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  • Question 1 - This vertebrae can be easily differentiated from the rest because of its prominent...

    Correct

    • This vertebrae can be easily differentiated from the rest because of its prominent spinous process.

      Your Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      The spinous process is the part of a vertebrae that is directed posteriorly.

      Typical cervical vertebra have spinous processes that are small and bifid, except for C7, which has a long and prominent spinous process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 33-year-old woman known to be hypothyroid and taking 150 mcg l-thyroxine daily...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman known to be hypothyroid and taking 150 mcg l-thyroxine daily is reviewed in the preoperative assessment clinic prior to a laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

      She has required three increases in her thyroid replacement therapy in the last six months.

      Her thyroid function tests are as follows:

      TSH 11 (normal range 0.4-4mU/L)
      T3 20 (normal range 9-25mU/L)
      T4 6.2 (normal range 3.5-7.8mU/L)

      What will explain this biochemical picture?

      Your Answer: Poor compliance with medication

      Explanation:

      In patients with an intact hypothalamic-pituitary axis, serial TSH measurements are used to determine the adequacy of treatment with thyroid hormones . changes in TSH levels becoming apparent after approximately eight weeks of therapy with thyroid hormone replacement. Change in T3/T4 levels are seen before changes in TSH .

      In patients taking thyroid replacement therapy, the most frequent reason for persistent elevation of serum TSH is poor compliance. Patients who do not regularly take their L-thyroxine try and catch up just before a visit to a clinician for blood test.

      Tissue-level unresponsiveness to thyroid hormone is caused by mutation in the gene controlling a receptor for T3 and is rare.

      Reduced responsiveness of target tissues to thyroid hormone aka resistance to thyroid hormones (rTH) occurs when there is a mutation in the thyroid hormone receptor ? gene. It is a rare autosomal dominant inherited syndrome of reduced end-organ responsiveness to thyroid hormone and has two types:

      Generalised resistance (GrTH)
      Pituitary resistance (PrTH)

      Patients with rTH have normal or slightly elevated serum thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, elevated serum free thyroxine (FT4) and free triiodothyronine (FT3) concentrations.

      Drugs that increase metabolism of thyroxine include:

      Warfarin
      Rifampin
      Phenytoin
      Phenobarbital
      St John’s Wort
      Carbamazepine

      These drugs lower circulating thyroid hormones and would be associated with a raised TSH but low T3/T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year old lady has a sub total thyroidectomy. On the 5th post-operative...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old lady has a sub total thyroidectomy. On the 5th post-operative day, the wound becomes erythematous and there is a purulent discharge. The most likely organism causing this is:

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

      SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
      The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

      Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      -Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
      -Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
      -Tissue hypoxia
      -Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

      Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
      1. Intraoperatively
      – Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      -Cover surgical site with dressing

      In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

      2. Post operatively
      Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

      Use of diathermy for skin incisions
      In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Medical history revealed he is on anti-epileptic medication Phenytoin. His plasma phenytoin levels are maintained between 10-12 mcg/mL (Therapeutic range: 10-20 mcg/mL). He is given a H2 antagonist receptor agent (Cimetidine) for his GERD symptoms.

      Upon follow-up, his plasma phenytoin levels increased to 38 mcg/mL.

      Regarding metabolism and elimination, which of the following best explains the pharmacokinetics of phenytoin at higher plasma levels?

      Your Answer: Elimination rate is proportional to the plasma concentration

      Correct Answer: Plasma concentration plotted against time is linear

      Explanation:

      Drug elimination is the termination of drug action, and may involve metabolism into inactive state and excretion out of the body. Duration of drug action is determined by the dose administered and the rate of elimination following the last dose.

      There are two types of elimination: first-order and zero-order elimination.

      In first-order elimination, the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration; the concentration decreases exponentially over time. It observes the characteristic half-life elimination, where the concentration decreases by 50% for every half-life.

      In zero-order elimination, the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration; the concentration decreases linearly over time. A constant amount of the drug being excreted over time, and it occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms.

      Since phenytoin is observed in elevated levels, the elimination mechanisms for it has been saturated and, thus, will have to undergo zero-order elimination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most sensitive method of detecting an intra-operative air embolism?

      Your Answer: Transoesophageal echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      An intra-operative air embolism occurs when air becomes trapped in the blood vessels during surgery.

      A transoesophageal echocardiography (OE) uses invasive echocardiography to monitor the integrity and performance of the heart. It is the gold standard as it provides real-time imaging of the heart to enable early diagnosis and treatment.

      Precordial doppler ultrasonography can also be used to detect into-operative air emboli. It is non-invasive and more practical, but is less sensitive.

      A change in end-tidal CO2 could be indicative of and increase in physiological dead-space, but could also be indicative of any processes that reduces the excretion or increases the production of CO2, making it non-specific.

      A transoesophageal stethoscope can be used to listen for the classic mill-wheel murmur produced by a large air embolus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following options is correct regarding the coagulation pathway? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following options is correct regarding the coagulation pathway?

      Your Answer: Tissue factor released by damaged tissue initiates the extrinsic pathway

      Explanation:

      The extrinsic pathway is considered as the main pathway of coagulation cascade.

      Heparin is known to inhibit the activation of coagulation factors 2,9,10, and 11.

      The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways meet at the activation of coagulation factor 10.

      Fibrinogen is converted into Fibrin in the presence of Thrombin. Plasminogen is converted into plasmin during fibrinolysis to breakdown fibrin clot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You've been summoned to the recovery room to examine a 28-year-old man who...

    Correct

    • You've been summoned to the recovery room to examine a 28-year-old man who has had an inguinal hernia repaired.

      His vital signs are normal, but you notice that he has developed abnormal upper-limb movements due to muscle contractions that cause repetitive twisting movements.

      What do you think is the most likely source for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Prochlorperazine

      Explanation:

      Dystonia is characterised by repetitive twisting movements or abnormal postures. They are classified as either primary or secondary.

      Primary dystonia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
      Secondary dystonia can be caused by focal brain lesions, Parkinson’s disease, or certain medications.

      The following drugs cause the most common drug-induced dystonic reactions:
      Antipsychotics, antiemetics (especially prochlorperazine and metoclopramide), and antidepressants.

      Following the administration of the neuroleptic prochlorperazine, 16 percent of patients experience restlessness (akathisia) and 4% experience dystonia.

      Several published reports have linked the anaesthetics thiopentone, fentanyl, and propofol to opisthotonos and other abnormal neurologic sequelae. Dystonias following a general anaesthetic are uncommon. Tramadol has been linked to serotonin syndrome, while remifentanil has been linked to muscle rigidity.

      The following are some of the risk factors:

      Positive family history
      Male
      Children
      An episode of acute dystonia occurred previously.
      Dopamine receptor (D2) antagonists at high doses and recent cocaine use

      Dystonia is treated in a variety of ways, including:

      Benztropine (as a first-line therapy):

      1-2 mg intravenous injection for adults
      Child: 0.02 mg/kg to 1 mg maximum

      Benzodiazepines are a type of benzodiazepine (second line treatment).

      Midazolam:

      1-2 mg intravenously, or 5-10 mg IV/PO diazepam

      Antihistamines with anticholinergic activity (H1receptor antagonists):

      Promethazine 25-50 mg IV/IM, or diphenhydramine 50 mg IV/IM (1 mg/kg in children) are used when benztropine is not available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 56-year old man, presents to emergency department following a cardiac arrest. On...

    Correct

    • A 56-year old man, presents to emergency department following a cardiac arrest. On history and examination, he is found to be suffering from both metabolic and respiratory acidosis as a result of his cardiac arrest.

      What is the best way to reduce the risk of acidaemia during cardiac arrest

      Your Answer: Chest compressions

      Explanation:

      Chest compressions are an essential part of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) which helps restore spontaneous circulation (ROSC).

      Sodium bicarbonate is only prescribed in patients with cardiac arrests as a result of an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants or hyperkalaemia. Its use causes the body to produce more CO2 which causes:

      Exacerbation of intracellular acidosis
      Negative inotropy to ischaemic myocardium
      Increased osmotic load of sodium into failing brain and body
      Shift of oxygen dissociation curve to the left.

      THAM is often used to treat metabolic acidosis as a result of cardiac bypass surgery and also cardiac arrest, when other standard methods have failed.

      Carbicarb (Na2CO3 0.33 molar NaHCO3 0.33 molar) has only mild effects on acidosis. It also causes an increase in arterial CO2 pressure and lactate concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open...

    Correct

    • A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open cholecystectomy. As part of the induction, suxamethonium was administered at 1.5mg/kg. Post-operatively, there was failure to restore muscle twitch responses over a course of five hours.

      Clinical chemistry studies were obtained and showed the following results:
      Butrylcholinesterase (BChE) activity: 49 U/L (Reference range: 3300-10,300 U/L)
      Dibucaine number: <4% (Reference range: 83-88%)

      The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of Suxamethonium Apnoea.

      What is the most probable phenotype of BChE of the patient?

      Your Answer: S (silent)

      Explanation:

      Silent (S) is the most probable phenotype of the patient. In S phenotype, patients have significantly reduced levels of BChE, the lowest among the four phenotypes. Because of this, individuals with S phenotype are subjected to long periods of apnoea. In addition, their dibucaine number is very low.

      Other BChE phenotypes are the following:

      Usual (U)
      Atypical (A)
      Fluoride-resistant (F)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?

      Your Answer: Causes skeletal muscle vasoconstriction

      Correct Answer: Stimulates ACTH secretion

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
      It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - When the volume of gas is measured, its value should be supported by...

    Correct

    • When the volume of gas is measured, its value should be supported by a suitable abbreviation. From the following options, what does the STPD stand for?

      Your Answer: Standard Temperature and Pressure, Dry

      Explanation:

      Gas is composed of large numbers of molecules moving in random directions, separated by distances. They undergo perfectly elastic collisions with each other and the walls of a container and transfer kinetic energy in form of heat. These assumptions bring the characteristics of gases within the range and reasonable approximation to a real gas, particularly how any change in temperature and pressure affect the behaviour of gas. According to different theories and laws proposed, mathematical equations are derived to calculate the volume of gas, also different abbreviations are being used according to given conditions. The abbreviations used are ATP, BTPS, and STPD.
      ATP stands for ambient temperature and barometric pressure, it is used to describe the conditions under which volume of gas is measured.
      BTPS stands for body temperature and pressure saturated with water vapor. These are conditions under which volume of gas exist and all results of lung volume determination should be quoted at BTPS.
      STPD stands for standard temperature and pressure, dry (0C and 760 mm Hg). These are the conditions that are used to describe quantities of individual gases exchanged in the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would most likely explain a failed post-operative analgesia via local anaesthesia of a neck abscess?

      Your Answer: pKA

      Explanation:

      For the local anaesthetic base to be stable in solution, it is formulated as a hydrochloride salt. As such, the molecules exist in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection. However, this form will not penetrate the neuron. The time for onset of local anaesthesia is therefore predicated on the proportion of molecules that convert to the tertiary, lipid-soluble structure when exposed to physiologic pH (7.4).

      The ionization constant (pKa) for the anaesthetic predicts the proportion of molecules that exists in each of these states. By definition, the pKa of a molecule represents the pH at which 50% of the molecules exist in the lipid-soluble tertiary form and 50% in the quaternary, water-soluble form. The pKa of all local anaesthetics is >7.4 (physiologic pH), and therefore a greater proportion the molecules exists in the quaternary, water-soluble form when injected into tissue having normal pH of 7.4.

      Furthermore, the acidic environment associated with inflamed tissues favours the quaternary, water-soluble configuration even further. Presumably, this accounts for difficulty when attempting to anesthetize inflamed or infected tissues; fewer molecules exist as tertiary lipid-soluble forms that can penetrate nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)?

      Your Answer: Sympathomimetic effects work mainly through ?1 but also ? receptors

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline acts as a sympathomimetic effect via alpha as well as a beta receptor. However, they have weak ?2 action.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Out of the following, which anatomical structure lies within the spiral groove of...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following, which anatomical structure lies within the spiral groove of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The shaft of the humerus has two prominent features:
      1. Deltoid tuberosity – attachment for the deltoid muscle
      2. Radial or spiral groove – The radial nerve and profunda brachii artery lie in the groove

      Mid-shaft fractures of the humerus usually occur after a direct blow to the upper arm, which can occur after a fall or RTAs. The most important clinical significance of a mid-shaft humeral fracture is an injury to the radial nerve. The radial nerve originates from the brachial plexus and has roots of C5-T1. It crosses the spiral groove on the posterior side of the shaft of the humerus.
      On examination, the patient may have a wrist drop, loss or weakness of finger extension, and decreased or absent sensation to the posterior forearm, digits 1 to 3, and the radial half of the fourth digit.

      The following parts of the humerus are in direct contact with the indicated
      nerves:
      Surgical neck: axillary nerve.
      Radial groove: radial nerve.
      Distal end of humerus: median nerve.
      Medial epicondyle: ulnar nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of: ...

    Correct

    • The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of:

      Your Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord and the vertebral canal are as long as each other in early fetal life. The length of the cord increases faster than the growth of the vertebrae during development. By the time of birth, the spinal cord is at the level of the lower border of the 3rd lumbar vertebra, compared to its original position at the level of the 2nd coccygeal vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An adult and a 7-year-old child are anatomically and physiologically very different.

    Which of...

    Correct

    • An adult and a 7-year-old child are anatomically and physiologically very different.

      Which of the following physiological characteristics of a 5-year-old most closely resembles those of a healthy adult?

      Your Answer: Dead space ratio

      Explanation:

      Whatever the age, the dead space ratio is 0.3. It’s the dead space (Vd) to tidal volume ratio (Vt).

      The glottis is the narrowest point of the upper airway in an adult, while the cricoid ring is the narrowest point in a child.

      A child’s airway resistance is much higher than an adult’s. The resistance to airflow increases as the diameter of a paediatric airway shrinks. The radius (r) to the power of 4 is inversely proportional to airway resistance (r4). As a result, paediatric patients are more susceptible to changes in airflow caused by a small reduction in airway diameter, such as caused by oedema.

      The compliance of a newborn’s lungs is very low (5 mL/cmH2O), but it gradually improves as lung size and elasticity grow. Lung compliance in an adult is 200 mL/cmH2O.

      In children, minute ventilation (mL/kg/minute) is much higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - With a cervical dilation of 9 cm, a 23-year-old term primigravida is in...

    Correct

    • With a cervical dilation of 9 cm, a 23-year-old term primigravida is in labour. She is otherwise in good health. She's been in labour for 14 hours and counting.

      Early foetal pulse decelerations can be seen on the cardiotocograph, and a recent foetal scalp blood sample revealed a pH of 7.25.

      Which of the following is true about this patient's care and management?

      Your Answer: Monitor for downward trend in fetal scalp blood pH as caesarean section is not indicated at the present time

      Explanation:

      Once the decision to deliver a baby by caesarean section has been made, it should be carried out with a level of urgency commensurate with the risk to the baby and the mother’s safety.

      There are four types of caesarean section urgency:

      Category 1 – Endangering the life of the mother or the foetus
      Category 2 – Maternal or foetal compromise that is not immediately life threatening
      Category 3 – Early delivery is required, but there is no risk to the mother or the foetus.
      Category 4: Elective delivery at a time that is convenient for both the mother and the maternity staff.

      Caesarean sections for categories 1 and 2 should be performed as soon as possible after the decision is made, especially for category 1. For category 1 caesarean sections, a decision to deliver time of 30 minutes is currently used.

      In most cases, Category 2 caesarean sections should be performed within 75 minutes of making the decision.

      The condition of the woman and the unborn baby should be considered when making a decision for a quick delivery, as it may be harmful in some cases.

      There is no evidence of foetal compromise in the example above (early foetal pulse decelerations and a pH of less than 7.25). Early foetal pulse decelerations are most likely caused by the uterus compressing the foetal head. The foetus is not harmed by these. A spinal anaesthetic is preferred over a general anaesthetic whenever possible.

      If the foetal scalp blood pH is greater than 7.25, it’s a good idea to repeat the test later and look for any changes. When a foetus decelerates, the mother should be given oxygen, kept in a left lateral position, and kept hydrated to avoid the need for a caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox?

      Your Answer: Exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder (under normal working conditions)

      Explanation:

      Entonox is a gas that consists of 50% oxygen and 50% Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide is sometimes used for anaesthetics but in this combination, it works as a short-acting painkiller.

      Under normal working conditions, it exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder. The gauge pressure of a full Entonox cylinder is 137 bar.

      Entonox cylinders should be stored horizontally at a temperature above 0 C. At temperatures below this the nitrous oxide component may separate.

      Pseudocritical temperature and pseudocritical pressure can be defined as the molal average critical temperature and pressure of mixture components. In other words, the pseudo-critical temperature is the temperature at which the two gases separate. The pseudo-critical temperature of Entonox is approximately -5.50 C

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In order to determine if there is any correlation among systolic blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • In order to determine if there is any correlation among systolic blood pressure and the age of a person.

      Which among the provided options is false regarding the calculation of correlation coefficient, r ?

      Your Answer: Do not provide evidence of cause and effect

      Correct Answer: May be used to predict systolic blood pressure for a given age

      Explanation:

      Correlation doesn’t justify causality. Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other? It has nothing to do with predictions. For that purpose linear regression is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Following a lumbar epidural for foot surgery, a patient has residual weakness on...

    Incorrect

    • Following a lumbar epidural for foot surgery, a patient has residual weakness on hip flexion but normal knee flexion/extension.
      Which nerve roots are most likely implicated?

      Your Answer: L3/4

      Correct Answer: L1/2/3

      Explanation:

      Iliacus, and Psoas major are the most important muscles that produce flexion at the hip.

      They are collectively called the iliopsoas muscle. The iliacus muscle originates from the ilium while the psoas major muscle takes its origin from the lumbar vertebrae and sacrum. Their insertion is the lesser trochanter of the femur. They work together to produce flexion and external rotation of the hip. The nerve supply is from branches of the lumbar plexus (L1, 2, 3) femoral nerve (L2, 3, 4) and short direct muscular branches (T12, L1, L2, L3 and L4).

      Sartorius, Rectus femoris, Tensor fasciae latae, and Pectineus muscles are two-joint muscles acting at the knee and having less influence on hip flexion:

      Rectus femoris and sartorius are involved in extension of the knee. They are supplied by branches of the femoral nerve.

      Myotomes associated with key movement of the lower limb are:

      L1/L2 – Hip flexion
      L2/L3/L4 – Hip adduction, quadriceps (knee extension)
      L4/L5 – Hip abduction
      L5 – Great toe dorsiflexion.

      Since knee extension is not affected, L2, L3 and L4 are still intact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25-year old man needs an emergency appendicectomy and has gone to the...

    Correct

    • A 25-year old man needs an emergency appendicectomy and has gone to the operating room. During general anaesthesia, ventilation is achieved using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1L/min, with and air/oxygen and sevoflurane combination. The capnograph trace is normal.

      Changes to the end tidal and baseline CO2 measurements at 10 and 20 mins respectively are seen on the capnograph below:

      10 minutes 20 minutes
      End-tidal CO2 4.9 kPa 8.4 kPa
      Baseline end-tidal CO2 0.2 kPa 2.4 kPa

      The other vitals were as follows:
      Pulse 100-105 beats per minute
      Systolic blood pressure 120-133 mmHg
      O2 saturation 99%.

      The next most important immediate step is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Increase the FGF

      Explanation:

      This scenario describes rebreathing management.

      Changes is exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit deadspace is the most likely explanation for the capnograph.

      It is important that the soda lime canister is inspected for a change in colour of the granules. Initially fresh gas flow should be increased and then if necessary, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies include changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister after the fresh gas flow is increased.

      Any other causes of increased equipment deadspace should be excluded.

      Intraoperative hypercarbia can be caused by:

      1. Hypoventilation – Breathing spontaneously; drugs which include anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual neuromuscular blockade, pre-existing respiratory or neuromuscular disease and cerebrovascular accident.
      2. Controlled ventilation- circuit leaks, disconnection, miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
      3. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits, increased breathing system deadspace.
      4. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
      5. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 absorption from the pneumoperitoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is true when testing for statistical significance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true when testing for statistical significance?

      Your Answer: A type II error is to accept the alternative hypothesis when it should be rejected

      Correct Answer: The probability associated with a type I error is the significance level

      Explanation:

      The null hypothesis states that there is no significant difference between two groups.

