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  • Question 1 - Amino acid reabsorption occurs most markedly in the? ...

    Correct

    • Amino acid reabsorption occurs most markedly in the?

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Renal protein reabsorption is the part of renal physiology that deals with the retrieval of filtered proteins, preventing them from disappearing from the body through the urine. Almost all reabsorption takes place in the proximal tubule. Only ,1% is left in the final urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      255.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which...

    Correct

    • A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which of the following?

      Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Vasoactive inhibitory peptide (VIP) is found in the nerves innervating the GIT. It markedly stimulates the secretion of intestinal electrolytes and also with them water. This results in secretary diarrhoea. Along with that it also relaxes intestinal smooth muscle including the sphincters, it also results in dilation of the peripheral blood vessels and along with this its also inhibits gastric acid secretions. A VIPoma will exaggerate all this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which clotting factor is responsible for stabilization of the fibrin clot by formation...

    Incorrect

    • Which clotting factor is responsible for stabilization of the fibrin clot by formation of covalent cross-linkages?

      Your Answer: Factor XIIa

      Correct Answer: Factor XIIIa

      Explanation:

      Factor XIII or fibrin stabilizing factor is an enzyme of the blood coagulation system that crosslinks fibrin. Deficiency of this factor (FXIIID) affects clot stability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight

      Your Answer: None of the above.

      Correct Answer: It is sexually transmitted.

      Explanation:

      Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) is the eighth human herpesvirus or HHV-8. This virus causes Kaposi’s sarcoma, a cancer commonly occurring in AIDS patients, as well as primary effusion lymphoma and some types of multicentric Castleman’s disease. It is one of seven currently known human cancer viruses, or oncoviruses. The mechanisms by which the virus is contracted are not well understood. Healthy individuals can be infected with the virus and show no signs or symptoms, due to the immune system’s ability to keep the infection in check. Infection is of particular concern to the immunosuppressed. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy, AIDS patients and organ transplant patients are all at a high risk of showing signs of infection. The virus is sexually transmitted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      55.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following describes a principal action of insulin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following describes a principal action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of phosphorylase and gluconeogenic enzymes

      Explanation:

      Insulin stimulates glycolysis and lipogenesis, but inhibits gluconeogenesis. Insulin promotes the dephosphorylating of glycogen phosphorylase, therefore suppressing glycogenolysis. Insulin also inhibits FOX3, FOX4, and FOX6 and their ability to promote hepatic gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following groups are purines? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following groups are purines?

      Your Answer: Adenine, guanine, hypoxanthine

      Explanation:

      There are many naturally occurring purines. They include the nucleobases, adenine and guanine. Other notable purines are hypoxanthine, xanthine), theobromine, caffeine, uric acid and isoguanine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old with varicose veins complains of swollen, red, itchy legs. Which is...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old with varicose veins complains of swollen, red, itchy legs. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Varicose eczema

      Explanation:

      Varicose eczema is a common problem, particularly in elderly patients due to stasis or blood pooling from insufficient venous return; the alternative name of varicose eczema comes from a common cause of this being varicose veins. It is often mistaken for cellulitis, but cellulitis is rarely bilateral and is painful rather than itchy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      63.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman presented to the ED with carbon monoxide poisoning. High-flow oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presented to the ED with carbon monoxide poisoning. High-flow oxygen was administered immediately. She had a GCS of 15 and her vitals were stable. Which one of the following is not an indication for hyperbaric oxygen therapy in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Extrapyramidal features

      Correct Answer: A carboxyhaemoglobin concentration of 16%

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, considered as the great imitator of other diseases, as the patients present with a myriad of symptoms. The carbon monoxide diffuses rapidly across the pulmonary capillary membrane binding to the haem molecule with a very high affinity (240 times that of oxygen) forming carboxy-haemoglobin (COHb). Non-smokers have a baseline COHb of ,3% while smokers have a baseline COHb of 10-15%.Use of Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBOT) for treatment of mild to moderate CO poisoning is not routine.The selection criteria for HBOT in cases of CO poisoning include:• COHb levels > 20-25%• COHb levels > 20% in pregnant patient • Loss of consciousness• Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1)• Evidence of end-organ ischemia (e.g., ECG changes, chest pain, or altered mental status)Principle of HBOT:Exposing patients to 100 percent oxygen under supra-atmospheric conditions results in a decrease in the half-life (t1/2) of COHb, from , 90 min in atmospheric air to , 30 minutes. The amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood also rises from , 0.3 to 6 mL/dL, increasing the delivery of non-haemoglobin-bound oxygen to the tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Vasodilatation of coronary arteries is caused by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Vasodilatation of coronary arteries is caused by:

