on the kidney?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase collecting duct permeability to water
Explanation:Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone or ADH, which increases water reabsorption in the kidney’s collecting ducts. It works by increasing water permeability in the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubules. It induces the exocytosis of AQP-CD-laden vesicles, transferring water channels from intracellular vesicles to the apical plasma membrane, therefore allowing more water to be reabsorbed from the urine in the collecting ducts to the blood.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Medicine
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old hypertensive male on phenytoin and clobazam for partial seizures is also taking lisinopril, cimetidine, sucralfate, and allopurinol. The last few drugs were added recently. He now presents with ataxia, slurred speech, and blurred vision.Which recently added drug is most likely to be the cause of his latest symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cimetidine
Explanation:The symptoms of ataxia, slurred speech and blurred vision are all suggestive of phenytoin toxicity. Cimetidine increases the efficacy of phenytoin by reducing its hepatic metabolism.Phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic index (10-20 mg/L) and its levels are monitored by measuring the total phenytoin concentration.Cimetidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used in the treatment of peptic ulcers. It acts by decreasing gastric acid secretion.Cimetidine also has an inhibitory effect on several isoforms of the cytochrome enzyme system including the CYP450 enzymatic pathway. Phenytoin is metabolized by the same cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver. Thus, the simultaneous administration of both these medications leads to an inhibition of phenytoin metabolism and thus increases its circulating levels leading to phenytoin toxicity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Stimulation of the carotid sinus results in:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drop in blood pressure
Explanation:Stimulation of the carotid sinus will result in an increase in the baroreceptor discharge. This will travel via the afferent nerves to the medulla. Signals will pass through the vagus nerve to decrease the sympathetic outflow to the heart and the blood vessels. This inhibition will result in vasodilation of the blood vessels, venodilation and bradycardia hence decreasing the total peripheral resistance and lowering the blood pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Medicine
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
The pyloric sphincter is largely made up of thickening of
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The circular muscle layer
Explanation:The pyloric sphincter, or valve, is a strong ring of smooth muscle (circular muscle layer) at the end of the pyloric canal which lets food pass from the stomach to the duodenum. It controls the outflow of gastric contents into the duodenum. It receives sympathetic innervation from the celiac ganglion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and breathing difficulty. He also complains of a continuous ringing sensation in both his ears for the past couple of days. He admits to consuming a lot of over the counter painkillers for the past few days. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:The presence of tinnitus, fever and hyperventilation are clues for aspirin (salicylate) toxicity. Clinical Presentation of salicylate toxicity can include:• Pulmonary manifestations include: Hyperventilation, hyperpnea, severe dyspnoea due to noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema, fever and dyspnoea due to aspiration pneumonitis• Auditory symptoms caused by the ototoxicity of salicylate poisoning include: Hard of hearing and deafness, and tinnitus (commonly encountered when serum salicylate concentrations exceed 30 mg/dL).• Cardiovascular manifestations include: Tachycardia, hypotension, dysrhythmias – E.g., ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, multiple premature ventricular contractions, asystole – with severe intoxication, Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities – E.g., U waves, flattened T waves, QT prolongation may reflect hypokalaemia.• Neurologic manifestations include: CNS depression, with manifestations ranging from somnolence and lethargy to seizures and coma, tremors, blurring of vision, seizures, cerebral oedema – With severe intoxication, encephalopathy• GI manifestations include: Nausea and vomiting, which are very common with acute toxicity, epigastric pain, GI haemorrhage – More common with chronic intoxication, intestinal perforation, pancreatitis, hepatitis – Generally in chronic toxicity; rare in acute toxicity, Oesophageal strictures – Reported as a very rare delayed complication• Genitourinary manifestations include: Acute kidney injury (NSAID induced Nephropathy) is an uncommon complication of salicylate toxicity, renal failure may be secondary to multisystem organ failure.• Hematologic effects may include prolongation of the prothrombin and bleeding times and decreased platelet adhesiveness. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be noted with multisystem organ failure in association with chronic salicylate toxicity.• Electrolyte imbalances like: Dehydration, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), hypokalaemiaManagement of these patients should be done in the following manner:• Secure Airway, Breathing, and Circulation• Supportive therapy• GI decontamination• Urinary excretion and alkalization• Haemodialysis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Which dorsal (sensory) root is responsible for umbilical area sensation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:The area of skin supplied by one nerve is called a dermatome. T10 supplies sensory neurons to the area of the umbilicus. C3 and C4 supply the neck and the shoulder, T4 supplies the dermatome at the level of the nipple, S3 supplies the inguinal region and L5 supplies the lateral aspect of the leg and the medical aspect of the dorsum of the feet plus the first 3 toes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Neurology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is false regarding the bioavailability of a drug?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The bioavailability of a drug given orally is often affected by the degree of renal elimination
Explanation:Renal elimination of a drug has no role in altering the bioavailability of a drug.The bioavailability of a drug is the proportion of the drug which reaches systemic circulation. Mathematically, bioavailability is the AUCoral/AUCiv x 100%, where AUC = area under the concentration-time curve following a single (oral or iv) dose. Other options are true:By definition, the bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%.Drugs given orally that undergo high pre-systemic (first-pass) metabolism in the liver or gut wall have a low bioavailability e.g. lidocaine. Bioavailability is also affected by the degree of absorption from the gut and this can change depending on gut motility and administration of other drugs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Select the correct statement regarding terminal bronchioles:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Terminal bronchioles form part of the conducting zone
Explanation:Bronchioles divide into even smaller bronchioles, called terminal bronchioles, which are 0.5mm or less in diameter. Terminal bronchioles in turn divide into smaller respiratory bronchioles which divide into alveolar ducts. Terminal bronchioles mark the end of the conducting division of air flow in the respiratory system while respiratory bronchioles are the beginning of the respiratory division where actual gas exchange takes place. Terminal bronchioles are lined with simple cuboidal epithelium containing club cells. Terminal bronchioles contain a limited number of ciliated cells and no goblet cells. Club cells are non-ciliated, rounded protein secreting cells. Their secretions are a non-stick, proteinaceous compound (surfactant) to maintain the airway in the smallest bronchioles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
The transport of the di- and tri-peptides into enterocytes is by:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: H+ dependent peptide transporter 1
Explanation:Peptides longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cell of the small intestine via a transporter called Peptide Transporter 1 by co transport with H+ ions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Medicine
-
SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