      The alternative hypothesis states that there is a significant difference between two groups.

      A type I error (false positive) occurs when a null hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.

      A type II error (false negative) occurs when the alternative hypothesis is rejected when it should be accepted.

      The probability determines the rejection of a null hypothesis.

      The level of significance is set at p <0.05.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Drug A has a 1 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.1 elimination...

    Correct

    • Drug A has a 1 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.1 elimination rate constant (k).

      Drug B has a 2 L/kg volume of distribution and a 0.2 elimination rate constant (k).

      Which of the following statements best describes the pharmacokinetics of drug A in a single compartment?

      Your Answer: Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B

      Explanation:

      The fall in plasma concentration of a drug with time decreases exponentially in a single compartment pharmacokinetic model (wash-out curve).

      A straight line is produced when the logarithm (ln) of a drug’s plasma concentration is plotted against time because a constant proportion of the drug is removed from the plasma per unit time. The line’s gradient or slope can be expressed mathematically as k. (the rate constant). The gradient is related to the half life (T1/2) because it can be used to predict a drug’s plasma concentration at any time.

      According to the following formula, clearance (CL), volume of distribution (Vd), and elimination rate constant (k) are mathematically related.

      CL = Vd x k

      For drug A, CL = 1 x 0.1 = 0.1units per minute

      For drug B, Cl = 2 x 0.2 = 0.4 units per minute

      Hence, it is proved that Drug A has a lower clearance than drug B.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The typical fluid compartments in a normal 70kg male are:

      Your Answer: interstitial>intravascular

      Correct Answer: intracellular>extracellular

      Explanation:

      Body fluid compartments in a 70kg male:
      Total volume=42L (60% body weight)
      Intracellular fluid compartment (ICF) =28L
      Extracellular fluid compartment (ECF) = 14L

      ECF comprises:
      Intravascular fluid (plasma) = 3L
      Extravascular fluid = 11L

      Extravascular fluids comprises:
      Interstitial fluid = 10.5L
      Transcellular fluid = 0.5L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - According to the statements given which one is most correct concerning the spinal...

    Correct

    • According to the statements given which one is most correct concerning the spinal cord?

      Your Answer: There are 31 pairs of spinal roots

      Explanation:

      The cylindrical structure(spine), starts from the foramen magnum in medulla oblongata at the skull’s base. Its length varies in gender with men having 45cm and women having up to 43 cm. The spine contains 31 pairs of spinal nerves, named according to the spinal region:
      – 8 cervical nerve pairs ( C1-C8)
      – 12 thoracic nerve pairs ( T1-T12)
      – 5 lumbar nerve pairs (L1-L5)
      – 5 sacral nerves (S1-S5) and
      – 1 coccygeal nerve pair.
      These spinal nerves are classified as the peripheral nervous system though they branch from the spinal cord and central nervous system. They interact directly with the spinal cord to modulate the motor and sensory information from the peripheral’s region. As the nerves emerges form the spinal cords they are known as rootlets. They join to form nerve roots, and depending on their position, we have anterior nerve roots and posterior.

      The spinal cord is supplied by two posterior and one anterior spinal arteries which anastomoses caudally, at the conus medullaris.

      The anterior spinal artery supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord and medulla. Disruption of the anterior spinal artery supply is characterised by ischaemia or infarction of motor tracts (corticospinal) and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the lesion.

      The posterior spinal arteries supply the posterior columns (posterior third of the spinal cord). Infarction of the posterior columns results in the loss of proprioceptive, vibration and two-point discrimination.

      The spinal cord normally ends at the level of L1 or L2 in an adult and L3 in a newborn.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following options will likely play a major role in falling...

    Correct

    • Which of the following options will likely play a major role in falling coronary blood flow?

      Your Answer: Intracoronary artery infusion of endothelin-1

      Explanation:

      Endothelin-1 is considered as a powerful coronary vasoconstrictor, produced by the endothelium. It acts to counter the effects of Nitric oxide (NO).
      Neuropeptide-Y, angiotensin1, cocaine, vasopressin, and nicotine are some other coronary vasoconstrictors.

      Chronotrophy and inotrophy occur after the activation of sympathetic nerve fibres, which in turn results in increasing the myocardial oxygen consumption, leading to increased coronary blood flow via local metabolic processes.

      An alpha-receptor mediated coronary vasoconstrictor effect is also initiated that usually competes with vasodilation, resulting in decreased coronary vascular resistance. Some of the other dilators include hydrogen ions, CO2, potassium, and lactic acid. The action of endothelial NO synthase (eNOS) on L-arginine results in the formation of NO. This messenger also plays a vital role in the regulation of coronary blood flow via vasodilation, inhibition of platelet aggression, and decreasing vascular resistance.
      Adenosine is considered as purine nucleoside that forms after the breakdown of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Adenosine binds to adenosine type 2A (A2A) receptors in coronary vascular smooth muscles. These are coupled to the Gs protein. This mechanism leads to hyperpolarisation of muscle cells, resulting in relaxation and increased coronary blood flow.

      GTN is an veno and arteriolar dilator, which behaves as pro-drug with NO.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of macrolides?

      Your Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of macrolides is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by preventing peptidyltransferase from adding to the growing peptide which is attached to tRNA to the next amino acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following causes a left shift of the haemoglobin dissociation curve?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes a left shift of the haemoglobin dissociation curve?

      Your Answer: With decreased 2,3-DPG in transfused red cells

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      With respect to oxygen transport in cells, almost all oxygen is transported within erythrocytes. There is limited solubility and only 1% is carried as solution. Thus, the amount of oxygen transported depends upon haemoglobin concentration and its degree of saturation.

      Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of 4 subunits. Haem is made up of a protoporphyrin ring surrounding an iron atom in its ferrous state. The iron can form two additional bonds – one is with oxygen and the other with a polypeptide chain.
      There are two alpha and two beta subunits to this polypeptide chain in an adult and together these form globin. Globin cannot bind oxygen but can bind to CO2 and hydrogen ions.
      The beta chains are able to bind to 2,3 diphosphoglycerate. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction. The molecular shape of haemoglobin is such that binding of one oxygen molecule facilitates the binding of subsequent molecules.

      The oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood.
      Of note, it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration.

      Chronic anaemia causes 2, 3 DPG levels to increase, hence shifting the curve to the right

      Haldane effect – Causes the ODC to shift to the left. For a given oxygen tension there is increased saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues.
      This can be caused by:
      -HbF, methaemoglobin, carboxyhaemoglobin
      -low [H+] (alkali)
      -low pCO2
      -ow 2,3-DPG
      -ow temperature

      Bohr effect – causes the ODC to shifts to the right = for given oxygen tension there is reduced saturation of Hb with oxygen i.e. Enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. This can be caused by:
      – raised [H+] (acidic)
      – raised pCO2
      -raised 2,3-DPG
      -raised temperature

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of these thyroid hormones is considered the most potent and most physiologically...

    Correct

    • Which of these thyroid hormones is considered the most potent and most physiologically active?

      Your Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Triiodothyronine (T3) is more potent than thyroxine (T4). It is able to bind to more receptors (90%) compared to T4 (10%), and the onset of action is more immediate (within 12 hours) than T4 (2 days).

      Ninety-three percent of thyroid hormones synthesized is T4, and the remaining 7% is T3. The half-life of T3 is shorter (1 day), and its affinity for thyroxine-binding globulin is lower than T4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

    Which mechanism...

    Incorrect

    • During exercise, muscle blood flow can increase by 20 to 50 times.

      Which mechanism is the most important for increased blood flow?

      Your Answer: Skeletal muscle pump

      Correct Answer: Local autoregulation

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscle blood flow is in the range of 1-4 ml/min per 100 g when at rest. Blood flow can reach 50-100 ml/min per 100 g during exercise. With maximal vasodilation, blood flow can increase 20 to 50 times.

      The adrenal medulla releases catecholamines and increases neural sympathetic activity during exercise. Normally, alpha-1 and alpha-2 would cause vasoconstriction in the muscle groups being used, but vasodilatory metabolites override these effects, resulting in a so-called functional sympathectomy. Local hypoxia and hypercarbia, nitric oxide, K+ ions, adenosine, and lactate are some of the stimuli that cause vasodilation.

      However, the splanchnic and cutaneous circulations, which supply inactive muscles, vasoconstrict.

      Sympathetic cholinergic innervation of skeletal muscle arteries is found in some species (such as cats and dogs, but not humans). Vasodilation is induced by stimulating smooth muscle beta-2 adrenoreceptors, but at rest, the alpha-adrenoreceptor effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline predominate. During exercise, the skeletal muscle pump promotes venous emptying, but it does not necessarily increase blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Regarding oxygen consumption, which of these organs has the highest consumption at rest?...

    Correct

    • Regarding oxygen consumption, which of these organs has the highest consumption at rest?

      Your Answer: Kidney

      Explanation:

      Oxygen delivery is related to blood flow as most of the oxygen binds to haemoglobin in red blood cells, although a small amount is dissolved in the plasma. Blood flow per 100 g of tissue is greatest in the kidneys.

      The following is the oxygen consumption rate of different organs in ml/minute/100g

      Hepatoportal = 2.2
      Kidney = 6.8
      Brain = 3.7
      Skin = 0.38
      Skeletal muscle = 0.18
      Heart = 11

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of arterial blood?

      Your Answer: Hypercarbia

      Correct Answer: A reduced erythrocyte 2,3-diphosphoglycerate level

      Explanation:

      The oxygen content of arterial blood can be calculated by the following equation:
      (10 x haemoglobin x SaO2 x 1.34) + (PaO2 x 0.0225).
      This is the sum of the oxygen bound to haemoglobin and the oxygen dissolved in the plasma.

      Oxygen content x cardiac output = The amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues in unit time which is known as the oxygen flux.

      Any factor that increases the metabolic demand will encourage oxygen offloading from the haemoglobin in the tissues and this causes the oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) to shift to the right. This subsequently reduced the oxygen content of arterial blood.

      Conditions like fever, metabolic or respiratory acidosis lowers the oxygen content and shifts the ODC to the right.
      A low level of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is usually related to an increased oxygen content as there is less offloading, and so the ODC is shifted to the left.

      So for a given PaO2, a high blood oxygen content is related to any factors that can shift the ODC to the left and not to the right.

      A low haematocrit usually means that there is a decreased haemoglobin concentration, and therefore is associated with decreased oxygen binding to haemoglobin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 20-year-old man has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He will be treated...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man has been diagnosed with mitral regurgitation. He will be treated with mitral valve repair.

      What is true regarding the mitral valve?

      Your Answer: Its closure is marked by the first heart sound

      Explanation:

      The mitral valve is the valve between the left atrium and left ventricle. It opens when the heart is in diastole (relaxation) which allows blood to flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle. In systole (contraction), the mitral valve closes to prevent the backflow of blood from the left ventricle to the left atrium.

      The mitral valve is located posterior to the sternum at the level of the 4th costal cartilage. It is best auscultated over the cardiac apex, where its closure marks the first heart sound.

      The mitral valve anatomy is composed of five main structures:
      1. Left atrial wall – the myocardium of the left atrial wall extends over the posterior leaflet of the mitral valve. (left atrial enlargement is one of the causes for mitral regurgitation)
      2. Mitral annulus – a fibrous ring that connects with the anterior and posterior leaflets. It functions as a sphincter that contracts and reduces the surface area of the valve during systole (Annular dilatation can also lead to mitral regurgitation)
      3. Mitral valve leaflets (cusps) – The mitral valve is the only valve in the heart with two cusps or leaflets. One anterior and one posterior.
      i. The anterior leaflet is located posterior to the aortic root and is also anchored to the aortic root.
      ii. The posterior leaflet is located posterior to the two commissural areas.
      4. Chordae tendinae – The chordae tendinae connects both the cusps to the papillary muscles.
      5. Papillary muscles – These muscles and their cords support the mitral valve, allowing the cusps to resist the pressure developed during contractions (pumping) of the left ventricle

      The anterior and posterior cusps are attached to the chordae tendinae which itself is attached to the left ventricle via papillary muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year male patient presents to the GP with a 2-day history of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He reports that he was completely fine until one week ago when headache and general tiredness appeared. After further questioning, he revealed eating at a dodgy takeaway 3 days before the start of his symptoms.

      Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis is known to have a longer incubation time and doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Cholera usually doesn’t cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Generally, most of the E.coli strains do not cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Diverticulitis can be a cause of bloody stool but the history here points out to an infectious cause.

      Campylobacter infection is the most probable cause as it is characterized by a prodrome, abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the following statements is false when considering the electrical safety of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is false when considering the electrical safety of equipment?

      Your Answer: The low leakage currents limit is 0.01mA for Class I CF

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - After establishing a cardiopulmonary bypass, the right atrium is opened to repair the...

    Correct

    • After establishing a cardiopulmonary bypass, the right atrium is opened to repair the tricuspid valve.

      Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the right atrium?

      Your Answer: Trabeculae carnae

      Explanation:

      The right atrium receives blood supply from the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus. It forms the right border of the heart.

      The interior of the right atrium has 5 distinct features:
      1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
      2. Musculi pectinati – an anterior rough, wall of pectinate muscles
      3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
      4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
      5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetus

      The trabeculae carneae are irregular muscular elevations that form the interior of the right ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which muscle separates the subclavian artery and the subclavian vein? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle separates the subclavian artery and the subclavian vein?

      Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

      Correct Answer: Scalenus anterior

      Explanation:

      The subclavian artery and vein have a similar path throughout their course, with the subclavian vein running anterior to the subclavian artery. The artery and vein are separated by the insertion of the scalenus anterior muscle.

      There are three scalene muscles, found on each side of the neck:
      1. Anterior scalene
      2. Middle scalene
      3. Posterior scalene

      The scalenus anterior muscle is the anterior most of the three scalene muscles. It originates from the transverse processes of vertebrae C3-C6 and is inserted in the first rib.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 65-year-old man got operated on for carotid endarterectomy for his carotid artery...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man got operated on for carotid endarterectomy for his carotid artery disease. He is recovering well post-surgery. However, on follow-up in the ward, he has hoarseness of his voice.

      Which of the following explains the hoarseness?

      Your Answer: Damage to the vagus

      Explanation:

      During carotid endarterectomy, injury to the vagus nerve or its branches can cause hoarseness. Injury to the vagus nerve can result in adductor vocal cord paralysis. It can also cause other symptoms like dysphagia or even vocal cord immobility.

      Carotid endarterectomy is the procedure to relieve an obstruction in the carotid artery by opening the artery at its origin and stripping off the atherosclerotic plaque with the intima. Because of the internal carotid artery relations, there is a risk of cranial nerve injury during the procedure involving one or more of the following nerves: CN IX, CN X (or its branch, the superior laryngeal nerve), CN XI, or CN XII.

      However, only damage to the vagus would account for speech difficulties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man had previously been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. He had recently started gliclazide, a sulphonyl urea, as his diabetes was not controlled by metformin alone.

      Now, he presents to his physician with complaints of anxiety, sweating, and palpitations since the morning. On physical examination, he is pale and clammy and has mydriasis and increased bowel sounds.

      Which biological site primarily synthesizes the hormone responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex

      Correct Answer: Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      This patient has been shifted to a sulfonylurea drug whose most common side effect is hypoglycaemia. Similar symptoms can arise in a patient on insulin too. The signs and symptoms are consistent with a hypoglycaemic attack and include tachycardia, altered consciousness, and behaviour. This needs to be treated as an emergency with rapid correction of the blood glucose level using glucose or IV 20% dextrose.

      In a hypoglycaemic attack, the body undergoes stress and releases hormones to increase blood glucose levels. These include:
      Glucagon
      Cortisol
      Adrenaline

      Adrenaline or epinephrine is the hormone responsible for this patient’s condition and is primarily produced in the medulla of the adrenal gland. It functions primarily to raise cardiac output and raise blood glucose levels in the blood.

      Alpha-cells of the islets of Langerhans produce the hormone glucagon, which has opposing effects to insulin.

      Follicular cells of the thyroid gland produce and secrete thyroid hormones. Thyroid hormones can cause similar symptoms, but it is unlikely with the patient’s medical history.

      Post-ganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system use norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter. Adrenaline can be made in these cells, but it is not their primary production site.

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex is the main site for the production of cortisol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 28-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has been diagnosed with adult respiratory distress syndrome and is being ventilated. His haemodynamic condition is improved using a pulmonary artery flotation.

      His readings are listed below:

      Haemoglobin concentration: 10 g/dL
      Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 70%
      Mixed venous oxygen tensions (PvO2): 50 mmHg

      Estimate his mixed venous oxygen content (mL/100mL).

      Your Answer: 9

      Correct Answer: 9.5

      Explanation:

      Mixed venous oxygen content (CvO2) is the oxygen concentration in 100mL of mixed venous blood taken from the pulmonary artery. It is usually 12-17 mL/dL (70-75%). It is represented mathematically as:

      CvO2 = (1.34 x Hgb x SvO2 x 0.01) + (0.003 x PvO2)

      Where,

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant
      Hgb = Haemoglobin level (g/dL)
      SvO2 = % oxyhaemoglobin saturation of mixed venous blood
      PvO2 = 0.0225 = mL of O2 dissolved per 100mL plasma per kPa, or 0.003 mL per mmHg

      Therefore,

      CvO2 = (1.34 x 10 x 70 x 0.01) + (0.003 x 50)

      CvO2 = 9.38 + 0.15 = 9.53 mL/100mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 71-year-old man, presents with central crushing pain in his chest to the...

    Correct

    • A 71-year-old man, presents with central crushing pain in his chest to the emergency department. On examination, he complains of nausea and is notably sweating. On ECG, elevation in the ST-segment is noted in multiple chest leads, as well as sinus bradycardia. A myocardial infarction can cause a sinus bradycardia.

      The sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node receive arterial supply from which vessel?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The left marginal artery comes off the left circumflex artery, and runs alongside the heart.

      The left circumflex artery is one of the bifurcations of the left coronary artery, and eventually forms the left marginal artery.

      An occlusion in the left circumflex artery often results in a lateral MI.

      The right marginal artery originates from the right coronary artery.

      The left anterior descending artery (LAD) is another bifurcation of the left coronary artery. An occlusion in the LAD would often result in an anteroseptal MI as is diagnosed on ECG by noting changes in leads V1-V4.

      The right coronary artery originates from the right aortic sinus of the ascending aorta, and bifurcates to give rise to many branches, including the sinoatrial artery which supplies the sinoatrial (SA) node in 50-70% of cases, the artery of the atrioventricular (AV) node in 50-60% of cases, the right acute marginal artery which supplies the right ventricle. It also supplies the right atrium, interatrial septum and the posterior inferior third of the interventricular septum.

      Arrhythmias and inferior MI often occurs as a result of an occlusion in the right coronary artery, and can be diagnosed by ECG changes in leads II, III and aVF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is an accurate fact about the vertebral column?

      Your Answer: Herniation of intervertebral disc between the fifth and sixth cervical vertebrae will compress the sixth cervical nerve root

      Explanation:

      The vertebral (spinal) column is the skeletal central axis made up of approximately 33 bones called the vertebrae.

      Cervical disc herniations occur when some or all of the nucleus pulposus extends through the annulus fibrosus. The most commonly affected discs are the C5-C6 and C6-C7 discs. Each vertebrae has a corresponding nerve root which arises at a level above it. This means that a hernation of the C5-C6 disc will cause a compression of the C6 nerve root.

      The foramen transversarium is a part of the transverse process of each cervical vertebrae, however, the vertebral artery only runs through the C1-C6 foramen transversarium.

      The costal facets are the point of joint formation between a rib and a vertebrae. As such, they are only present on the transverse processes of T1-T10.

      The lumbar vertebrae do not form a joint with the ribs, nor do they possess a foramina in their transverse process.

      Intervertebral discs are thickest in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal column. However, there are no discs between C1 and C2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Seven days after undergoing an inguinal hernia repair, a 24-year old male presents...

    Correct

    • Seven days after undergoing an inguinal hernia repair, a 24-year old male presents with a wound that is erythematous, tender and has a purulent discharge. The most likely cause of this is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Infection with Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

      SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
      The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

      Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      -Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
      -Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
      -Tissue hypoxia
      -Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

      Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
      1. Intraoperatively
      – Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      -Cover surgical site with dressing

      In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

      2. Post operatively
      Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

      Use of diathermy for skin incisions
      In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Following a near drowning accident, a 5-year-old child is admitted to the emergency...