      Your Answer: Carbon-monoxide

      Correct Answer: Hypoxia

      Explanation:

      The heart is highly metabolically active and boasts the highest oxygen consumption by mass of any organ. This demand for oxygen is met by the coronary circulation, which is responsible for delivering blood to the myocardium and represents approximately 5% of cardiac output. Vasodilation may be due to the local effect of hypoxia on coronary vessels, or local metabolic vasodilation, or the activation of β-adrenoceptors or some combination of these mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements is most suitable to describe necrosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is most suitable to describe necrosis?

      Your Answer: Shrinking of cytoplasm and condensation of nucleus.

      Correct Answer: Significant inflammatory response

      Explanation:

      Necrosis is the death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the blood supply. Cellular death due to necrosis does not follow the (regulated) apoptotic signal transduction pathway, but rather various receptors are activated, and result in the loss of cell membrane integrity and an uncontrolled release of products of cell death into the extracellular space. This initiates in the surrounding tissue an inflammatory response which attracts leukocytes and nearby phagocytes which eliminate the dead cells by phagocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which one of the following skin disorders is least commonly associated with hypothyroidism?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following skin disorders is least commonly associated with hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Eczema

      Correct Answer: Pretibial myxoedema

      Explanation:

      Pretibial myxoedema is an infiltrative dermopathy, resulting as a rare complication of Graves’ disease (hyperthyroidism) and very occasionally occurs in non-thyrotoxic Graves’ disease and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

      Hypothyroidism typically presents with symptoms such as dry skin, brittle hair, and thinning of the outer third of the eyebrows. While skin conditions like dryness and hair changes are common in hypothyroidism due to reduced metabolic activity, acne is also not typically associated with it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      86.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Gastrin activates all of the following cells except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Gastrin activates all of the following cells except:

      Your Answer: Enterochromaffin- like cells

      Correct Answer: Mucus neck cells

      Explanation:

      The G cell is a type of cell in the stomach and duodenum that secretes gastrin. It works in conjunction with gastric chief cells and parietal cells. G cells are found deep within the pyloric glands of the stomach antrum, and occasionally in the pancreas and duodenum. Gastrin-releasing peptide, as well as the presence of amino acids in the stomach, stimulates the release of gastrin from the G cells. Gastrin stimulates enterochromaffin-like cells to secrete histamine. Gastrin also targets parietal cells by increasing the amount of histamine and the direct stimulation by gastrin, causing the parietal cells to increase HCl secretion in the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - On which chromosome is the gene for insulin located? ...

    Incorrect

    • On which chromosome is the gene for insulin located?

      Your Answer: Chromosome 6

      Correct Answer: Chromosome 11

      Explanation:

      Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, and usually, two pairs of copies of chromosome 11. It is one of the most complex, gene-rich chromosomes in the human genome, and it is associated with a number of diseases. Studies have shown they the human insulin gene is located on the short arm of chromosome 11.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The amount of a substance taken up by an organ (or whole body)...

    Correct

    • The amount of a substance taken up by an organ (or whole body) per unit time is = (the arterial level - the venous level) * the blood flow. This statement describes?

      Your Answer: The Fick principle

      Explanation:

      The essence of the Fick principle is that blood flow to an organ can be calculated using a marker substance if the following information is known:- Amount of marker substance taken up by the organ per unit time- Concentration of marker substance in arterial blood supplying the organ- Concentration of marker substance in venous blood leaving the organ

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which is true of the citric acid cycle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is true of the citric acid cycle?