    Correct

    • Following a near drowning accident, a 5-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department and advanced paediatric life support is started.

      What is the child's approximate weight, according to the preferred formulae of the Resuscitation Council (UK), the European Resuscitation Council, and the Royal College of Anaesthetists?

      Your Answer: 20-25kg

      Explanation:

      For estimating a child’s weight, the Resuscitation Council (UK) and European Resuscitation Council teach the following formula:

      Weight = (age + 4) × 2

      The weight of the child will be around 20 kg.

      This formula is used in the Primary FRCA exam by the Royal College of Anaesthetists.

      In ‘developed’ countries, the traditional ‘APLS formula’ for estimating weight in children based on age (wt in kg = [age+4] x 2) is acknowledged as underestimating weight by 33.4 percent on average, with the degree of underestimation increasing with increasing age.

      However, more recently, the APLS formula ‘Weight=3(age)+7’ has been found to provide a mean underestimate of only 6.9%. This formula is applicable to children aged 1 to 13 years.

      The estimated weight based on age using this formula is 25 kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence...

    Correct

    • Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence on laminar flow?

      Your Answer: Diameter of tube

      Explanation:

      Laminar flow can be defined as the motion of a fluid where every particle in the fluid follows the same path of its previous particles. The following are properties of laminar flow of gas or fluids:

      1. Smooth unobstructed flow of gas through a tube of relatively uniform diameter
      2. Few directional changes
      3. Slow, steady flow through straight smooth, rigid, large calibre, cylindrical tube
      4. Outer layer flow slower than the centre due to friction, results in discrete cylindrical layers, or streamlines
      5. Double flow by doubling pressure as long as the flow pattern remains laminar

      Poiseuille’s Law relates the factors that determine laminar flow. It indicates the degree of resistance to fluid flow through a tube. The resistance to fluid flow through a tube is directly related to the length, flow and viscosity; and inversely related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. This means that, when the radius is doubled, there is increase in flow by a factor of 16.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which oral hypoglycaemic agent has no effect on insulin sensitivity or secretion? ...

    Correct

    • Which oral hypoglycaemic agent has no effect on insulin sensitivity or secretion?

      Your Answer: Alpha glucosidase inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Because alpha glucosidase inhibitors slow starch digestion in the small intestine, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity.

      Biguanides decrease hepatic glucose output while increasing glucose uptake in peripheral cells.

      The meglitinides are secretagogues that act on a different site of the KATP receptors.

      Insulin secretion is stimulated by sulphonylureas, which stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. The KATP channels are inhibited by these substances.

      Insulin-sensitive genes are influenced by thiazolidinediones, which increase the production of mRNAs for insulin-dependent enzymes. As a result, the cells make better use of glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 77-year-old woman is scheduled for day case cataract surgery under local anaesthesia....

    Correct

    • A 77-year-old woman is scheduled for day case cataract surgery under local anaesthesia. She has no cardiac or respiratory problems. Lisinopril is being used to treat her hypertension, which is under control.

      Which of the following preoperative investigations are the most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: No investigations

      Explanation:

      Because the patient has mild systemic disease, he is ASA 2 and the procedure will be performed under local anaesthesia.

      The following factors should be considered when requesting preoperative investigations:

      Indications derived from a preliminary clinical examination
      Whether or not a general anaesthetic will be used, the possibility of asymptomatic abnormalities, and the scope of the surgery.

      No special investigations are needed if the patient has no history of significant systemic disease and no abnormal findings on examination during the nurse-led assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?...

    Correct

    • Which compound of ketamine hydrochloride has the most significant anaesthetic property or effect?

      Your Answer: (S)-ketamine

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is usually used as a racemic mixture, i.e. (R/S)-ketamine. For over 20 years, use of the more potent (S)-enantiomer by anaesthesiologists has become a preferred option due to the assumption of increased anaesthetic and analgesic properties, a more suitable control of anaesthesia, and of an improved recovery from anaesthesia.

      The use of ketamine in anaesthesia and psychiatry may be accompanied by the manifestation of somatic and especially psychomimetic symptoms such as perceptual disturbances, experiences of dissociation, euphoria, and anxiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of...

    Correct

    • Prior to rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia, a man with a BMI of 35 is pre-oxygenated.

      Which method of pre-oxygenation with a tight-fitting face mask is the most effective?

      Your Answer: Oxygen 6 litres per minute via a Mapleson A breathing system, with patient sitting up at 30 degrees breathing four vital capacity breaths

      Explanation:

      This patient is morbidly obese and has a high risk of developing hypoxia. This will be exacerbated by the patient’s supine position, as a result of:

      Functional residual capacity has been reduced (FRC)
      Increased closing capacity (CC)
      Reduced tidal volume due to increased airway resistance, decreased thoracic cage compliance, and decreased respiratory muscle strength and endurance
      Following induction of general anaesthesia, there is a tendency for atelectasis and increased O2 consumption due to the increased workload of respiratory muscles and the overall increase in metabolism.

      Pre-oxygenation with 100 percent oxygen via a tight-fitting mask can be done using either tidal volume breaths for three to five minutes or four vital capacity breaths in normal circumstances. In the head-up position, this patient is much more likely to be adequately pre-oxygenated, maximising the FRC and minimising the CC. In spontaneously breathing patients, the Mapleson A and circle systems are both effective, but the Mapleson D requires 160-200 ml/kg/minute to prevent rebreathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw in the emergency department. He has associated symptoms of nausea and diaphoresis.

      A 12 lead ECG is performed. ST-elevation is observed in leads V2-V4. The diagnosis of anteroseptal ST-elevation myocardial infarction is made.

      Which coronary vessel is responsible for this condition and runs in the interventricular septum on the anterior surface of the heart to reach the apex?

      Your Answer: Left circumflex artery

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The left anterior descending coronary artery is the largest coronary artery. It courses anterior to the interventricular septum in the anterior interventricular groove, extending from the base of the heart to its apex. Around the apex, the LAD anastomosis with the terminal branches of the posterior descending artery (branch of the right coronary artery).
      Atherosclerosis or thrombotic occlusion of LAD causes myocardial infarction in large areas of the anterior, septal, and apical portions of the heart muscle. It can lead to a serious deterioration in heart performance.

      Occlusion of the LAD causes anteroseptal myocardial infarction, which is evident on the ECG with changes in leads V1-V4. Occlusion of the left circumflex artery causes lateral, posterior, or anterolateral MI. However, as it does not run towards the apex in the interventricular septum of the heart, it is not the correct answer for this question.

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. Occlusion of the right coronary artery causes inferior MI, which is indicated on ECG with changes in leads II, III, and aVF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - You draw a patient's blood sample from the median cubital vein in the...

    Correct

    • You draw a patient's blood sample from the median cubital vein in the antecubital fossa.

      Which of the following veins also connects to the cephalic vein other than the median cubital vein?

      Your Answer: Basilic vein

      Explanation:

      The upper limb venous drainage is divided into superficial and deep. The superficial veins are accessible to draw blood for investigations. The cephalic, basilic, and median cubital veins are superficial veins.

      The median cubital vein connects the cephalic vein and basilic vein. It is located anteriorly in the antecubital fossa and is preferred for venepuncture due to its palpability and ease of access.

      The basilic vein and cephalic vein are the primary veins that drain the upper limb. They begin as the dorsal venous arch. The basilic vein originates from the ulnar side, while the cephalic vein originates from the radial side of the dorsal arch of the upper limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result...

    Correct

    • Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result in an inaccurate blood pressure reading, including the damping of an arterial waveform.

      How does a damped arterial waveform affect blood pressure measurements?

      Your Answer: The systolic pressure is lower and the diastolic pressure higher with the same mean

      Explanation:

      Damping is the reduction of energy in a system achieved by reducing the amplitude of oscillations. It is necessary to some degree to prevent wave overshoots.

      Critical damping usually causes the system to be slow, so optimal damping is normally applied to provide a balance between speed and distortion.

      Damping can cause errors if excessive (overdamping) or inadequate (Underdamping). The amount of damping in a system can be determined using the damping coefficient (D), where:

      Undamped: 0
      Critically damped: 1
      Optimally damped: 0.64

      An overdamped system will cause an artificial decrease in the systolic blood pressure, and an artificial increase in the diastolic blood pressure.

      An underdamped system will cause an artificial increase in systolic blood pressure and an artificial decrease in diastolic blood pressure.

      Damping can be caused by a number of factors affecting different parts of the system, including:

      The tubing/cannula: The presence of air bubbles, increased blood viscosity or formation of blood clots.
      The diaphragm/tubing: Increased malleability/compliance
      The tubing: Presence of kinks, narrowing or too many ports of injection.

      The answer here is a damped system will have a low systolic pressure, a high diastolic pressure with a normal mean pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of rifampicin?

      Your Answer: Inhibit RNA synthesis

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin is a derivative of a rifamycin (other derivatives are rifabutin and rifapentine). It is bactericidal against both dividing and non-dividing mycobacterium and acts by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. Thus this drug inhibits RNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which of the following is correct regarding correlation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding correlation?

      Your Answer: Negative correlation disproves causation

      Correct Answer: Complete absence of correlation is expressed by a value of 0

      Explanation:

      In statistical terms, correlation is used to denote association between two quantitative variables.

      The degree of association is measured by a correlation coefficient, denoted by r. The correlation coefficient is measured on a scale that varies from + 1 through 0 to – 1. Complete correlation between two variables is expressed by either + 1 or -1. When one variable increases as the other increases the correlation is positive; when one decreases as the other increases it is negative. Complete absence of correlation is represented by 0.

      The two methods are not synonymous as correlation measures the degree of relationship between two variables whereas regression analysis is about how one variable affects another or what changes it has on the other variable. Both are also shown by a different graphical representation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A post-operative patient was given paracetamol and pethidine for post-operative analgesia. A few...

    Correct

    • A post-operative patient was given paracetamol and pethidine for post-operative analgesia. A few hours later, the patient developed fever of 38°C, hypertension, and agitation.

      According to the patient's medical history, he is maintained on Levodopa and Selegiline for Parkinson's disease.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of his manifestation?

      Your Answer: Pethidine

      Explanation:

      Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase leads to increased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system.

      Pethidine, also known as meperidine, is a strong agonist at the mu and kappa receptors. It inhibits pain neurotransmission and blocks muscarinic-specific actions.

      Administering opioid analgesic is relatively contraindicated to individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors. This is because of the high incidence of serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. Onset of symptoms is within hours, and the treatment is mainly through sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.

      The clinical findings are more consistent with Serotonin syndrome rather than exacerbation of Parkinson’s. Parkinson’s Disease (PD) exacerbations are defined as patient-reported or caregiver-reported episodes of subacute worsening of PD motor function in 1 or more domains (bradykinesia, tremor, rigidity, or PD-related postural instability/gait disturbance) that caused a decline in functional status, developed over a period of < 2 months, did not fluctuate with medication timing, and are not caused by intentional adjustments of PD medications by the treating neurologist. Malignant hyperthermia usually occurs within minutes of administration of a volatile anaesthetic, such as halothane, or succinylcholine. There is massive release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, leading to fever, acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, trismus, clonus, and hypertension. In sepsis, it more common for patients to present with hypotension rather than hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding oxytocin?

      Your Answer: Is synthesised in the posterior pituitary gland

      Correct Answer: Reduces the threshold for depolarisation of the uterine smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH). It increases the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus.

      Oxytocin acts through G protein-coupled receptor and phosphoinositide-calcium second messenger system to contract uterine smooth muscle.

      It has 0.5 to 1 % ADH activity introducing possibilities of water intoxication when used in high doses.

      The sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin increases as the pregnancy progresses.

      It is used for induction of labour in post maturity and uterine inertia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 50-year-old man, presents to the hospital with bilateral inguinal hernias.
    After examination...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man, presents to the hospital with bilateral inguinal hernias.
      After examination and investigation, the surgical team decides to perform a laparoscopic hernia repair using the extraperitoneal approach. After making an infraumbilical incision, the surgeons perform the repair by placing a prosthetic mesh over the affected area, after shifting the inferior aspect of the rectus abdominis muscle anteriorly.

      Name the structure that would like posterior to the mesh?

      Your Answer: Peritoneum

      Explanation:

      This question is asking which structure would lie posterior to the rectus abdominis muscle and not the prosthetic mesh, as only peritoneum lies posterior to mesh during a total extraperitoneal (TEP) hernia repair.

      The region of the repair lies below the arcuate line, meaning that the transversalis fascia and peritoneum lie posterior to the rectus abdominis.

      The bucks fascia lies within the penis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - Which of the following statement is true regarding the paediatric airway? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement is true regarding the paediatric airway?

      Your Answer: The larynx is more anterior than in an adult

      Explanation:

      In the neonatal stage, the tongue is usually large and comes to the normal size at the age of 1 year. The vocal cords lie inverse C4 and as it reaches the grown-up position inverse C5/6 by the age of 4 (not 1 year).

      Due to the immature cricoid cartilage, the larynx lies more anterior in newborn children. That’s why the cricoid ring is the narrowest part of the paediatric respiratory tract, while in the adults the tightest portion of the respiratory route is vocal cords. The epiglottis is generally expansive and slants at a point of 45 degrees to the laryngeal opening.

      The carina is the ridge of the cartilage in the trachea at the level of T2 in newborn (T4 in adults), that separates the openings of right and left main bronchi.

      Neonates have a comparatively low number of alveoli and then this number gradually increases to a most extreme by the age of 8 (not 3 years).

      Neonates are obligatory nose breathers and any hindrance can cause respiratory issues (e.g., choanal atresia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - What is the primary purpose of funnel plots? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary purpose of funnel plots?

      Your Answer: Provide a graphical representation of the probability of a patient experiencing a particular adverse effect

      Correct Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses

      Explanation:

      Funnel plot is essentially a scatterplot of the effect of treatment against a particular measure of study precision. Its primal purpose is to serve as a visual aid and help in detection of bias or systematic heterogenity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain....

    Correct

    • An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain. She has a medical history of coronary artery disease and previous episodes of atrial fibrillation. She was immediately attached to the cardiac monitor, which showed tachycardia at 148 beats per minute. The 12-lead ECG revealed atrial fibrillation.

      Digoxin was given as an anti-arrhythmic at 500 micrograms, which is higher than the maintenance dose routinely given. Why is this so?

      Your Answer: It has a high volume of distribution

      Explanation:

      When the loading dose of Digoxin is given, the primary thing to consider is the volume of distribution. The volume of distribution is the proportionality factor that relates the total amount of drug in the body to the concentration. LD is computed as:

      LD = Volume of distribution X (desired plasma concentration/bioavailability)

      Digoxin is an anti-arrhythmic drug with a large volume of distribution and high bioavailability, and only a small percentage of Digoxin is bound to plasma proteins (,20%).

      In the case, since the arrhythmia is not life-threatening, there is no need for the medication to work rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero...

    Correct

    • Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero amplitude, without overshoot?

      Your Answer: Critical damping

      Explanation:

      A damped sine wave is a smooth, periodic oscillation with an amplitude that approaches zero as time goes to infinity. In other words, the wave gets flatter as the x-values become larger.

      Critical damping is defined as the threshold between overdamping and underdamping. In the case of critical damping, the oscillator returns to the equilibrium position as quickly as possible, without oscillating, and passes it once at most.

      In overdamping, the system moves slowly towards the equilibrium. An underdamped system moves quickly to equilibrium, but will oscillate about the equilibrium point as it does so.

      Optimal damping has a damping coefficient of around 0.64-0.7. It maximizes frequency response, minimizes overshoot of oscillations, and minimizes phase and amplitude distortion.

      In an undamped system, the amplitude of the waves that are being generated remain unchanged and constant over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A pharmaceutical company has developed a new drug considered a breakthrough in treating...

    Incorrect

    • A pharmaceutical company has developed a new drug considered a breakthrough in treating ovarian cancer.

      The efficacy of this drug can be assessed by which phase of a clinical trial?

      Your Answer: Phase III

      Correct Answer: Phase IIa

      Explanation:

      Phase IIa studies are usually pilot studies designed to demonstrate clinical efficacy or biological activity (‘proof of concept’ studies) whereas phase IIb studies determine the optimal dose at which the drug shows biological activity with minimal side-effects (definite dose-finding studies).

      Phase III and Phase IV studies are performed on larger set of participants (usually hundreds to thousands) when safety and efficacy have been established.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - The clavipectoral fascia is penetrated by the cephalic vein to terminate in which...

    Incorrect

    • The clavipectoral fascia is penetrated by the cephalic vein to terminate in which of the listed veins?

      Your Answer: Brachial

      Correct Answer: Axillary

      Explanation:

      The cephalic vein is a superficial vein that runs through the forearm and the arm, before draining into the axillary vein where it terminates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal...

    Correct

    • A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy.

      Which of the following is the most likely reason for the change in this patient's voice?

      Your Answer: Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      After thyroid surgery, about 10-15% of patients experience a temporary subjective voice change of varying degrees. A frog in the throat or cracking of the voice, or a weak voice, are common descriptions. These modifications are only temporary, lasting a few days to a few weeks.

      Swelling of the muscles in the area of the dissection, as well as inflammation and oedema of the larynx due to the dissection, or minor trauma from the tracheal tube, are all suspected causes.

      On both sides of the thyroid gland, the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) runs along the upper part. The muscles that fine-tune the vocal cords are innervated by these nerves. The quality of their voice is usually normal if they are injured, but making high-pitched sounds may be difficult. Injury to the EBSLN occurs in about 2% of the population.

      Injuries to the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) have been reported to occur in 1 percent to 14 percent of people. Except for the cricothyroid muscle, the RLN supplies all of the laryngeal intrinsic muscles.

      This complication is usually unilateral and temporary, but it can also be bilateral and permanent, and it can be intentional or unintentional. The most common complication following thyroid surgery is a permanent lesion of damaged RLN, which manifests as an irreversible phonation dysfunction.

      The crico-arytenoid joint dislocation is a relatively uncommon complication of tracheal intubation and blunt neck trauma. The probability is less than one in a thousand.

      Vocal cord polyps affect 0.8 percent of people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - An 18-year old female was brought into the emergency room because of active...

    Correct

    • An 18-year old female was brought into the emergency room because of active seizures. The informant reported that it has been more than 5 minutes since the patient started seizing. The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of status epilepticus.

      According to the paramedics who brought in the patient, 10 mg of diazepam was given rectally. Upon physical examination, she was normotensive at 120/80 mmHg; tachycardic at 138 beats per minute; tachypnoeic at 24 breaths per minute; and well-saturated at 99% on high flow oxygen. Her random blood glucose level was normal at 7.0 mmol/L.

      Given this situation and an initial diagnosis of status epilepticus, what would be the best initial anti-epileptic drug to administer to the patient?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Lorazepam is an intermediate-acting benzodiazepine that binds to the GABA-A receptor subunit to increase the frequency of chloride channel opening and facilitate membrane hyperpolarization. It is the preferred treatment for status epilepticus, although Diazepam can also be used as an alternative.

      Lorazepam has a longer duration of action than Diazepam, and binds with greater affinity to the GABA-A receptor subunit.

      Phenobarbital is a barbiturate that acts on the GABA-A receptor site to increase the duration of chloride channel opening. Barbiturates, particularly phenobarbital, is considered the drug of choice for seizures in infants.

      Phenytoin is a sodium-channel blocker that is given for generalized tonic-clonic seizures, partial seizures, and status epilepticus. Phenytoin is preferred in prolonged therapy for status epilepticus because it is less sedating.

      Propofol or thiopentone is preferred when airway protection is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - The biochemical assessment of malnutrition can be measured by the amount of plasma...

    Correct

    • The biochemical assessment of malnutrition can be measured by the amount of plasma proteins.

      In acute starvation, which of these plasma proteins is the most sensitive indicator?

      Your Answer: Retinol binding globulin

      Explanation:

      The half life of Retinol binding protein (RBP) is 10-12 hours and therefore reflects more acute changes in protein metabolism than any of these proteins. Therefore it is not commonly used as a parameter for nutritional assessment.

      The half life of Transthyretin (thyroxine binding pre-albumin) is only one to two days and so levels are less sensitive and this protein is not an albumin precursor. 15 mg/dL represents early malnutrition and a need for nutritional support.

      Albumin levels have been frequently as a marker of nutrition but this is not a very sensitive marker. It’s half life more than 30 days and significant change takes some time to be noticed. Also, synthesis of albumin is decreased with the onset of the stress response after burns. Unrelated to nutritional status, the synthesis of acute phase proteins increases and that of albumin decreases.

      A more accurate indicator of protein stores is transferrin. It’s response to acute changes in protein status is much faster. The half life of serum transferrin is shorter (8-10 days) and there are smaller body stores than albumin. A low serum transferrin level is below 200 mg/dL and below 100 mg/dL is considered severe. Serum transferrin levels can also affect serum transferrin level.

      Fibronectin is used a nutritional marker but levels decrease after seven days of starvation. It is a glycoprotein which plays a role in enhancing the phagocytosis of foreign particles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - Following are some examples of induction agents. Which one has the longest elimination...

    Correct

    • Following are some examples of induction agents. Which one has the longest elimination half-life?

      Your Answer: Thiopental

      Explanation:

      Thiopental has the longest elimination half-life of 6-15 hours.

      Elimination half-life of other drugs are given as:
      – Propofol: 5-12 h
      – Methohexitone: 3-5 h
      – Ketamine: 2 h
      – Etomidate: 1-4 h

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent...

    Correct

    • An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent N. saline and 4% dextrose.

      Which of the following best describes its make-up?

      Your Answer: Osmolarity 284 mOsmol/L, sodium 15 mequivalents and glucose 20 g

      Explanation:

      30 mmol Na+ and 30 mmol Cl- are found in 1 litre of 0.18 percent N. saline with 4% dextrose. Percent (percent) refers to the number of grammes of a compound per 100 mL, so a litre of 4 percent dextrose solution contains 40 grammes.

      As a result, a 500 mL bag of 1/5th N. saline and 4% dextrose contains approximately 15 mequivalents of sodium and 20 g of glucose. It is hypotonic due to its osmolarity of 284.

      Because of the risk of hyponatraemia, it is no longer considered the crystalloid of choice for fluid maintenance in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 42 year old man came to the out-patient department with attacks of...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old man came to the out-patient department with attacks of facial pain. Upon further questioning, he reported that the pain was intermittent, often occurring spontaneously. The quality of the pain was sharp, and severity was moderate to moderately severe. The pain was non-radiating, and often involved the left maxillary and mandibular areas.

      Other medical information of the patient, such as allergies and co-morbidities, were unremarkable.

      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis of the patient?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia

      Explanation:

      Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by excruciating paroxysms of pain in the lips, gums, cheek, or chin and, very rarely, in the distribution of the fifth nerve. The pain seldom lasts more than a few seconds or a minute or two but may be so intense that the patient winces, hence the term tic. The paroxysms, experienced as single jabs or clusters, tend to recur frequently, both day and night, for several weeks at a time. They may occur spontaneously or with movements of affected areas evoked by speaking, chewing, or smiling. Another characteristic feature is the presence of trigger zones, typically on the face, lips, or tongue, that provoke attacks; patients may report that tactile stimuli – e.g., washing the face, brushing the teeth, or exposure to a draft of air – generate excruciating pain. An essential feature of trigeminal neuralgia is that objective signs of sensory loss cannot be demonstrated on examination.

      Trigeminal neuralgia is relatively common, with an estimated annual incidence of 4–8 per 100,000 individuals. Middle-aged and elderly persons are affected primarily, and ,60% of cases occur in women. Onset is typically sudden, and bouts tend to persist for weeks or months before remitting spontaneously. Remissions may be long-lasting, but in most patients, the disorder ultimately recurs.

      An ESR or CRP is indicated if temporal arteritis is suspected. In typical cases of trigeminal neuralgia, neuroimaging studies are usually unnecessary but may be valuable if MS is a consideration or in assessing overlying vascular lesions in order to plan for decompression surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria?

      Your Answer: Cardiac muscle

      Explanation:

      Among the types of muscles, cardiac muscles have the greatest number if mitochondria due to the heart energy requirements.

      Approximately 35% of the cardiac muscle volume is due to the mitochondria. While in skeletal and smooth muscles, it comprises 3-8% of the muscle volume.

      Type I muscle fibre has a slow contraction velocity, with a red fibre colour, and predominantly uses oxidative phosphorylation to produce a sustained contraction. It contains more mitochondria and myoglobin than type II, and is often used for endurance training.

      Type II muscle fibre has a fast contraction velocity, a white fibre colour, and predominantly uses anaerobic glycolysis. It has fewer mitochondria and myoglobin, and is often used for weight or resistance training and sprinting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 52-year-old man was referred for investigation of malignant hyperthermia following general anaesthesia...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man was referred for investigation of malignant hyperthermia following general anaesthesia for a micro laryngoscopy and biopsy for a suspected laryngeal tumour. The patient was found to be a heavy smoker and the only presenting symptom is a hoarse voice.

      A sample of muscle (vastus lateralis) needs to be taken to establish a diagnosis of malignant hyperthermia in this patient.

      Which one of the following is the best anaesthetic technique for muscle biopsy in this patient?

      Your Answer: Spinal anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      According to European Group protocol for the investigation of MH susceptibility, muscle biopsy should be performed on quadriceps muscle (either vastus medialis or vastus lateralis), using regional anaesthesia (avoiding local anaesthetic infiltration) or general anaesthetic techniques. Local anaesthetic solution within muscle fibres may affect in vitro contraction testing.

      Desflurane is a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia so is avoided in MH susceptible patients. This includes all volatile inhalational agents and suxamethonium.

      General anaesthetic with the volatile free anaesthetic machine may be considered but spinal anaesthesia is a better choice due to the possibility of airway problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Calcium homeostasis is regulated by parathormone (PTH).

    Which of the following PTH actions is...

    Correct

    • Calcium homeostasis is regulated by parathormone (PTH).

      Which of the following PTH actions is most likely to cause calcium to be released from bone?

      Your Answer: Indirect stimulation of osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      The hormone parathyroid hormone (PTH) and the receptor parathyroid hormone type 1 (PTH1-Rc) are important regulators of blood calcium homeostasis.

      PTH can cause a rapid release of calcium from the matrix in bone, but it also affects long-term calcium metabolism by acting directly on bone-forming osteoblasts (by binding to PTH1-Rc) and indirectly on bone-resorbing osteoclasts.

      PTH causes changes in the synthesis and/or activity of several proteins, including osteoclast-differentiating factor, also known as TRANCE or RANKL, when it acts on osteoblasts.

      RANK receptors are found on the cell surfaces of osteoclast precursors. The osteoclasts are activated when RANKL binds to the RANK receptors. Osteoclasts lack PTH receptors, whereas osteoblasts do. Osteoclasts are activated indirectly when the RANK receptor binds to the RANKL secreted by osteoblasts, resulting in bone resorption. PTH1 receptors are found in osteoclasts, but they are few.

      PTH activates G-protein coupled receptors in all target cells via adenylate cyclase.

      The PTH2 receptor is most abundant in the nervous system and pancreas, but it is not a calcium metabolism regulator. It is abundant in the septum, midline thalamic nuclei, several hypothalamic nuclei, and the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, as well as the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia. Expression in pancreatic islet somatostatin cells is the most prominent on the periphery.

      The distribution of the receptor is being used to test functional hypotheses. It may play a role in pain modulation and hypothalamic releasing-factor secretion control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant,...

    Incorrect

    • A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant, in preventing stroke in patients suffering from atrial fibrillation, relative to those already available in the market was performed. A 59 year old woman volunteered for it and was randomised to the treatment arm. A year later, following findings were reported:

      165 out of 1050 patients who were prescribed the already prevalent medicine had a stroke while the number of patients who had a single stroke after using the new drug was 132 out of 1044.

      In order to avoid one stroke case, what is the number of patients that need to be treated?

      Your Answer: 30

      Correct Answer: 32

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

      where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (165/1050)-(132/1044)

      ARR= (0.157-0.126)

      ARR= 0.031

      NNT= 1/0.031

      NNT=32.3

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 75-year-old man, visits his general practitioner. He complains of changes to his...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man, visits his general practitioner. He complains of changes to his bowel habit and unexpected weight loss in the last 6 months. He is scheduled for a colonoscopy and biopsy where he is diagnosed with a transverse colon malignancy.

      The transverse colon is one of many organs tethered to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity by a double fold of the peritoneum.

      Which of the listed organs is also tethered to the peritoneum in a similar way?

      Your Answer: The stomach

      Explanation:

      The peritoneal cavity is made up of the omentum, the ligaments and the mesentery.

      The section of the peritoneum responsible for tethering organs to the posterior abdominal wall is the mesentery.

      These tethered organs are classified as intraperitoneal, and these include the stomach, spleen, liver, first and fourth parts of the duodenum, jejunum, ileum, transverse, and sigmoid colon.

      Retroperitoneal organs are located posterior to the peritoneum and include: the rest of the duodenum, the ascending colon, the descending colon, the middle third of the rectum, and the remainder of the pancreas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?

      Your Answer: Epoprostenol

      Explanation:

      Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.

      Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.

      Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.

      Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.

      Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g of amitriptyline. On clinical examination:
      Glasgow coma score: 10
      Pulse rate: 140 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 80/50 mmHg.
      ECG showed a QRS duration of 233 Ms.

      Which of the following statement describes the most important initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Give fluid boluses

      Explanation:

      The first line of treatment in case of hypotension is fluid resuscitation.

      Activated charcoal can be used within one hour of tricyclic antidepressant ingestion but an intact and secure airway must be checked before intervention. The risk of aspiration should be assessed.

      Vasopressors are indicated for the treatment of hypotension following (Tricyclic Antidepressant) TCA overdose when patients fail to respond to fluids and bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - The rapid depolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential is caused by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The rapid depolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential is caused by:

      Your Answer: Efflux of potassium

      Correct Answer: Rapid sodium influx

      Explanation:

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Work is underway to devise a new breast cancer screen testing method that...

    Correct

    • Work is underway to devise a new breast cancer screen testing method that doesn’t involve mammography which is in contrast to the prevailing standard. The initial numbers look promising and are indicating that the new testing method is better able to pick up early stage cancer. There, however, is not substantial difference in survival rates.

      Which of the following term can be used to describe this?

      Your Answer: Lead-time bias

      Explanation:

      Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.

      Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

      Not publishing the results of a valid study just because they are negative or uninteresting can be termed as publication bias.

      When information gathering is ill suited with respect to time i.e. collecting the data regarding a fatal disease many years after the death of its patients, it is termed as Late – look bias.

      The case in point is an instance of lead time bias when upon comparing two tests, one is able to detect the condition earlier than the other but the overall outcome doesn’t change. There is a possibility that this will make the survival rates for the newer test look more promising.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the...

    Correct

    • Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the fastest twitch response to stimulation?

      Your Answer: Type IIb skeletal muscle

      Explanation:

      Human skeletal muscle is composed of a heterogeneous collection of muscle fibre types which differ histologically, biochemically and physiologically.

      It can be biochemically classified into 2 groups. This is based on muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry. These are:

      Type 1 (slow twitch): Muscle fibres depend upon aerobic glycolytic metabolism and aerobic oxidative metabolism. They are rich in mitochondria, have a good blood supply, rich in myoglobin and are resistant to fatigue.

      Type II (fast twitch): Muscle fibres are sub-divided into:
      Type IIa – relies on aerobic/oxidative metabolism
      Type IIb – relies on anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism.

      Fast twitch muscle fibres produce short bursts of power but are more easily fatigued.

      Cardiac and smooth muscle twitches are relatively slow compared with skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of...

    Correct

    • The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood (CaO2) and mixed-venous blood (CvO2).

      At rest, which organ has the greatest a-vO2 difference?

      Your Answer: Heart

      Explanation:

      At rest, the heart has the greatest a-vO2 difference, a high capillary to myocyte ratio, short diffusion distances, and a high mitochondrial density. The flow of blood through the coronary arteries is also tightly controlled. At rest, 70-80 percent of the oxygen available to the cardiac muscle is extracted, increasing to 90 percent during exercise.

      The a-vO2 difference indicates the body’s or an individual organ’s ability to extract oxygen from the blood.

      CaO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including Hb concentration, PaO2 and pulmonary diffusion capacity.

      CvO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including capillary density, regional blood flow, heart, resting skeletal muscle, kidney, intestine and skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - Which of the following is included in monosynaptic reflexes? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is included in monosynaptic reflexes?

      Your Answer: The patellar or knee jerk reflex.

      Explanation:

      Monosynaptic reflexes is a type of reflex arc providing direct communication between motor and sensory innervation in a muscle. It occurs very quickly as it arises and ends in the same muscle. Examples include: biceps reflex, brachioradialis reflex, extensor digitorum reflex, triceps reflex, Achilles reflex and patellar reflex.

      Polysynaptic reflexes facilitates contraction and inhibition in muscle by providing communication between multiple muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about the central venous pressure (CVP) waveform is true?

      Your Answer: Third degree heart block causes canon A waves

      Explanation:

      The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:

      A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.

      C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.

      X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.

      V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.

      Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.

      Canon waves: which refer to large waves present on the trace that do not correspond to the A, V or C waves. They usually occur in a background of complete heart blocks or junctional arrythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For...

    Correct

    • An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape.

      The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance.  
      End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes)
      Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa

      Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%. 

      Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?

      Your Answer: Increase the FGF

      Explanation:

      End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial–end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.

      The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.

      Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.

      There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
      1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
      B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
      2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
      3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
      4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Suppose the afterload and myocardial contractility remain unchanged, which of the following factors...

    Correct

    • Suppose the afterload and myocardial contractility remain unchanged, which of the following factors in the pressure-volume loop indicates an increase in the preload of the left ventricle?

      Your Answer: Increased end-diastolic volume

      Explanation:

      If the afterload and myocardiac contractility remains unchanged, an increase in the preload can be attributed to an increase in end-diastolic volume.

      Preload can be defined as the initial stretching of the cardiac myocytes prior to contraction. Preload, therefore, is related to muscle sarcomere length. Because sarcomere length cannot be determined in the intact heart, other indices of preload are used such as ventricular end-diastolic volume or pressure. When venous return to the heart is increased, the end-diastolic pressure and volume of the ventricles are increased, which stretches the sarcomeres, thereby increasing their preload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?

      Your Answer: Post tetanic count of 5

      Explanation:

      A post-tetanic count of 5 denotes a deep neuromuscular blockade.

      Post tetanic count (PTC) is a well-established method of evaluating neuromuscular recovery during intense neuromuscular blockade. It cam ne used when there is no response to single twitch, tetanic, or train-of-four (TOF) stimulation to assess the intensity of neuromuscular blockade and to estimate the duration after which the first twitch in the TOF (T1) is likely to reappear.

      During a nondepolarizing block, the high frequency of tetanic stimulation will induce a transient increase in the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic nerve ending, such that the intensity of subsequent muscle contractions will be increased (potentiated) briefly (period of post-tetanic potentiation, which may last 2 to 5 min. The neuromuscular response to stimulation during post tetanic potentiation can be used to gauge the depth of block when TOF stimulation otherwise evokes no responses. The number of post tetanic responses is inversely proportional to the depth of block: fewer post tetanic contractions denote a deeper block. When the post tetanic count (PTC) is 6 to 8, recovery to TOF count = 1 is likely imminent from an intermediate-duration blocking agent; when the PTC is 0, the depth of block is profound, and no additional NMBA should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A healthy 27-year old male who weighs 70kg has appendicitis. He is currently...

    Correct

    • A healthy 27-year old male who weighs 70kg has appendicitis. He is currently in the operating room and is being positioned to have a rapid sequence induction.

      Prior to preoxygenation, the compartment likely to have the best oxygen reserve is:

      Your Answer: Red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The following table shows the compartments and their relative oxygen reserve:
      Compartment Factors Room air (mL) 100% O2 (mL)
      Lung FAO2, FRC 630 2850
      Plasma PaO2, DF, PV 7 45
      Red blood cells Hb, TGV, SaO2 788 805
      Myoglobin 200 200
      Interstitial space 25 160

      Oxygen reserves in the body, with room air and after oxygenation.

      FAO2-alveolar fraction of oxygen rises to 95% after administration of 100% oxygen (CO2 = 5%)
      FRC- Functional residual capacity – (the most important store of oxygen in the body) – 2,500-3,000 mL in medium sized adults
      PaO2-partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in arterial blood (80 mmHg breathing room air and 500 mmHg breathing 100% oxygen)
      DF -dissolved form (0.3%)
      PV-plasma volume (3L)
      TG-total globular volume (5L)
      Hb-haemoglobin concentration
      SaO2-arterial oxygen concentration (98% breathing air and 100% when preoxygenated)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 40-year-old woman was diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. She is undergoing a parathyroidectomy, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman was diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism. She is undergoing a parathyroidectomy, and during the surgery, the inferior parathyroid gland is found to be enlarged. There is a vessel adjacent to this gland on its lateral side.

      What is this vessel most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Correct Answer: Common carotid artery

      Explanation:

      There are four parathyroid glands that lie on the medial half of the posterior surface of each lobe of the thyroid gland, inside its sheath. There are two superior and two inferior parathyroid glands.

      The common carotid artery is a lateral relation of the inferior parathyroid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from...

    Correct

    • With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?

      Your Answer: Haemoglobin concentration

      Explanation:

      The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:

      CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma

      CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)

      where:

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
      Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
      PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).

      Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.

      Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.

      Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.

      Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic...

    Correct

    • An 81-year old man was admitted to the Pulmonology Ward due to chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) exacerbation. Upon physical examination, he was hypertensive at 140/90 mmHg, tachycardic at 114 beats per minute, and tachypnoeic at 33 breaths per minute.

      Arterial blood gas analysis was obtained and showed the following results:

      pH: 7.25 (Reference range: 7.35-7.45)
      PaO2: 73 mmHg (9.7 kPa) (Reference range: 11.3-12.6 kPa)
      PaCO2: 56 mmHg (7.5 kPa) (Reference range: 4.7-6.0 kPa)
      SaO2: 90%
      Standard bicarbonate: 29 mmol/L (Reference range: 20-28)
      BE: +4 mmol/L (± 2)

      Which of the following options has the most significant impact on his respiratory rate?

      Your Answer: CSF pH

      Explanation:

      The arterial blood gas analysis indicates presence of acute respiratory acidosis.

      Central chemoreceptors are located in the ventral medulla and respond directly to presence of hydrogen ions in the CSF. When stimulated, it causes an increase in respiratory rate.

      It is believed that hydrogen ions may be the only important direct stimulus for these neurons, however, CO2 is believed to stimulate these neurons secondarily by changing the hydrogen ion concentration.

      Changes in O2 concentration have virtually no direct effect on the respiratory centre itself to alter respiratory drive. Although, O2 changes do have an indirect effect by acting through the peripheral chemoreceptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters? ...

    Correct

    • Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters?

      Your Answer: Constant pressure, variable orifice - Heidbrink flowmeters

      Explanation:

      There are different models of flowmeters determined by the applied pressure and its orifice. For instance, the watersight flowmeter functions through applying variable pressure, and it has a variable orifice. In contrast, the bubble flowmeter is operated using a constant pressure and orifice. Flowmeters such as rotameters, Heidbrink and Peak have a constant pressure but variable orifice. On the other hand, flowmeters including a simple pressure gauge, water depression, and pneumotachograph have a constant orifice but variable pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - In the erect position, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2)...

    Correct

    • In the erect position, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2) is higher in the apical lung units than in the basal lung units.

      What is the most significant reason for this?

      Your Answer: The V/Q ratio of apical units is greater than that of basal units

      Explanation:

      In any alveolar unit, the V/Q ratio affects alveolar oxygen (PAO2) and carbon dioxide tension (PACO2).

      The partial pressure of alveolar carbon dioxide (PACO2) is plotted against the partial pressure of alveolar oxygen in a Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) ratio graph (PAO2). Given a set of model assumptions, the curve represents all of the possible values for PACO2 and PAO2 that an individual alveolus could have.

      In the case of an infinity V/Q ratio (ventilation but no perfusion or dead space), the PACO2 of the alveolus will equal zero, while the PAO2 will approach that of external air (150mmmHg). At the apex of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 3.3, compared to 0.67 at the base.