      Your Answer: Is the final common pathway for the reduction of fats, amino acids and carbohydrates

      Correct Answer: Involves a series of reactions where oxaloacetate is regenerated

      Explanation:

      The cycle consumes acetate (in the form of acetyl-CoA) and water, reduces NAD+ to NADH, and produces carbon dioxide as a waste by-product. The NADH generated by the citric acid cycle is fed into the oxidative phosphorylation (electron transport) pathway. At the end of each cycle, the four-carbon oxaloacetate has been regenerated, and the cycle continues. The net result of these two closely linked pathways is the oxidation of nutrients to produce usable chemical energy in the form of ATP. Acetyl-CoA, is the starting point for the citric acid cycle and in eukaryotic cells, the citric acid cycle occurs in the matrix of the mitochondrion. Though the Krebs cycle does not directly require oxygen, it can only take place when oxygen is present because it relies on by-products and is therefore an aerobic process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He also gives history of dysuria, fever and conjunctivitis. Examination reveals macules and pustules on his hands. He has returned from a trip to Far East 3 weeks ago and admits to having unprotected sex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gonococcal arthritis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. Other STDs including HIV, syphilis have different presentations. Psoriatic arthritis is not commonly associated with urethritis and conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In a 30 year old male with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), which of...

    Correct

    • In a 30 year old male with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), which of the following is not associated with increased risk of sudden death?

      Your Answer: Age

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a disease in which a portion of the myocardium (heart muscle) is enlarged without any obvious cause, creating functional impairment of the heart. It is the leading cause of sudden death in young athletes. The major risk factors for sudden death (SD) are recent unexplained syncope unlikely to be neurocardiogenic; HCM-related SD in first-degree or other close relatives; repetitive and/or prolonged nonsustained ventricular tachycardia (NSVT) episodes on Holter or extended ambulatory monitoring; massive left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) (wall thickness ≥30 mm); extensive/diffuse late gadolinium enhancement (LGE); end-stage heart failure usually with systolic dysfunction; and thin-walled akinetic LV apical aneurysm with regional scarring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In Starling’s law of the heart, the decrease in tension developed by muscle...

    Incorrect

    • In Starling’s law of the heart, the decrease in tension developed by muscle contraction at high degrees of stretch is due to:

      Your Answer: A decrease in the number of cross bridges between myosin and actin

      Correct Answer: Disruption of myocardial fibers

      Explanation:

      Starling law states that the force of contraction is directly proportional to the preload. When the heart muscle is stretched beyond its limit the tension that is developed decreases, this is not due to loss of formation of effective myosin and actin cross bridges. The heart muscles despite being fully stretched is never stretched to this point. The reason for this decreased tension is physical disruption of the myocardial fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the mode of action of amiodarone? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mode of action of amiodarone?

      Your Answer: Potassium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic drug. Class III antiarrhythmics are potassium channel blockers, they prolong duration of action potential with resulting prolongation of effective refractory period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Where in the gastrointestinal tract are Brunner glands? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where in the gastrointestinal tract are Brunner glands?

      Your Answer: Oesophagus

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      Brunner’s glands (or duodenal glands) are compound tubular submucosal glands found in that portion of the duodenum which is above the hepatopancreatic sphincter (aka sphincter of Oddi). The main function of these glands is to produce a mucus-rich alkaline secretion (containing bicarbonate) in order to:- protect the duodenum from the acidic content of chyme (which is introduced into the duodenum from the stomach);- provide an alkaline condition for the intestinal enzymes to be active, thus enabling absorption to take place; lubricate the intestinal walls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Regarding carbohydrates absorption; ...

    Correct

    • Regarding carbohydrates absorption;

      Your Answer: Intestinal absorption of sugars is inhibited by the drug phlorizin

      Explanation:

      The main role of insulin is in the uptake of glucose from blood to tissues where it is metabolised. Glycose transporters in the intestines do not depend on the action of insulin. Phlorizin is a competitive inhibitor of SGLT1 and SGLT2 because it competes with glucose for the binding site, reducing intestinal and renal glucose transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Choose the correct statement regarding trabecular bone: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement regarding trabecular bone:

      Your Answer: All of the options are correct

      Explanation:

      Trabecular, spongy or cancellous bone. It is located inside the cortical bone and makes up around 20% of all bone in the body. It is made of spicules or plates with a high surface to volume ratio, where many cells sit on the surface of the end plates. It receives its nutrients from the extracellular fluid (ECF), exchanging about 10 mmol of calcium every 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd for pain relief. What dose of oral morphine solution should he be prescribed for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: 20 mg

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      The total daily morphine dose is 30 x 2 = 60 mg. Therefore, the breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of this, 10 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Impulse conduction through the AV node is slow and depends on the action...