      PACO2 and PAO2 approach the partial pressures for these gases in the venous blood when the V/Q ratio is zero (no ventilation but perfusion). At the base of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 0.67, whereas at the apex, it is 3.3.

      PAO2 at the apex is typically 132mmHg, and PACO2 is typically 28mmHg.

      The average PAO2 at the base is 89 mmHg, while the average PACO2 is 42 mmHg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus...

    Incorrect

    • Drug X, a new intravenous induction drug, is being administered as a bolus at regular time intervals, and the following data were observed:

      Time following injection (hours) vs Plasma concentration of drug X (mcg/mL)
      2 / 400
      6 / 100
      10 / 25
      14 / 6.25

      Which of the following values estimate the plasma half-life (T½) of drug X?

      Your Answer: 4 hours

      Correct Answer: 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Half life (T½) is the time required to change the amount of drug in the body by one-half (or 50%) during elimination. The time course of a drug in the body will depend on both the volume of distribution and the clearance.

      Extrapolating the values from the plasma concentration vs time:

      Plasma concentration at 0 hours = 800 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 2 hours = 400 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 4 hours = 200 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 6 hours = 100 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 8 hours = 50 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 10 hours = 25 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 12 hours = 12.5 mcg/mL
      Plasma concentration at 14 hours = 6.25 mcg/mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - Gag reflex was assessed as a part of brain stem death in a...

    Correct

    • Gag reflex was assessed as a part of brain stem death in a 22-year-old man with severe traumatic brain injury.

      Which of the following nerves forms the afferent limb of this reflex?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The gag reflex is a protective mechanism that prevents any foreign material to enter the aerodigestive tract.

      This reflex has afferent (sensory) and effect (motor) components.
      – Glossopharyngeal nerve form the afferent limb
      – Vagus nerve form the efferent limb

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - An otherwise fit 7-year-old boy for an elective tonsillectomy is seen holding a...

    Correct

    • An otherwise fit 7-year-old boy for an elective tonsillectomy is seen holding a bottle of sugared orange squash at anaesthetic assessment . He appears to have consumed 120 mL of the bottle's contents.

      What is the minimal safe fasting time prior to proceeding with a general anaesthetic in this patient?

      Your Answer: 1 hour

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the left...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with transitional cell carcinoma of the left kidney. He will be operated on, and as part of the surgery, the left renal artery has to be located and dissected.

      Which of the following vertebral levels gives rise to this artery?

      Your Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      The renal arteries branch from the abdominal aorta just below the origin of the superior mesenteric artery. The right renal artery is higher and longer than the left renal artery. The left renal artery passes behind the left renal vein, the body of the pancreas, and the splenic vein.

      The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

      T10 – oesophageal opening in the diaphragm

      T12 – Coeliac trunk, aortic hiatus in the diaphragm

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - Lisa is a 75-year-old female rushed into the emergency department by first-aid responders....

    Correct

    • Lisa is a 75-year-old female rushed into the emergency department by first-aid responders. The ambulance team give a history of vomiting, homonymous hemianopia, weakness of the left upper and lower limb, and dysphasia. Lisa adds that she has a headache that keeps worsening.

      Lisa takes Warfarin as she is a known case of atrial fibrillation. Her INR is 4.3 despite the ideal target being 2-3.
      CT scan of the head suggests anterior cerebral artery haemorrhage.

      What areas of the brain are affected by an anterior cerebral artery stroke?

      Your Answer: Frontal and parietal lobes

      Explanation:

      The anterior cerebral artery supplies the midline portion of the frontal lobe and the superior medial parietal lobe of the brain. It also supplies the front four-fifths of the corpus callosum and provides blood to deep structures such as the anterior limb of the internal capsule, part of the caudate nucleus, and the anterior part of the globus pallidus.

      The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries.

      Clinically, the internal carotid arteries and their branches are often referred to as the anterior circulation of the brain. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected by the anterior communicating artery. Near their termination, the internal carotid arteries are joined to the posterior cerebral arteries by the posterior communicating arteries, completing the cerebral arterial circle around the interpeduncular fossa, the deep depression on the inferior surface of the midbrain between the cerebral peduncles.

      The middle cerebral artery supplies part of the frontal, temporal and parietal lobes.

      The posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the...

    Correct

    • Calculation of the left ventricular ejection fraction is determined by which of the following equations?

      Your Answer: Stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - The phenomenon that the patients behaved in a different manner when they know...

    Correct

    • The phenomenon that the patients behaved in a different manner when they know that they are being observed is termed as?

      Your Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Explanation:

      Hawthorne effect explains the change in any behavioural aspect owing to the awareness that the person is being observed.
      Simpson’s Paradox explains the association developed when the data from several groups is combined to form a single larger group.

      The remaining terms are made up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Concerning calcium metabolism and its control, which of these is correct? ...

    Correct

    • Concerning calcium metabolism and its control, which of these is correct?

      Your Answer: Cholecalciferol is 25-hydroxylated in the liver

      Explanation:

      When there is a fall in ionised plasma calcium levels, the chief cells of the parathyroid glands are stimulated to secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).

      50% of extracellular calcium occurs as non-ionised, protein- (albumin-)bound calcium.

      The degree of ionisation increases with low ph and decreases with high pH.

      There is increased renal calcium excretion with secretion of calcitonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light...

    Correct

    • A laser is a device that stimulates atoms or molecules to emit light at particular wavelengths and amplifies that light, typically producing a very narrow beam of radiation. This can be of visible, infrared, or ultraviolet wavelengths. They have been widely utilized in theatre environment.

      Which of the following safety measures is most likely to reduce chances of eye injury to the theatre personnel?

      Your Answer: Wearing laser protective goggles

      Explanation:

      Eye damage is the most common potential hazard associated with laser energy. Everyone in the laser treatment room has the risk of eye exposure when working with a Class 3b or Class 4 healthcare laser system, and damage to various structures in the eye depending on wavelength of the laser if they are unprotected.

      Red and near-infrared light (400-1400 nm) has very high penetration power. The light causes painless burns on the retina after it is absorbed by melanin in the pigment epithelium just behind the photoreceptors.

      Infrared radiation (IR), or infrared light (>1060 nm), is a type of radiant energy that’s invisible to human eyes and hence won’t elicit the protective blink.

      Ultraviolet light (<400 nm) is also a form of electromagnetic radiation which is can penetrate the cornea and be absorbed by the iris or the pupil and cause burn injuries or cataract occur due to irreversible photochemical retinal damage. Safety eyewear is the best method of providing eye protection and are designed to absorb light specific to the laser being used. Laser protective eyewear (LPE) includes glasses or goggles of proper optical density (OD). The lenses should not be glass or plastic. The LPE should withstand direct and diffuse scattered laser beams. The laser protection supervisor (LPS) or LSO is an individual who is responsible for any clinical area in which lasers are used. They are expected to have a certain level of equipment and determine what control measures are appropriate, for each individual system, but their presence does not guarantee the chances of having an eye injury. Class 1 lasers are generally safe under every conceivable condition and is not likely to cause any eye damage. Class 3b or Class 4 medical laser systems are utilized in healthcare which have their own safety precautions. Polarized spectacles can make your eyes more comfortable by eliminated glare, however, they will not be able to offer any protection against wavelengths at which laser act.
      Using short bursts to reduce energy is also not correct as it would still be harmful to eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of sevoflurane preconditioning?

      Your Answer: Opening of mitochondrial KATP channels

      Explanation:

      Sevoflurane is highly fluorinated methyl isopropyl ether widely used as an inhalational anaesthetic. It is suggested that sevoflurane preconditioning occurs via the opening of mitochondrial Potassium ATP dependent channel similar to that of Ischemic Preconditioning protection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - Following an acute appendicectomy, a 6-year-old child is admitted to the recovery unit.

    Your...

    Correct

    • Following an acute appendicectomy, a 6-year-old child is admitted to the recovery unit.

      Your consultant has requested that you prescribe maintenance fluids for the next 12 hours. The child is 21 kg in weight.

      What is the most suitable fluid volume to be prescribed?

      Your Answer: 732 ml

      Explanation:

      After a paediatric case, you’ll frequently have to calculate and prescribe maintenance fluids. The ‘4-2-1 rule’ should be used as a guideline:

      1st 10 kg – 4 ml/kg/hr
      2nd 10 kg – 2 ml/kg/hr
      Subsequent kg – 1 ml/kg/hr

      Hence

      1st 10 kg = 4 × 10 = 40 ml
      2nd 10 kg = 2 × 10 = 20 ml
      Subsequent kg = 1 × 1 = 1 ml
      Total = 61 ml/hr

      61 × 12 = 732 ml over 12 hrs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - Clearance techniques are used to assess renal glomerular function.

    Which of the following is...

    Correct

    • Clearance techniques are used to assess renal glomerular function.

      Which of the following is the most accurate marker for glomerular filtration rate measurement?

      Your Answer: Inulin

      Explanation:

      The perfect glomerular filtration marker is:

      The human body is not harmed by it.
      Chemical or physical methods are used to accurately measure
      Extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is freely and evenly diffusible.
      Inability to access the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment
      Filtration in the kidney is the only way to remove it from the blood.

      The ideal marker should not be reabsorbed into the bloodstream by the renal tubules or other urinary system components.

      Creatinine is an endogenous substance that is filtered freely by the glomerulus and secreted by the proximal tubule. As a result, creatinine clearance consistently underestimates GFR. In healthy people, this overestimation ranges from 10% to 40%, but it is higher and more unpredictable in patients with chronic kidney disease.

      The gold standard method of inulin clearance necessitates an intravenous infusion and several hours of timed urine collection, making it costly and time-consuming. Inulin is hard to come by and is difficult to mix and keep as a solution.

      Exogenous filtration markers include the following:

      Although plasma clearance of 51chromium EDTA is a widely used method in Europe, tubular reabsorption can occur.
      Because 125I-iothalamate can be excreted by renal tubules in the urine, it cannot be used in patients who have an iodine assay.

      Radioactive substances must be stored, administered, and disposed of according to these methods.

      The glomerulus filters para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) freely, and any that remains in the peritubular capillaries is secreted into the proximal convoluted tubules. This marker is used to determine the amount of blood flowing through the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - The SI unit of energy is the joule. Energy can be kinetic, potential,...

    Correct

    • The SI unit of energy is the joule. Energy can be kinetic, potential, electrical or chemical energy.

      Which of these correlates with the most energy?

      Your Answer: Energy released when 1 kg fat is metabolised to CO2 and water (the energy content of fat is 37 kJ/g)

      Explanation:

      The derived unit of energy, work or amount of heat is joule (J). It is defined as the amount of energy expended if a force of one newton (N) is applied through a distance of one metre (N·m)

      J = 1 kg·m/s2·m = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2

      Kinetic energy (KE) = ½ MV2

      An object with a mass of 1500 kg moving at 30 m/s correlates to 675 kJ:

      KE = ½ (1500) × (30)2 = 750 × 900 = 675 kJ

      Total energy released when 1 kg fat is metabolised to CO2 and water is 37 MJ. 1 g fat produces 37 kJ/g, therefore 1 kg fat produces 37,000 × 1000 = 37 MJ.

      Raising the temperature of 1 kg water from 0°C to 100°C correlates to 420 kJ. The amount of energy needed to change the temperature of 1 kg of the substance by 1°C is the specific heat capacity. We have 1 kg water therefore:

      4,200 J × 100 = 420,000 J = 420 kJ

      In order to calculate the energy involved in raising a 100 kg mass to a height of 1 km against gravity, we need to calculate the potential energy (PE) of the mass:

      PE = mass × height attained × acceleration due to gravity
      PE = 100 kg × 1000 m × 10 m/s2 = 1 MJ

      The heat generated when a direct current of 10 amps flows through a heating element for 10 seconds when the potential difference across the element is 1000 volts can be calculated by applying Joule’s law of heating:

      Work done (WD) = V (potential difference) × I (current) × t (time)
      WD = 10 × 10 × 1000 = 100 kJ

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - Which of the following is correct about the action of bile salts? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is correct about the action of bile salts?

      Your Answer: Emulsification of lipids

      Explanation:

      The emulsification and absorption of fats requires Bile salts.

      Absorption of fats is associated with the activation of lipases in the intestine.

      Bile salts are involved in fat soluble vitamin absorption and are reabsorbed in the terminal ileum (B12 is NOT fat soluble).

      Although Vitamin B12 is also absorbed in the terminal ileum, it is a water soluble vitamin (as are B1, nicotinic acid, folic acid and vitamin C) .

      The gastric parietal cells secretes Intrinsic factor that is essential for the absorption of B12.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - With regards to the repolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential, which of...

    Correct

    • With regards to the repolarisation phase of the myocardial action potential, which of the following is responsible?

      Your Answer: Efflux of potassium

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - Bioelectric potentials that have been measured have an optimum bandwidth and typical frequency.

    For...

    Correct

    • Bioelectric potentials that have been measured have an optimum bandwidth and typical frequency.

      For a standard 12-lead ECG, which of the following bandwidth and voltage combinations is the best?

      Your Answer: Bandwidth 0.05-150 Hz, voltage 100-4000 microvolts

      Explanation:

      The potential difference (amplitude) and bandwidth frequencies of bioelectric signals are typical.

      These are the following:

      ECG: A bandwidth of 0.5-50 Hz is usually sufficient in monitoring mode, but a typical diagnostic bandwidth is 0.05-150 Hz (up to 200 Hz) with a typical voltage range of 0.1-4 millivolts (100-4000 microvolts).
      EEG has a frequency range of 0.5-100 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5-100 microvolts.
      EMG has a frequency range of 0.5 to 350 Hz and a voltage range of 0.5 to 30 millivolts.

      Prior to display, these small signals will need to be amplified and processed further.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck? ...

    Correct

    • Which structure does NOT lie in the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer: Internal jugular vein

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles on both sides of the neck.

      The posterior triangle has the following boundaries:
      anteriorly – sternocleidomastoid muscle
      posteriorly – trapezius
      roof – investing layer of deep cervical fascia
      floor – prevertebral fascia overlying splenius capitis, levator scapulae, and the scalene muscles

      The contents of the posterior triangle are:
      1. fat
      2. lymph nodes (level V)
      3. accessory nerve
      4. cutaneous branches of the cervical plexus (A major branch of this plexus is the phrenic nerve, which arises from the anterior divisions of spinal nerves C3-C5)
      5. inferior belly of omohyoid
      6. branches of the thyrocervical trunk (transverse cervical and suprascapular arteries)
      7. third part of the subclavian artery
      8. external jugular vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh....

    Correct

    • A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh.

      The most impactful physiological response occurring at the start to combat the decline in the intravascular blood volume of this man is?

      Your Answer: Venoconstriction

      Explanation:

      In contrast to the arterial system, which contains 15% of the circulating blood volume, the body’s veins contain 70% of it.

      In severe haemorrhage, when sympathetic stimulation causes venoconstriction, venous tone is important in maintaining the return of blood to the heart.

      Because the liver receives about 30% of the resting cardiac output, it is a very vascular organ. The hepatic vascular system is dynamic, which means it can store and release blood in large amounts – it acts as a reservoir within the general circulation.

      In a normal situation, the liver contains 10-15% of total blood volume, with the sinusoids accounting for roughly 60% of that. The liver dynamically adjusts its blood volume when blood is lost and can eject enough blood to compensate for a moderate amount of haemorrhage.

      In the portal venous and hepatic arterial systems, sympathetic nerves constrict the presinusoidal resistance vessels. More importantly, sympathetic stimulation lowers the portal system’s capacitance, allowing blood to flow more efficiently to the heart.

      Net transcapillary absorption of interstitial fluid from skeletal muscle into the intravascular space compensates for blood loss effectively during haemorrhage. The decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc), caused by reflex adrenergic readjustment of the ratio of pre- to postcapillary resistance, is primarily responsible for fluid absorption. Within a few hours of blood loss, these fluid shifts become significant, further diluting haemoglobin and plasma proteins.

      Albumin synthesis begins to increase after 48 hours.

      The juxtamedullary complex releases renin in response to a drop in mean arterial pressure, which causes an increase in aldosterone level and, eventually, sodium and water resorption. Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels also contribute to water retention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - A controlled retrospective study's level of evidence is? ...

    Incorrect

    • A controlled retrospective study's level of evidence is?

      Your Answer: Level 4

      Correct Answer: Level 3

      Explanation:

      Level 1 – High-quality randomised controlled trial with statistically significant difference or no statistically significant difference but narrow confidence intervals (prospective controlled)

      Level 2 – Prospective comparative study (prospective uncontrolled)

      Level 3 – Case-control study, retrospective comparative study (retrospective controlled)

      Level 4 – Case series (retrospective uncontrolled)

      Level 5 – Expert opinion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?...

    Correct

    • What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?

      Your Answer: Inferior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The descending thoracic aorta begins at the lower border of T4 near the midline as a continuation of the arch of the aorta. It descends and ends at the level of T12 at the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm, where it becomes the abdominal aorta.

      The aorta gives off the following branches: (descending order)

      1. Bronchial arteries
      2. Mediastinal arteries
      3. Oesophageal arteries
      4. Pericardial arteries
      5. Superior phrenic arteries

      The posterior intercostal arteries are branches that originate throughout the length of the posterior aspect of the descending thoracic aorta.

      The inferior thyroid artery is usually derived from the thyrocervical trunk, a branch of the subclavian artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in...

    Correct

    • An orthopaedic surgery is scheduled for a 68-year-old man. He is normally in good shape. His routine biochemistry results are checked and found to be within normal limits.

      Which of the following pairs has the greatest impact on his plasma osmolarity?

      Your Answer: Sodium and potassium cations

      Explanation:

      The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per litre (L) of solution (Osmol/L) is the unit of measurement for solute concentration. The calculated serum osmolality assumes that the primary solutes in the serum are sodium salts (chloride and bicarbonate), glucose, and urea nitrogen.

      2 (Na + K) + Glucose + Urea (all in mmol/L) = calculated osmolarity

      313 mOsm/L = 2 (144 + 6) + 9.5 + 3.5

      Sodium and potassium ions clearly contribute the most to plasma osmolarity. Glucose and urea, on the other hand, are less so.

      The osmolarity of normal serum is 285-295 mOsm/L. Temperature and pressure affect osmolality, and this calculated variable is less than osmolality for a given solution.

      The number of osmoles (Osm) of solute per kilogramme (Osm/kg) is a measure of osmolality, which is also a measure of solute concentration. Temperature and pressure have no effect on the value. An osmometer is used to measure it in the lab. Osmometers rely on a solution’s colligative properties, such as a decrease in freezing point or a rise in vapour pressure.

      The osmolar gap (OG) is calculated as follows:

      OG = osmolaRity calculated from measured serum osmolaLity

      Excess alcohols, lipids, and proteins in the blood can all contribute to the difference.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex...

    Correct

    • When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Phentolamine

      Explanation:

      The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.

      The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.

      Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.

      Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.

      Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.

      A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.

      Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).

      A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations is? ...

    Correct

    • The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis per hundred thousand administrations is?

      Your Answer: Teicoplanin

      Explanation:

      The leading cause of perioperative anaphylaxis in the UK currently are antibiotics. They account for 46% of cases with identified causative agents. Co-amoxiclav and teicoplanin between them account for 89% of antibiotic-induced perioperative anaphylaxis

      Neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs) are the second leading cause and account for 33% of case.

      Chlorhexidine (0.78/100,000 administrations)
      Co-amoxiclav (8.7/100,000 administrations)Suxamethonium (11.1/100,000 administrations)
      Patent blue dye (14.6/100,000 administrations)
      Teicoplanin (16.4/100,000 administrations)

      Anaphylaxis to chlorhexidine periop poses a significant risk in the healthcare setting because of its widespread use with some being fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - Which of the following is a true statement about invasive arterial pressure monitoring?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a true statement about invasive arterial pressure monitoring?

      Your Answer: The natural frequency is indirectly related to the catheter diameter

      Correct Answer: Increased resonance elevates the systolic and lower the diastolic pressures

      Explanation:

      The arterial cannula inserted should have parallel walls in order to reduce the risk of interruption of blood flow to distal limbs.

      It is essential that the monitor used to display the arterial pressure waves has a frequency capacity of 0.5-40Hz. This is because the pressure waves are a combination of different sine waves of varying frequencies and amplitudes.

      The diameter of the catheter is directly proportional to the natural frequency which is the frequency at which the system responsible for monitoring the waves resonates and amplifies the signals. This should be at least ten fold in comparison to the fundamental frequency. The diameter of the catheter is also inversely proportional to the square root of the system compliance, the tubing length and the fluid density within the system.

      The presence of an air bubble, a clot or an easily malleable diaphragm and tube can result in wave damping. Increased damping will cause a reduction in the systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure. The maximum damping value of an appropriate monitoring system would be 0.64.

      A rigid, non-malleable diaphragm and tubing can cause a resonance within the system. This resonance will result in an increase in the systolic pressure and a reduction in the diastolic pressure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - A 10-year-old girl complains of right iliac fossa pain, and a provisional diagnosis...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl complains of right iliac fossa pain, and a provisional diagnosis of appendicitis is made.

      Which of the following embryological structures gives rise to the appendix?

      Your Answer: Midgut

      Explanation:

      The midgut gives rise to the appendix.
      At week 6, the caecal diverticulum appears and is the precursor for the cecum and vermiform appendix. The cecum and appendix undergo rotation and descend into the right lower abdomen. The appendix can take up various positions:
      1. Retrocecal appendix: behind the cecum
      2. Retrocolic appendix: behind the ascending colon
      3. Pelvic appendix: appendix descends into the pelvis

      The appendix grows in length so that at birth, it is long and worm-shaped, or vermiform. After birth, the caecal wall grows unequally, and the appendix comes to lie on its medial side.

      The midgut develops into the distal duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it...

    Correct

    • If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it is most likely to cause?

      Your Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Crystalloids recommended for fluid resuscitation include 0.9% N saline and Hartmann’s solution(a physiological solution). 0.9% N. saline is not a physiological solution for the following reasons:

      Compared with the normal range of 98-102 mmol/L, its chloride concentration is high (154 mmol/L)
      It lacks calcium, magnesium, glucose and potassium
      It does not have bicarbonate or bicarbonate precursor buffer necessary to maintain plasma pH within normal limits

      There is a difference in the activity (concentration) of strong ions at a physiological pH. This imbalance can explain abnormalities of acid base balance. A normal strong ion difference (SID) is in the order of 40.

      SID = ([Na+] + [K+] + [Ca2+] + [Mg2+]) – ([Cl-] + [lactate] + [SO42-])

      This imbalance is made up with the weaker anions to maintain electrical neutrality.
      Administration of a large volume of 0.9% normal saline during resuscitation results in excessive chloride administration and this impairs renal bicarbonate reabsorption. The SID of 0.9% normal saline is 0 (Na+ = 154mmol/L and Cl- = 154mmol/L = 154 – 154 = 0). A large volume of NS will decrease the plasma SID causing an acidosis.

      Other causes of a hyperchloremic acidosis are:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis
      Total Parenteral Nutrition
      Overdose of ammonium chloride and hydrochloric acid
      Gastrointestinal losses of bicarbonate like in diarrhoea and pancreatic fistula
      Proximal renal tubular acidosis with failure of bicarbonate reabsorption

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - What is factually correct regarding correlation and regression? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is factually correct regarding correlation and regression?

      Your Answer: Correlation is concerned with demonstrating difference between variables

      Correct Answer: Regression allows one variable to be predicted from another variable

      Explanation:

      Linear regression, using a technique called curve fitting, allows us to make predictions regarding a certain variable.

      Correlation coefficient gives us an idea whether or not the two parameters provide have any relation of some sort or not i.e. does change in one prompt any change in other?

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - A young male is operated on for an open inguinal hernia repair. During...

    Incorrect

    • A young male is operated on for an open inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the cord is mobilized, and the deep inguinal ring is located.

      What structure forms the lateral wall of the deep inguinal ring?

      Your Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Correct Answer: Transversalis fascia

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is the entrance of the inguinal canal. It is an opening in the transversalis fascia around 1 cm above the inguinal ligament. Therefore, the superolateral wall is made by the transervalis fascia.

      The inferior epigastric vessels run medially to the deep inguinal ring forming its inferomedial border.

      The inguinal canal extends obliquely from the deep inguinal ring to the superficial inguinal ring.
      An indirect inguinal hernia arises through the deep inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - A transport ventilator is powered by an air/oxygen mix using a full oxygen...

    Correct

    • A transport ventilator is powered by an air/oxygen mix using a full oxygen cylinder (class CD) with an internal capacity of 2 litres, and pressure of 23,000 kPa, with a gas flow of 4 litres/minute.
      The ventilator also has a control resulting in an additional gas consumption of 1 litre/minute.

      How long will it take for the cylinder to empty?

      Your Answer: 92 minutes

      Explanation:

      The Drager Oxylog® 1000 is a pneumatically powered, time-dependent, volume-titrated emergency ventilator with a pressure limit. It is compatible with CD cylinder oxygen. The CD cylinder is a strong and lightweight cylinder usually composed of aluminium or Kevlar. The internal cylinder volume is 2 litres, and the pressure of a full cylinder is 230 bar. The volume of the full cylinder is determined by applying Boyle’s law: P1 × V1 = P2 × V2

      Where:
      P1= pressure of a full cylinder (230 bar)
      V1= volume of oxygen at that pressure (2 litres)
      P2= final pressure (1 bar), and
      V2= volume of oxygen in the full cylinder.

      Substituting values into the equation:

      230 × 2 = 1 x V2
      V2 = 460 litres. The flow of fresh gas is 4 litres/minute + 1 litre/minute required by the control, making a total of 5 litres/minute. The amount of time it takes for the cylinder to empty would be the total volume of oxygen in the full cylinder divided by the amount of oxygen expelled per minute: 460/5 = 92, meaning it would take 92 minutes for the cylinder to empty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - While on the ward, you notice a patient that is lying down attached...

    Correct

    • While on the ward, you notice a patient that is lying down attached to a monitor. He is hypotensive with a blood pressure of 90/70mmHg and he is also tachycardic with a pulse of 120 beats/minute. After adjusting the bed with the patient's legs raised by 45 degrees, you reassess the blood pressure after 1 minute and his blood pressure has increased to 100/75mmHg. You then prescribe IV fluids and ask for 500ml of normal saline to be given intravenously over 15 minutes. The increase in the blood pressure can be explained by which physiological association?

      Your Answer: Venous return is proportional to stroke volume

      Explanation:

      A passive leg raise can lead to transient increases in blood pressure and stroke volume as it increased the amount of venous return to the heart. Venous return increases in this situation as it transfers a larger volume of blood from the lower limbs to the right heart. It therefore mimics a fluid challenge. However its effects are short lasting and often lead to minimal increases in blood pressure. It therefore should not be used to treat shock in isolation. The passive leg raise is useful in determining the likelihood that a patient with shock will respond to fluid resuscitation.

      Stroke volume (via a cardiac monitor) and/or pulse pressure (via an arterial line) should be measured to assess the effects of a passive leg raise. An increase in stroke volume by 9% or in pulse pressure by 10% are considered indicative of fluid responsiveness.

      Blood that enters the ventricles during diastole causes stretching of sarcomeres within cardiac muscle. The extent to which they stretch is proportional to the strength of ventricular muscle contraction. Therefore, the venous return (amount of blood returned to the heart) is proportional to stroke volume. The end diastolic volume is determined by venous return and is also proportional to stroke volume.

      Cardiac muscle contraction strength is dependent on the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline, but these hormones contribute to cardiac contractility, not to stroke volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - A caudal epidural block is planned for a 6-year-old child scheduled for...

    Correct

    • A caudal epidural block is planned for a 6-year-old child scheduled for an inguinoscrotal hernia repair under general anaesthesia. The weight of the child is 20kg.

      The most important safety aspect the anaesthetist must keep in mind while performing the block is?

      Your Answer: Limiting the bupivacaine dose to no more than 40 mg

      Explanation:

      Choosing an appropriate dose of local anaesthetic to reduce the chance of toxicity is the most important safety aspect in performing a caudal block.

      The caudal will have to be inserted following induction of anaesthesia as performing it in an awake child is not a viable option.

      The patient is placed in the lateral position and the sacral hiatus is identified. Under strict asepsis, a needle ( usually a 21-23FG needle) is advanced at an angle of approximately 55-65° to the coronal plane at the apex of the sacrococcygeal membrane. When there is loss of resistance, thats the endpoint. The needle must first be aspirated before anaesthetic agent is injected because there is a risk (1 in 2000) of perforating the dura or vascular puncture.

      Alternatively, a 22-gauge plastic cannula can be used. Following perforation of the sacrococcygeal membrane, the stilette is removed and only the blunter plastic cannula is advanced. This reduces the risk of intravascular perforation.

      Eliciting an appropriate end motor response at an appropriate current strength when the caudal and epidural spaces are stimulated helps in improving the efficacy and safety of neural blockade. A 22G insulated needle is advanced in the caudal canal until a pop is felt. If the needle is placed correctly, an anal sphincter contractions (S2 to S4) is seen when an electrical stimulation of 1-10 mA is applied.

      The application of ultrasound guidance in identification of the caudal epidural space has been shown to prevent inadvertent dural puncture and to increase the safety and efficacy of the block in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled...

    Correct

    • A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled to undergo a preoperative assessment, which includes cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX).

      During the CPX, his maximum oxygen consumption (VO2 max) is determined to be 2,100 mL/minute. His weight is measured to be 100 kg.

      Calculate the metabolic equivalent (MET) that is the best estimate for his VO2 max.

      Your Answer: 6 METs

      Explanation:

      Metabolic equivalent (MET) measures the energy expenditure of an individual.

      It is calculated mathematically by:

      MET = (VO2 max/weight)/3.5 = 21/3.5 = 6 METs

      Where 1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.

      Note:

      1 MET Eating
      Dressing
      Use toilet
      Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
      2 METs Playing a musical instrument
      Walking indoors around house
      Light housework
      4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
      Walking up hill
      Running a short distance
      Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
      Walking on level ground at 4 mph
      Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
      6 METs Leisurely swimming
      Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
      8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
      Basketball game
      10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
      Competitive football
      Fast cycling (14-16 mph)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - Which of the following intravenous induction agents is best for the patient with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following intravenous induction agents is best for the patient with acute intermittent porphyria requiring rapid sequence induction for emergency surgery?

      Your Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Propofol is considered a safe drug to use in porphyria because even if causes mild elevation of porphyrins inpatient, it does not cause any symptoms.

      Since barbiturates are inducers of ALA synthetase, they are contraindicated in porphyria patients. So, thiopentone most not be used.

      Etomidate is a potent inhibitor of adrenal 11 beta-hydroxylase and 17 alpha-hydroxylase reducing cortisol and aldosterone synthesis in the adrenal cortex and has been associated with exacerbations of porphyria in animal studies and it is advisable not to use it in this condition.

      Ketamine should be reserved for the hemodynamically unstable patient, however, it is a safe drug.

      Diazepam is safe in porphyria but is not usually used for a rapid sequence induction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 126 - A 55-year-old man with a ventricular rate of 210 beats per minute is...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a ventricular rate of 210 beats per minute is admitted to the emergency department with atrial fibrillation. The patient develops ventricular fibrillation shortly after receiving pharmacotherapy to treat his arrhythmia, from which he is successfully resuscitated.

      He has a PR interval of 40 Ms, a prominent delta wave in lead I, and a QRS duration of 120 Ms, according to an ECG from a previous admission.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be involved in this patient's development of ventricular fibrillation?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      The Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPWS) is linked to an additional electrical conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles. This accessory pathway (bundle of Kent), unlike the atrioventricular (AV) node, is incapable of slowing down a rapid rate of atrial depolarization. In other words, a short circuit bypasses the AV node. Patients with a rapid ventricular response or narrow complex AV re-entry tachycardia are more likely to develop atrial fibrillation or flutter.

      Digoxin can promote impulse transmission through this accessory pathway if a patient with WPWS develops atrial fibrillation because it works by blocking the AV node. This can cause ventricular fibrillation and an extremely rapid ventricular rate. As a result, it’s not advised.

      Adenosine, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, among other drugs that interfere with AV nodal conduction, are also generally contraindicated.

      The class III antiarrhythmic drugs amiodarone and ibutilide (K+ channel block) and procainamide (Na+ channel block) are the drugs of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 127 - If a patient is to be placed under general anaesthesia using total intravenous...

    Correct

    • If a patient is to be placed under general anaesthesia using total intravenous technique with target-controlled infusions of propofol and remifentanil, what safety precaution is the most vital in this a scenario?

      Your Answer: Cannula access site clearly visible and regularly checked

      Explanation:

      According to the Safe Anaesthesia Liaison Group, the most important factor to consider the cannula access, and if the patient is properly receiving the total intravenous anaesthesia. The cannula access must be regularly checked for kinks, leaks and disconnections.

      Below are the safety precautions and policies to be followed for total intravenous anaesthesia among children and adults:

      When administering TIVA, a non-return valve must be used on any intravenous fluid line;
      When using equipment, it is essential that clinical staff know its limitations and uses;
      Sites of intravenous infusions should be visible so they may be monitored for disconnection, leaks or perivenous infusion into the subcutaneous tissues; and,
      Organisations must give preference to clearly labelled intravenous connectors and valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 128 - You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted...

    Correct

    • You're summoned to the emergency room, where a 39-year-old man has been admitted following a cardiac arrest. He was rescued from a river, but little else is known about him.

      CPR is being performed on the patient, who has been intubated. He's received three DC shocks and is still in VF. A rectal temperature of 29.5°C is taken with a low-reading thermometer.

      Which of the following statements about his resuscitation is correct?

      Your Answer: No further DC shocks and no drugs should be given until his core temperature is greater than 30°C

      Explanation:

      The guidelines for the management of cardiac arrest in hypothermic patients published by the UK Resuscitation Council differ slightly from the standard algorithm.

      In a patient with a core temperature of less than 30°C, do the following:

      If you’re on the shockable side of the algorithm (VF/VT), you should give three DC shocks.
      Further shocks are not recommended until the patient has been rewarmed to a temperature of more than 30°C because the rhythm is refractory and unlikely to change.
      There should be no drugs given because they will be ineffective.

      In a patient with a core temperature of 30°C to 35°C, do the following:

      DC shocks are used as usual.
      Because they are metabolised much more slowly, the time between drug doses should be doubled.

      Active rewarming and protection against hyperthermia should be given to the patient.

      Option e is false because there is insufficient information to determine whether resuscitation should be stopped.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 129 - A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic...

    Incorrect

    • A radiologist is conducting an arch aortogram. She begins by entering the brachiocephalic artery using the angiography catheter. As she continues to advance the catheter, what vessels will the catheter enter?

      Your Answer: Left axillary artery

      Correct Answer: Right subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      As there is no brachiocephalic artery on the left side, the artery is entered by the catheter on the right side.

      The brachiocephalic artery branches into the common carotid and the right subclavian artery, so the catheter is most likely to enter the right subclavian artery, or also possibly the right carotid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 130 - Which of the following statements is true regarding enantiomers? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding enantiomers?

      Your Answer: Sevoflurane is a chiral compound

      Correct Answer: Desflurane is a chiral compound

      Explanation:

      A compound that contains an asymmetric centre (chiral atom or chiral centre) and thus can occur in two non-superimposable mirror-image forms (enantiomers) are called chiral compounds.

      Desflurane, Halothane, and isoflurane are chiral compounds but Sevoflurane is not a chiral compound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 131 - An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it...

    Correct

    • An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it is dependent on zero gradient drift and zero offset. Which of the following values will best compensate for the gradient drift?

      Your Answer: 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Since an arterial pressure transducer, and every other measuring apparatus, is prone to errors due to offset and gradient drifts, regular calibration is required to maintain accuracy of the instrument. The two-point calibration pressure values of 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg are within the physiologic range and can best compensate for the gradient drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 132 - All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:...

    Correct

    • All of the statements describing the blood brain barrier are false EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Inflammation alters its permeability

      Explanation:

      The blood brain barrier (BBB) consists of the ultrafiltration barrier in the choroid plexus and the barrier around cerebral capillaries. The barrier is made by endothelial cells which line the interior of all blood vessels. In the capillaries that form the blood–brain barrier, endothelial cells are wedged extremely close to each other, forming so-called tight junctions.

      Outside of the BBB lies the hypothalamus, third and fourth ventricles and the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).

      Water, oxygen and carbon dioxide cross the BBB freely but glucose is controlled. The ability of chemicals to cross the barrier is proportional to their lipid solubility, not their water solubility. It’s ability to cross is inversely proportional to their molecular size and charge.

      In neonates, the BBB is less effective than in adults. This is why there is increased passage of opioids and bile salts (kernicterus) into the neonatal brain.

      In meningitis, the effectiveness and permeability of the BBB is affected, and as a result, this effect helps the passage of antibiotics which would otherwise not normally be able to cross.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 133 - Suppose a diabetic patient is to undergo an elective surgery under general anaesthesia,...

    Correct

    • Suppose a diabetic patient is to undergo an elective surgery under general anaesthesia, which of the following will most effectively prevent a hyperglycaemic stress response during the surgical procedure?

      Your Answer: Spinal block to T4

      Explanation:

      Every surgical procedure is associated with a stress response which comprises a number of endocrine, metabolic, and immunological changes triggered by neuronal activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. The overall metabolic effect of the stress response to surgery includes an increase in secretion of catabolic hormones, such as cortisol and catecholamine, and a decrease in secretion of anabolic hormones, such as insulin and testosterone. The increase in levels of catabolic hormones in plasma stimulates glucose production, and there is a relative lack of insulin together with impaired tissue insulin sensitivity and glucose utilization, which is called insulin resistance. Consequently, blood glucose concentrations will increase, even in the absence of pre-existing diabetes.

      A study compared the effects of spinal and general anaesthesia on changes in blood glucose concentrations during surgery in nondiabetic patients. Although mean blood glucose concentrations showed a significant proportional increase during surgery in both groups, this effect was much more significant with general anaesthesia than with spinal anaesthesia. These results indicate that spinal anaesthesia is more effective than general anaesthesia in attenuating the hyperglycaemic response to surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 134 - The thebesian veins contribute to the venous drainage of the heart. Into which...

    Incorrect

    • The thebesian veins contribute to the venous drainage of the heart. Into which of the following structures do they primarily drain?

      Your Answer: Great cardiac vein

      Correct Answer: Atrium

      Explanation:

      The heart has two venous drainage systems:
      1. Greater venous system – it parallels the coronary arterial circulation and provides 70% venous drainage to the heart
      2. Lesser venous system – includes the thebasian veins and provides up to 30% of the venous drainage to the heart

      Thebasian veins (also called venae cordis minimae) are the smallest coronary veins and run in the myocardial layer of the heart. They serve to drain the myocardium and are present in all four heart chambers. They are more abundant on the right side of the heart and, more specifically, are most abundant in the right atrium. Thebesian veins drain the subendocardial myocardium either directly, via connecting intramural arteries and veins, or indirectly, via subendocardial sinusoidal spaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 135 - A double-blinded randomised controlled trial is proposed to assess the effectiveness of a...

    Incorrect

    • A double-blinded randomised controlled trial is proposed to assess the effectiveness of a new blood pressure medication.

      Which type of bias can be avoided by ensuring the patient and doctor are blinded?

      Your Answer: Recall bias

      Correct Answer: Expectation bias

      Explanation:

      Observers may subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favours the expected study outcome. Therefore, by blinding the study we can eliminate expectation bias.

      Recall bias is a systematic error that occurs when the study participants omit details or do not remember previous events or experiences accurately.

      Verification can occur during investigations when there is a difference in testing strategy between groups of individuals, which might lead to biasness due to differing ways of verifying the disease of interest.

      Nonresponse bias is the bias that occurs when the people who respond to a survey differ significantly from the people who do not respond to the survey.

      A distortion that modifies an association between an exposure and an outcome because a factor is independently associated with the exposure and the outcome. Randomization is the best way to reduce the risk of confounding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 136 - A 57-year old woman, presents to her general practitioner. She has a 2...

    Correct

    • A 57-year old woman, presents to her general practitioner. She has a 2 week history of a vaginal hysterectomy for which she was placed under general anaesthesia.

      On examination, she has notable weakness of dorsiflexion of her left foot and a high stepping gait.

      Which nerve was most likely injured during her surgery?

      Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal (fibular) nerve is a peripheral nerve in the lower limb. It arises of the L4-S2 nerve roots and has sensory and motor innervations:

      Sensory: Provides innervation of the lateral leg and foot dorsum.