    Incorrect

    • Impulse conduction through the AV node is slow and depends on the action potential produced by which of the following.

      Your Answer: Sodium diffusion

      Correct Answer: Calcium flux

      Explanation:

      The action potentials in the SA and AV nodes are largely due to Ca2+, with no contribution by Na+ influx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - In the absence of insulin: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the absence of insulin:

      Your Answer: Intestinal absorption of glucose is increased

      Correct Answer: Glucose uptake by most of the brain is normal

      Explanation:

      Although it is known that insulin levels affect glucose uptake, oxidation and storage in peripheral tissues, its role in the brain isn’t as clear. However, studies have shown that bulk brain glucose uptake isn’t affected by insulin. Glucose transport into the neurons is GLUT3 dependent, and its transport into glia and brain endothelial cells rely on GLUT1. Insulin isn’t necessary for GLUT1 or GLUT3, which explains why brain glucose uptake isn’t affected by insulin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Normally the portal venous pressure is about: ...

    Incorrect

    • Normally the portal venous pressure is about:

      Your Answer: 15mmhg

      Correct Answer: 5mmhg

      Explanation:

      Under normal physiological conditions, the pressure in the portal vein, which carries blood from the gastrointestinal tract and spleen to the liver, typically ranges around 5-10 mmHg. Pressures significantly higher than this range can indicate portal hypertension, which can be associated with liver diseases such as cirrhosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?

      Your Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) does indeed lack introns, meaning that its genes are closely packed with coding sequences. This actually means that any point mutation in the mtDNA is more likely to have an effect, not less. The lack of introns means there are fewer non-coding regions where mutations can occur without affecting gene function. Thus, mutations in mtDNA often have significant consequences because they are more likely to alter essential coding sequences.

      The other statements are true:

      • Most mitochondrial diseases are myopathies and neuropathies with a maternal pattern of inheritance: This is correct because mtDNA is inherited maternally, and many mitochondrial disorders affect muscle and nerve function.
      • Retinal degeneration, diabetes mellitus, and some forms of hearing loss are some of the other diseases attributed to mitochondrial chromosome defects: These are indeed conditions associated with mitochondrial defects.
      • Mitochondrial chromosome defects are inherited from one’s mother: This is correct, as mtDNA is passed from mother to offspring.
      • Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON), the commonest cause of blindness in young men, is an example of a mitochondrial chromosome defect: This is true; LHON is a well-known mitochondrial disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Regarding blood supply to the heart; ...

    Correct

    • Regarding blood supply to the heart;

      Your Answer: Coronary arteries fill as the heart relaxes

      Explanation:

      The heart muscles acts like the skeletal muscle in the fact that it also compress the vessels during contraction. As the pressure in the ventricle is slightly greater than in the aorta the coronary vessels collapse during systole. Blood flows through them during the diastole phase of contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is false with regard to the following statement: Proto-...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is false with regard to the following statement: Proto- oncogenes can be transformed to oncogenes in the following ways.

      Your Answer: Mutations in the genomic DNA

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of P53

      Explanation:

      Proto oncogenes cannot be transformed into oncogenes due to inhibition of P53 gene. There has to be a mutation in the proto oncogene. All the other options are true.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - In a normal heart rate at rest, the left ventricular end-diastolic volume is...

    Incorrect

    • In a normal heart rate at rest, the left ventricular end-diastolic volume is ….

      Your Answer: 70-100 ml

      Correct Answer: 100-130 ml

      Explanation:

      In cardiovascular physiology, end-diastolic volume (EDV) is the volume of blood in the right and/or left ventricle at end load or filling in (diastole) or the amount of blood in the ventricles just before systole. Because greater EDVs cause greater distention of the ventricle, EDV is often used synonymously with preload, which refers to the length of the sarcomeres in cardiac muscle prior to contraction (systole). End-diastolic volume: Right = 144 mL(± 23mL) & Left = 142 mL (± 21 mL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (12/30) 40%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal (2/5) 40%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (2/5) 40%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Cardiovascular (3/7) 43%
Cell Biology (0/2) 0%
Connective Tissue (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Passmed