      Motor: Provides innervation of the short head of the biceps femoris, as well as muscles of the anterior and lateral leg compartments.

      It is the most commonly damaged nerve in the lower extremity, as it is easily compressed by a plaster cast or injured when the fibula is fractured.

      Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in loss of dorsiflexion at ankle (footdrop, as feet are permanently plantarflexed), with the accompanying high stepping gait.

      The saphenous and sural nerve only provide sensory innervation.

      The tibial nerve arises from the sciatic nerve (like the common peroneal), but it provides motor innervation to the posterior leg compartments and intrinsic foot muscles. Injury to the tibial nerve will cause loss of plantar flexion, toe flexion and weakened foot inversion.

      Extreme hip flexion into the lithotomy or Lloyd-Davies position can result in stretch damage to the neurones (sciatic and obturator nerves) or by applying direct pressure (femoral nerve compression).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 137 - Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the patellar reflex?

      Your Answer: Has a reflex arc which involves a single interneuron

      Correct Answer: Is abolished immediately after transection of the spinal cord at T6

      Explanation:

      The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is a monosynaptic stretch reflex arising from L2-L4 nerve roots. It occurs after a tap on the patellar tendon which causes the spindles of the quadriceps muscles to stretch.

      The afferent nerve pathway occurred through A gamma fibres.

      Wesphal’s sign refers to a reduction, or absence of the patellar reflex. It is often indicated of a neurological disease affecting the PNS.

      A transection of the spinal cord results in a degree of shock which causes all reflexes to be reduced or completely absent, and required a period of approximately 6 weeks to recover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 138 - Regarding thyroid hormones, one of the following is true. ...

    Correct

    • Regarding thyroid hormones, one of the following is true.

      Your Answer: Thyroid binding globulin (TBG) is increased in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      T3 is produced by peripheral de-iodination of T4. It is more active than T4.

      TBG, like most binding proteins, is increased in pregnancy. Because of this, measurement of free thyroid hormone concentration is more important than total.

      T4 and T3 concentrations are decreased in Illness and starvation.

      L-T4 that is the active molecule while D-T4 is inactive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 139 - Over the course of 10 minutes, a normally fit and well 22-year-old male...

    Correct

    • Over the course of 10 minutes, a normally fit and well 22-year-old male receives a 1 litre intravenous bolus of 20% albumin.

      Which of the following primary physiological responses in this patient has the highest chance to influence a change in urine output?

      Your Answer: Stimulation of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion

      Explanation:

      The renal effects of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion are as follows:

      Increased glomerular filtration rate by dilating the afferent glomerular arteriole. Moreover, it constricts the efferent glomerular arteriole, and relaxes the mesangial cells.
      Reduces sodium reabsorption in the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubule.
      The renin-angiotensin system (RAS) is inhibited.
      Blood flow in the vasa recta is increased.

      Because plasma osmolality is unlikely to change, hypothalamic osmoreceptors are unaffected.

      The plasma protein has a molecular weight of 66 kDa, is not normally filtered into the proximal convoluted tubule, and has no osmotic diuretic effect.

      The following are some basic assumptions:

      Extracellular fluid (ECF) makes up one-third of total body water (TBW), while intracellular fluid makes up the other two-thirds (ICF)
      One-quarter plasma and three-quarters interstitial fluid make up ECF (ISF)
      The volume receptors in the atria have a 7-10% blood volume change threshold.
      The osmoreceptors are sensitive to changes in osmolality of 1-2 percent.
      The normal plasma osmolality before the transfusion is 287-290 mOsm/kg.
      The plasma protein solution is a colloid that is only delivered to the intravascular compartment. The tonicity remains unchanged.
      The blood volume increases by 20%, from 5,000 mls to 6,000 mls. This is higher than the volume receptor threshold of 7 to 10%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding a paramagnetic oxygen analyser, the following statements are TRUE:

      Your Answer: Utilises null deflection

      Explanation:

      The electrons in the outer shell of an oxygen molecule are unpaired, thus it has paramagnetic properties and is attracted into a magnetic field.

      It utilizes null deflection -True
      Null deflection is a crucial principle in paramagnetic analysers (reflected beam of light on two photocells) which gives very accurate results (typically 0.1%).

      It can be used to measure the concentration of diamagnetic gases – False
      Since most other gases are weakly diamagnetic they are repelled by a magnetic field (nitric oxide is also paramagnetic).

      Can measure gases dissolved in the blood – False
      For accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. Therefore, they are unsuitable to measure gases dissolved in blood.

      Does not require calibration – False
      As with most measurement instruments paramagnetic analysers must be calibrated before use.

      E) The readings are unaffected by water vapour – False
      Water vapour affects the readings hence for accurate analysis the sample gas must be dried before passing into the analysis cell, for example, by passage through silica gel. That is why they are unsuitable to measure dissolved blood gases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding opioid receptors?

      Your Answer: In the spinal cord, kappa receptors are predominantly localised in lamina IX

      Correct Answer: Binding with an opioid agonist increases potassium conductance

      Explanation:

      Opioid receptors are a large family of seven transmembrane domain receptors. They are of four types:

      1) Delta opioid receptor

      2) Mu opioid receptor

      3) Kappa opioid receptor

      4) Orphan receptor-like 1

      They contain about 372-400 amino acids and thus their molecular weight is different.

      Opioid receptor activation reduces the intracellular cAMP formation and opens K+ channels (mainly through µ and δ receptors) or suppresses voltage-gated N-type Ca2+ channels (mainly κ receptor). These actions result in neuronal hyperpolarization and reduced availability of intracellular Ca2+ which results in decreased neurotransmitter release by cerebral, spinal, and myenteric neurons (e.g. glutamate from primary nociceptive afferents).

      However, other mechanisms and second messengers may also be involved, particularly in the long-term

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:

    Measurement - Predicted result -...

    Incorrect

    • The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:

      Measurement - Predicted result - Test result
      Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) - 3.21 - 1.94
      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) - 2.77 - 1.82
      FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) - 81.9 - 93.5
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) - 6.55 - 3.62
      Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) - 103 - 87.1

      Which statement applies to the results?

      Your Answer: The patient has a moderate obstructive pulmonary defect

      Correct Answer: The patient has a moderate restrictive pulmonary defect

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35% This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. %FEV1/FVC ratio is 93.5%. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture. The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of ‘restriction’ from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old...

    Correct

    • Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU.
      Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?

      Your Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes

      Explanation:

      Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.

      It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on ?1 receptors and also on ? receptors.

      It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.

      Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - Systemic vascular resistance (multiplied by 80) to produce the units of dynes.s.cm-5 is...

    Correct

    • Systemic vascular resistance (multiplied by 80) to produce the units of dynes.s.cm-5 is represented by?

      Your Answer: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) - central venous pressure (CVP)/cardiac output (CO)

      Explanation:

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is a derived value based on:

      SVR = (MAP-CVP)/CO x 80

      = (60 -10)/5 x 80 = 800 dynes.s.cm-5

      A correction factor of 80 is needed in converting mmHg to dynes.s.cm-5
      Normal values is between 700 -1600 dynes.s.cm-5

      Pulmonary resistance (PVR) = (MPAP-PCWP)/CO x 80

      = (10 – 5)/5 x 80 = 80 dynes.s.cm-5

      To account for body size, cardiac index (CI) can be used instead of CO. CI = CO/body surface area (m2) or mL/minute/m2.
      N/B: either MAP and CVP, or MPAP and PCWP are used in calculation to get dynes.s.cm-5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is? ...

    Correct

    • A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is?

      Your Answer: Haemodynamic renal insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandins do not play a major role in regulating RBF in healthy resting individuals. However, during pathophysiological conditions such as haemorrhage and reduced extracellular fluid volume (ECVF), prostaglandins (PGI2, PGE1, and PGE2) are produced locally within the kidneys and serve to increase RBF without changing GFR. Prostaglandins increase RBF by dampening the vasoconstrictor effects of both sympathetic activation and angiotensin II. These effects are important because they prevent severe and potentially harmful vasoconstriction and renal ischemia. Synthesis of prostaglandins is stimulated by ECVF depletion and stress (e.g. surgery, anaesthesia), angiotensin II, and sympathetic nerves.

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen and naproxen, potently inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Thus administration of these drugs during renal ischemia and hemorrhagic shock is contraindicated because, by blocking the production of prostaglandins, they decrease RBF and increase renal ischemia. Prostaglandins also play an increasingly important role in maintaining RBF and GFR as individuals age. Accordingly, NSAIDs can significantly reduce RBF and GFR in the elderly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 146 - While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip...

    Correct

    • While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip hemiarthroplasty, with a weight 70 kg, and an ASA 1 score, you give 1 g of paracetamol IV but notice that he had received the same dose on the ward one hour prior.

      What is the most appropriate subsequent management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Do nothing and give the next doses of paracetamol at standard 6 hour intervals

      Explanation:

      After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different. Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly. This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - Concerning the physical principles of temperature measurement by a thermocouple, which of the...

    Correct

    • Concerning the physical principles of temperature measurement by a thermocouple, which of the following best describes it?

      Your Answer: The bimetallic strip has a junction potential proportional to temperature

      Explanation:

      A thermocouple, or a thermal junction, is temperature measuring device consisting of a pair of dissimilar metal (bimetallic) wires or strips joined together. Typically, copper and constantan (an alloy of 55% copper and 45% nickel) are used. When there is contact between these metals, a small voltage is generated in the order of millivolts. The magnitude of the thermojunction electromotive force (emf) is proportional to applied temperature (the Seebeck effect). This physical principle is applied in the measurement of temperature. The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature.

      Two wires with different coefficients of expansion, joined together, can be used as a switch for thermostatic control.

      Semiconductors are NOT used in thermocouple. The resistance of the measuring junction of a thermocouple is irrelevant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - The parameter that is indirectly measured from a blood gas analysis is? ...

    Correct

    • The parameter that is indirectly measured from a blood gas analysis is?

      Your Answer: Standard bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Automated blood gas analysers are commonly used to analyse blood gas samples, and they measure specific components of the arterial blood gas sample, whether directly or indirectly.

      The following are the components of arterial blood gas:

      pH = measured (directly determined) acid-base balance of the blood

      PaO2 = measured partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood

      PaCO2 = measured partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood

      HCO3 = calculated (indirectly determined) concentration of bicarbonate in arterial blood

      Base excess/deficit = calculated relative excess or deficit of base in arterial blood

      SaO2 = calculated arterial oxygen saturation unless a co-oximetry is obtained, in which case it is measured

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 149 - A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman, presented to her GP after swallowing a tiny, sharp bone and is referred to an ENT. She explains that the bone feels stuck in her throat. A laryngoscopy is performed and it shows the bone is lodged in the piriform recess.

      Name the nerve at highest risk of damage by the bone?

      Your Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by sharp foreign objects which become lodged in the recess.

      Any attempt to retrieve lodged foreign objects must be done careful as there is also a high risk of damage during this process.

      The other mentioned nerves are not at risk of being affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 150 - Among the following options which one compares variance within the group and variance...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following options which one compares variance within the group and variance between groups?

      Your Answer: Chi squared test

      Correct Answer: ANOVA

      Explanation:

      ANOVA is based upon within group variance (i.e. the variance of the mean of a sample) and between group variance (i.e. the variance between means of different samples). The test works by finding out the ratio of the two variances mentioned above. (Commonly known as F statistic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 151 - A 72-year old man is experiencing a cardiac risk evaluation for the management...

    Correct

    • A 72-year old man is experiencing a cardiac risk evaluation for the management of obstructive umbilical hernia. Echocardiogram demonstrates an aortic valve area=0.59cm with a pressure of 70mmHg. Five years ago, he had mild myocardial infarction complicated with pulmonary oedema. Now he encounters angina with little exertion.

      Which of the following factor is the foremost profoundly weighted using Deysky's cardiac risk scoring system in this case?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Detsky’s Modified cardiac risk classification system in patients undergoing non-cardiac surgery:

      Age more than 70: 05 points

      History of myocardial infarction:

      Less than 6 months: 10 points
      More than 6 months: 5 points

      Angina Pectoris:

      Angina with minimal exertion: 10 points

      Angina at any level of exertion: 20 points

      Pulmonary Oedema:

      Within 7 days: 10 points
      At any time: 5 points

      Suspected aortic valve stenosis with valve area <0.6cm2: 20 points Arrhythmia: Any rhythm other than sinus or sinus with premature atrial complexes (PACs): 5 points More than 5 premature ventricular contractions: 5 points
      Emergency Surgery: 10 points
      Deficient general medical condition: 5 points

      Risk classification:

      Grade I: 0-15 points = low risk
      Grade II: 15-30 points = moderate risk
      Grade III: >30 points = high risk

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 152 - A 25-year -old man, presents with a suspected uretic colic and is placed...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year -old man, presents with a suspected uretic colic and is placed on admission. An abdominal x-ray of the kidney, ureter and bladder (KUB) is ordered.

      Where is the stone most likely to be located on x-ray?

      Your Answer: At the crest of the ilium

      Correct Answer: The tips of the transverse processes between L2 and L5

      Explanation:

      The ureter runs anterior to the vertebrae at the level of L2 to L5, and stones are usually seen at these points on x-ray.

      They can also be seen at the level of the sacro-iliac joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 153 - During a critical liver resection surgery, a 65-year-old man suffers uncontrolled hepatic bleeding....

    Correct

    • During a critical liver resection surgery, a 65-year-old man suffers uncontrolled hepatic bleeding. The 'Pringle manoeuvre is performed to stop the bleeding where the hepatic artery, portal vein, and common bile duct are clamped. These structures form the anterior boundary of the epiploic foramen.

      Which of the following vessels also contributes to the boundary of this region?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The epiploic foramen (foramen of Winslow or aditus to the lesser sac) is found behind the free right border of the lesser omentum. A short, 3 cm slit serves as the entrance to the lesser sac from the greater sac.

      The epiploic foramen has the following boundaries:
      Anteriorly: hepatoduodenal ligament, the bile duct (anteriorly on the right), the hepatic artery (anteriorly on the left), and the portal vein (posteriorly) together with nerves and lymphatics
      Superiorly: the peritoneum of the posterior layer of the hepatoduodenal ligament runs over the caudate process of the liver
      Posteriorly: inferior vena cava
      Floor: upper border of the first part of the duodenum
      The anterior and posterior walls of the foramen are normally
      apposed, which partly explains why patients can develop large fluid
      collections isolated to the greater or lesser sac

      Rapid control of the hepatic artery and portal vein can be obtained by compression of the free edge of the lesser omentum (a ‘Pringle’ manoeuvre), which is a potentially useful technique in liver trauma and surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - Which of the following statements below would best describe the receptor response to...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements below would best describe the receptor response to an opioid mu receptor agonist such as fentanyl?

      Your Answer: Intrinsic activity determines maximal response

      Explanation:

      Agonists activate the receptor as a direct result of binding to it with a characteristic affinity. Moreover, intrinsic activity of an agonist to its receptor determines the ability to create a maximal response.

      Responses to low doses of a drug usually increase in direct proportion to dose. As doses increase, however, the response increment diminishes; finally, doses may be reached at which no further increase in response can be achieved. The relationship formed between the dose and response when plotted graphically is hyperbolic. This also shows that even at low receptor occupancy, a maximal response may be produced.

      Antagonists bind to receptors in the same affinity as agonists, but they have no intrinsic efficacy. They do not activate generation of signal. Instead, they interfere with the ability of the agonist to activate the receptor.

      Partial agonists are similar to full agonists in that they have similar affinity to the target receptor, but they produce a lower response than full agonists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per...

    Incorrect

    • If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per second, what is the estimated wavelength produced if the frequency of a generated ultrasound is 10 megahertz?

      Your Answer: 0.15 metre

      Correct Answer: 0.15 millimetre

      Explanation:

      Wavelength can be computed as follows:

      Wavelength = velocity/frequency

      In the given problem, the values stated are:

      Frequency = 10 x 10^6
      Velocity = 1540 meters per second

      Wavelength = 1540/(10×10^6)
      Wavelength = 1540/10,000,000 meters
      Wavelength = 0.15 millimetres

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male...

    Correct

    • Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male for emergency appendicectomy. The patient weight was 70 kg and a failed intubation indicated immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.

      Which of the following is the correct dose of sugammadex for this patient?

      Your Answer: 1120 mg

      Explanation:

      Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
      It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.

      Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
      16×70 = 1120 mg.

      Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - During a fight, a 20-year-old male is stabbed in the thigh with a...

    Correct

    • During a fight, a 20-year-old male is stabbed in the thigh with a bottle. He is admitted for treatment.

      Which feature, if present, suggests an injury to the femoral nerve?

      Your Answer: Loss of knee reflex

      Explanation:

      Femoral nerve lesion (L2,L3 and L4) is characterised by weakness of the quadriceps femoris muscle. This results in weakness of extension of the knee, loss of sensation over the front of the thigh, and loss of the knee jerk reflex.

      The skin over the lateral aspect of the thigh and knee, and the lower lateral quadrant of the buttock is supplied by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L1,2).

      The adductors of the hip are supplied by the obturator nerve (L2-4). This nerve also supplies sensation to the inner thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - A 64-year old lady has been diagnosed with hypertension. Her GP explains how...

    Correct

    • A 64-year old lady has been diagnosed with hypertension. Her GP explains how this occurs, and that blood pressure is determined by multiple factors which include action by the heart, nervous system and the diameter of the blood vessels. This lady's cardiac output (CO) is 4L/min. Her exam today revealed a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 140 mmHg.
      Using these values, her systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is which of these?

      Your Answer: 35mmHg⋅min⋅mL-1

      Explanation:

      Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.

      Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.

      Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume
      Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
      This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:

    A racemic mixture...

    Incorrect

    • You are given an intravenous induction agent. The following are its characteristics:

      A racemic mixture of cyclohexanone rings with one chiral centre
      Local anaesthetic properties.

      Which of the following statements about its primary mechanism of action is most accurate?

      Your Answer: Reversible competitive antagonist affecting Na+ channels

      Correct Answer: Non-competitive antagonist affecting Ca2+ channels

      Explanation:

      Ketamine is the substance in question. Its structure and pharmacodynamic effects make it a one-of-a-kind intravenous induction agent. The molecule is made up of two cyclohexanone rings (2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone and 2-(O-chlorophenyl)-2-methylamino cyclohexanone). Ketamine has local anaesthetic properties and acts primarily on the brain and spinal cord.

      It affects Ca2+ channels as a non-competitive antagonist for the N-D-methyl-aspartate (NMDA) receptor. It also acts as a local anaesthetic by interfering with neuronal Na+ channels.

      Ketamine causes profound dissociative anaesthesia (profound amnesia and analgesia) as well as sedation.

      Phenoxybenzamine, an alpha-1 adrenoreceptor antagonist, is an example of an irreversible competitive antagonist. It forms a covalent bond with the calcium influx receptor.

      Benzodiazepines are GABAA receptor agonists that affect chloride influx.

      Flumazenil is an inverse agonist that affects GABAA receptor chloride influx.

      Ketamine is a cyclohexanone derivative that acts as a non-competitive Ca2+ channel antagonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old man presents to a hospital for manipulation of Colles fracture. The patient is 50 kg and the anaesthetic plan is to perform an intravenous regional (Bier's) block.

      Which of the following is the appropriate dose of local anaesthetic for the procedure?

      Your Answer: 0.25% ropivacaine (40 ml)

      Correct Answer: 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml)

      Explanation:

      Prilocaine is the drug of choice for intravenous regional anaesthesia. 0.5% prilocaine (40 ml) is indicated for this condition.
      Lidocaine is another alternative for this condition but volume and dose are likely to be inadequate for the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - A new drug treatment has been developed for Crohn's disease. The pharmaceutical company...

    Correct

    • A new drug treatment has been developed for Crohn's disease. The pharmaceutical company behind this, is planning to conduct a trial and is looking for hiring around 200 individuals that are suffering from Crohn's disease. The aim would be to determine if there is any decline in the disease activity in response to the drug and compare it with a placebo.

      What phase is the trial in?

      Your Answer: Phase 2

      Explanation:

      The study is being conducted on a smaller level with only 200 participants and is determining the effectiveness of the drug in comparison to a placebo. These characteristics are in accordance with the second phase of trial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - Regarding the carbon dioxide monitoring, which of the following statements is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the carbon dioxide monitoring, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: End-tidal CO2 is 0.6-0.7 kPa higher than arterial partial pressure

      Correct Answer: Carbon dioxide absorbs infrared radiation at 4.28 µm

      Explanation:

      Carbon dioxide (CO2), is a carbonic gas made up of two dissimilar atoms, namely one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms. Capnography is a technique used to measure carbon dioxide during a respiratory cycle, and it consists in calculating the concentration of the partial pressure of CO2, through the absorption of the infrared light, namely that CO2 absorbs infrared radiation at a wavelength of 4.28 µm.

      End-tidal CO2 (ETCO2), referring to the level of the carbon dioxide released at the end of an exhaled breath, is required to be continuously monitored, especially in ventilated patients, as it is a sensitive and a non invasive technique that provides immediate information about ventilation, circulation, and metabolism functions. ETCO2 is normally lower than the arterial partial pressure and varies between 0.6 and 0.7 kPa.

      There are two methods used to measure carbon dioxide. The sidestream capnometer method samples gases at a set flow rate (150-200 mL/min) from a sampling area through small diameter tubing, and the mainstream analyser method that uses a direct measurement of the patient exhaled CO2 by a relatively large and heavy sensors. Sidestram method allows the analysis of multiple gases and anaesthetic vapours comparing to the mainstream method that does not allow the measurement of other gases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle (also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle)?

      Your Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule

      Explanation:

      Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions in which acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA) is metabolised and this results in carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms production.

      This series of reactions occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells, not the cytoplasm. The cycle requires oxygen and so, cannot function under anaerobic conditions.

      It is the common pathway for carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids oxidation and is required for high energy phosphate bond formation in adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

      When pyruvate enters the mitochondria, it is converted into acetyl-CoA. This represents the formation of a 2 carbon molecule from a 3 carbon molecule. There is loss of one CO2 but formation of one NADH molecule. Acetyl-CoA is condensed with oxaloacetate, the anion of a 4 carbon acid, to form citrate which is a 6 carbon molecule.

      Citrate is then converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.

      The only 5 carbon molecule in the cycle is alpha-ketoglutarate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - An air ambulance brought a young boy involved in a fight to the...

    Correct

    • An air ambulance brought a young boy involved in a fight to the emergency department.

      On examination, his blood pressure cannot be recorded. He suffers a stab wound to his chest that has penetrated the left atrium and the artery that supplies it.

      Which artery is most likely damaged in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Left coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The left atrium is supplied by the left coronary artery and its major branch the left circumflex.

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      44.8
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced a severe reaction to the anaesthetic agent resulting in malignant hyperthermia (MH) for which he has been referred for treatment.

      What investigation can be conducted to determine a patient's susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer: In vitro muscle contraction test using caffeine

      Explanation:

      Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a autosomal dominant inherited medical condition which predisposes affected individuals to a clinical syndrome of hypermetabolism which involves abnormal ryanodine receptors in skeletal muscle causing a deregulation of calcium in muscle.

      It is a life threatening condition requiring immediate medical intervention. It often lies dormant until triggered in susceptible individuals mostly by volatile inhaled anaesthetic agents and succinylcholine which is a muscle relaxant.

      The signs and symptoms of MH are related to this hypermetabolism, which includes an increase in carbon dioxide production, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, accelerated oxygen consumption, heat production, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, hyperkalaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and multiple organ dysfunction and failure.

      Early signs of MH to look out for in patients includes an uptick in end-tidal carbon dioxide (even with increasing minute ventilation), tachycardia, muscle rigidity, tachypnoea, and hyperkalaemia. Later signs include fever, myoglobinuria, and multiple organ failure.

      In vitro muscle contracture test (IVCT) is the standard for determining individual susceptibility to MH. It is conducted by measuring the force of muscle contraction after exposing the patient’s muscle sample to halothane and caffeine., the sample is normally taken from the vastus medialis or lateralis under regional anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - With regards to the internal carotid artery, which of these statements is correct....

    Correct

    • With regards to the internal carotid artery, which of these statements is correct.

      Your Answer: Enters the skull and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries

      Explanation:

      The internal carotid artery passes through the carotid canal in the petrous part of the temporal bone into the cranial cavity. It does NOT groove the sphenoid bone.

      The internal carotid artery gives off no branches in the neck and is a terminal branch of the common carotid artery.

      These structures pass between the external and internal carotid arteries: the styloglossus and stylopharyngeus muscles, the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), and the pharyngeal branch of the vagus.

      Accompanied by its sympathetic plexus, the internal carotid artery, passes through the cavernous sinus and is crossed by the abducent nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - During the analysis phase, which of the provided options serves to control confounding...

    Correct

    • During the analysis phase, which of the provided options serves to control confounding factors?

      Your Answer: Stratification

      Explanation:

      During analytical stage a technique called stratification is used for controlling confounding variables. This technique involves sorting out the data into discernible groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - A 35-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. The paramedics have...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. The paramedics have noted the patient's symptoms as unilateral left-sided weakness of the upper and lower limbs, homonymous hemianopia and dysphasia.
      She has previous personal and family history of deep vein thromboses.
      The report of her CT scan suggests a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery.
      Post recovery, she undergoes further diagnostic investigations to determine the cause of a stroke at her young age. She is eventually diagnosed with a hypercoagulable state disease called Factor V Leiden thrombophilia.

      An emboli in the middle cerebral artery results in dysfunction of which areas of the brain?

      Your Answer: Frontal, parietal and occipital

      Correct Answer: Frontal, temporal and parietal lobes

      Explanation:

      The middle cerebral artery is a part of the circle of Willis system of anastomosis within the brain, and the most often affected by brain pathology.

      The primary function of the middle cerebral artery is providing oxygenated blood to related regions of the brain. It achieves this by giving off different branches to supply different brain regions, namely:

      The cortical branches: which supplies the primary motor and somatosensory cortical areas of some parts of the face, trunk and upper limbs.

      The small central branches: which supply the basal ganglia and internal capsule via the lenticulostriate vessels.

      The superior division: which supplies the lateral inferior frontal lobe, including the Broca area which is responsible for production of speech, language comprehension, and writing.

      The inferior division: which supplies the superior temporal gyrus, including Wernicke’s area which controls speech comprehension and language development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 169 - You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and...

    Correct

    • You performed pelvic ultrasound of Mrs Aciman as she had pelvic bloating and intermittent pain. The ultrasound shows a complex ovarian cyst and the radiologist who reported the results has advised urgent consultation with a gynaecologist. Upon breaking the news to Mrs Aciman you learn that she recently had a blood test done that was normal. You explain it to her that the test performed (Ca-125) is not always perfect and is only able to detect 80% of the cancer cases while the remaining 20% go undetected.

      Which statistical term appropriately explains the 80% in this example.

      Your Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Tests are used to confirm the presence of a particular disease. However the results can be misleading at times since most of the tests have some limitations associated with them.
      Sensitivity is the correct term that refers to the probability of a positive test. The others are explained below:

      False Positive rates refer to the proportion of the patients who don’t have the condition being detected as positive.

      False Negative rates refer to the proportion of the patients who have the condition being detected as negative (like the 20% of the patients that went undetected by the Ca-125 test).

      Specificity describes the ability of a test to detect and pick up people without the disease. Absolute risk ratio compares the rate of two separate outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations recommend air supply rates...

    Correct

    • The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations recommend air supply rates to specific environments. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Preparation rooms receive a volume of 0.1 m3 of air per second

      Explanation:

      Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) was established by government under the Health and Safety at Work act in 1989. Their employers work on identification and management of those substances that are dangerous to health. The implications for anaesthetists include gas scavenging, equipment contamination and environmental safety. Adequate ventilation is required in areas where anaesthetic gases are present. The minimum air supply that is legally required in each specific area is: Operating theatres: 0.65 m3/second. Anaesthetic rooms: 0.15 m3/s. Preparation rooms: 0.1 m3/s. Recovery rooms need 15 air changes per hour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - A 28-year-old girl complained of severe abdominal pain and hematemesis and was rushed...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old girl complained of severe abdominal pain and hematemesis and was rushed into the emergency department. She has an increased heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/65. She has a history of taking Naproxen for her Achilles tendinopathy. On urgent endoscopy, she is diagnosed with a bleeding peptic ulcer.

      The immediate treatment is to permanently stop the bleeding by performing embolization of the left gastric artery via an angiogram.

      What level of the vertebra will be used as a radiological marker for the origin of the artery that supplies the left gastric artery during the angiogram?

      Your Answer: T10

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      The left gastric artery is the smallest branch that originates from the coeliac trunk—the coeliac trunk branches of the abdominal aorta at the vertebral level of T12.

      The left gastric artery runs along the superior portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach. A peptic ulcer that is serious enough to erode through the stomach mucosa into a branch of the left gastric artery can cause massive blood loss in the stomach, leading to hematemesis. The patient also takes Naproxen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is a common cause for peptic ulcers in otherwise healthy patients.

      The left gastric artery is responsible for 85% of upper GI bleeds. In cases refractory to initial treatment, angiography is sometimes needed to embolise the vessel at its origin and stop bleeding. During an angiogram, the radiologist will enter the aorta via the femoral artery, ascend to the level of the 12th vertebrae and then enter the left gastric artery via the coeliac trunk.

      The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:

      T12 – Coeliac trunk

      L1 – Left renal artery

      L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries

      L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery

      L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 172 - At a pH of 7, pure water has an hydrogen ion concentration of?...

    Correct

    • At a pH of 7, pure water has an hydrogen ion concentration of?

      Your Answer: 100 nanomol/L

      Explanation:

      pH is the negative log to the base 10 of hydrogen ion concentration:

      So, what power produces the answer?

      pH = – log10 [H+]

      Making [H+] the subject:

      [H+] = 10-pH

      Substituting, [H+] = 10-7

      One nanomole = 1 x 10-9 or 0.000000001

      10-7 = 1x 0.0000001 or 10 x 0.00000001 or 100 x 0.000000001

      100 nanomole

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 173 - A 39-year-old woman, is scheduled for a thyroidectomy for her previously diagnosed Grave's...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old woman, is scheduled for a thyroidectomy for her previously diagnosed Grave's disease. She is eligible for surgery as medical treatment options have failed to control her symptoms and she is the sole guardian for her young children, so radioiodine treatment is unsuitable. While gaining her consent for the surgery, she is told of possible complications of thyroidectomy, which include damage to the sensory branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.

      What is the name of the sensory nerve that arises from the superior laryngeal nerve?

      Your Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The superior laryngeal nerve gives off two branches: the sensory branch which is the internal laryngeal nerve, and the motor branch which is the external laryngeal nerve.

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) rises from the vagus nerve which supplies the intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - Following a traumatic head injury, you are summoned to the emergency department to...

    Correct

    • Following a traumatic head injury, you are summoned to the emergency department to transfer a patient to the CT scanner. With a Glasgow coma score of 3, he has already been intubated and ventilated.

      It is important to ensure that cerebral protection strategies are implemented during the transfer.

      Which of the following methods is the most effective for reducing venous obstruction?

      Your Answer: Position with a head-up tilt of 30°

      Explanation:

      ICP is significant because it influences cerebral perfusion pressure and cerebral blood flow. The normal ICP ranges from 5 to 13 mmHg.

      The components within the skull include the brain (80%/1400 ml), blood (10%/150 ml), and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) (10%/150 ml).

      Because the skull is a rigid box, if one of the three components increases in volume, one or more of the remaining components must decrease in volume to compensate, or the ICP will rise (Monroe-Kellie hypothesis).

      Primary brain injury occurs as a result of a head injury and is unavoidable unless precautions are taken to reduce the risk of head injury. A reduction in oxygen delivery due to hypoxemia (low arterial PaO2) or anaemia, a reduction in cerebral blood flow due to hypotension or reduced cardiac output, and factors that cause a raised ICP and reduced CPP are all causes of secondary brain injury. Secondary brain injury can be avoided with proper management.

      The most important initial management task is to make certain that:

      There is protection of the airway and the cervical spine
      There is proper ventilation and oxygenation
      Blood pressure and cerebral perfusion pressure are both adequate (CPP).

      Following the implementation of these management principles, additional strategies to reduce ICP and preserve cerebral perfusion are required. The volume of one or more of the contents of the skull can be reduced using techniques that can be used to reduce ICP.

      Reduce the volume of brain tissue
      Blood volume should be reduced.
      CSF volume should be reduced.

      The following are some methods for reducing the volume of brain tissue:
      Abscess removal or tumour resection
      Steroids (especially dexamethasone) are used to treat oedema in the brain.
      To reduce intracellular volume, use mannitol/furosemide or hypertonic saline.
      To increase intracranial volume, a decompressive craniectomy is performed.

      The following are some methods for reducing blood volume:

      Haematomas must be evacuated.
      Barbiturate coma reduces cerebral metabolic rate and oxygen consumption, lowering cerebral blood volume as a result.
      Hypoxemia, hypercarbia, hyperthermia, vasodilator drugs, and hypotension should all be avoided in the arterial system.
      PEEP/airway obstruction/CVP lines in neck: patient positioning with 30° head up, avoid neck compression with ties/excessive rotation, avoid PEEP/airway obstruction/CVP lines in neck

      The following are some methods for reducing CSF volume:

      To reduce CSF volume, an external ventricular drain or a ventriculoperitoneal shunt is inserted (although more a long term measure).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 175 - Concerning platelets one of the following is true ...

    Correct

    • Concerning platelets one of the following is true

      Your Answer: Are formed in the bone marrow from megakaryocytes

      Explanation:

      Platelets are fragments of megakaryocytes and they are encapsulated by membrane.

      They have no nucleus but are metabolically active and are able to express membrane receptors and release stored substances when triggered. adenosine diphosphate and serotonin are 2 of its content.

      Because they have no nucleus, they are not able to produce new proteins. This is why aspirin and other drugs affect function for their entire lifespan after exposure. Its lifespan is approximately 9-10 days in normal individuals.

      Platelets does NOT PRODUCE prostacyclin but are able to produce nitric oxide, prostaglandins and thromboxane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 176 - You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in...

    Correct

    • You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in healthy people. The strategy is to give a drug orally and measure plasma concentrations at predetermined intervals.

      Which of the following drugs would you choose to use?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is approaching 100%. As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an oral paracetamol dose has been used as a surrogate marker of gastric emptying. This method has been used to investigate the effects of drugs on gastric emptying. At clinically used doses, paracetamol is ideal because it has very few side effects.

      Scintigraphic imaging is the gold standard for determining gastric emptying.

      Although aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) is absorbed primarily in the small intestine, some may also be absorbed in the stomach. The oral bioavailability ranges from 70 to 100 percent, making it less reliable than paracetamol.

      Propranolol is a lipophilic drug that is rapidly absorbed after administration. However, it is highly metabolised by the liver in the first pass, and only about 25% of propranolol reaches the systemic circulation. It’s not the best indicator of gastric emptying.

      Oral bioavailability of gentamicin and vancomycin is low. Only antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis is treated with oral vancomycin.

      Erythromycin is a pro-kinetic agent that acts as a motilin receptor agonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 177 - From the following statements, which is true of humidification? ...

    Correct

    • From the following statements, which is true of humidification?

      Your Answer: Ultrasonic humidifier can achieve greater than 100% relative humidity

      Explanation:

      Increasing temperature increases the amount of water vapour contained in air; for example, at 20°C, air contains about 17 g/m3, and at 37°C, air contains about 44 g/m3. The wet and dry bulb hygrometer, like the hair hygrometer, measures relative humidity.

      Under normal operating conditions, Heat and moisture exchangers (HMEs) allows relative humidity of up to 70% to be achieved. Mucus can impair their performance, and they should not be used for longer than 24 hours.

      Hot water bath humidifiers might cause scalding, condensed water in the tubing can interfere with gas flow, and there is a danger of infection.

      The ultrasonic humidifier operates at roughly 2 MHz and may attain relative humidity levels much above 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 178 - Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.

    What is the...

    Correct

    • Many of the processes we deal with in anaesthesia are exponential.

      What is the underlying mathematical principle of an exponential process?

      Your Answer: The rate of change of x is dependent on the magnitude of x

      Explanation:

      The magnitude of x determines the rate of change of x. First-order drug kinetics is a good example. Most drugs’ plasma levels are controlled by an exponential process. The rate of change in drug metabolism is proportional to the current plasma concentration (so-called non-linear kinetics).

      A tear-away function is just one type of exponential relationship (y = ex), in which e is Euler’s number, x is the power, and e is the base. Natural logarithms rely on Euler’s number.

      Euler’s number is a mathematical constant, not a mathematical principle. It’s referred to as an irrational number. This is a number that cannot be expressed as a simple fraction or a ratio.

      A line or curve that acts as the limit of another line or curve is known as an asymptote. A washout exponential curve, for example, where the value y represents the plasma concentration of a drug in a single compartment model against time on the x axis. This descending curve approaches but never touches the x axis. This curve is asymptotic to the x axis, which is the curve’s asymptote. An asymptote isn’t just a characteristic of exponential curves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 179 - The SI unit of measurement is kgm2s-2 in the System international d'unités (SI).

    Which...

    Correct

    • The SI unit of measurement is kgm2s-2 in the System international d'unités (SI).

      Which of the following derived units of measurement has this format?

      Your Answer: Energy

      Explanation:

      The derived SI unit of force is Newton.
      F = m·a (where a is acceleration)
      F = 1 kg·m/s2

      The joule (J) is a converted unit of energy, work, or heat. When a force of one newton (N) is applied over a distance of one metre (Nm), the following amount of energy is expended:

      J = 1 kg·m/s2·m =
      J = 1 kg·m2/s2 or 1 kg·m2·s-2

      The unit of velocity is metres per second (m/s or ms-1).

      The watt (W), or number of joules expended per second, is the SI unit of power:

      J/s = kg·m2·s-2/s
      J/s = kg·m2·s-3

      Pressure is measured in pascal (Pa) and is defined as force (N) per unit area (m2):
      Pa = kg·m·s-2/m2
      Pa = kg·m-1·s-2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 180 - A participant of a metabolism study is to be fed only granulated sugar...

    Correct

    • A participant of a metabolism study is to be fed only granulated sugar and water for 48 hours. What would be his expected respiratory quotient at the end of the study?

      Your Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      The respiratory quotient is the ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed while food is being metabolized:

      RQ = CO2 eliminated/O2 consumed

      Most energy sources are food containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Examples include fat, carbohydrates, protein, and ethanol. The normal range of respiratory coefficients for organisms in metabolic balance usually ranges from 1.0-0.7.

      Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate with no significant fat, protein or ethanol content.

      The RQ for carbohydrates is = 1.0

      The RQ for the rest of the compounds are:

      Fats RQ = 0.7
      The chemical composition of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that fats contain considerably fewer oxygen atoms in proportion to atoms of carbon and hydrogen.

      Protein RQ = 0.8
      Due to the complexity of various ways in which different amino acids can be metabolized, no single RQ can be assigned to the oxidation of protein in the diet; however, 0.8 is a frequently utilized estimate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 181 - What structure is most critical in providing support for the duodenojejunal flexure? ...

    Correct

    • What structure is most critical in providing support for the duodenojejunal flexure?

      Your Answer: Ligament of Treitz

      Explanation:

      The duodenojejunal flexure is the point where the duodenum becomes the jejunum.

      The ligament of Treitz, which arises from the right crus of diaphragm, provides suspension for support.

      Between the ileum and the caecum is the ligament of Treves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 182 - A 24-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She has just...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She has just been involved in a car accident. She is examined and undergoes various diagnostic investigations. Her X-ray report states that a fracture was noted on the surgical neck of her humerus.

      What structure is most likely to the damaged as a result of a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Correct Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Fractures to the surgical neck of the humerus are common place as it is the weakest point of the proximal humerus bone.

      The structures most likely to be damaged are the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery as they surround the surgical neck.

      The radial nerve runs along the radial groove, so injury to it would likely occur with a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus.

      The brachial artery is most likely to be injured as a result of a supracondylar fracture of the humerus which increases the risk of volkmaan’s ischemic contractures.

      Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve is least likely to happen and it very uncommon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation...

    Correct

    • A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation and curettage. Her medical history revealed that she was maintained on levodopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurses administered ondansetron 4 mg and dexamethasone 8 mg prior to transfer from the operating room to the recovery room. However, an additional antiemetic agent is warranted.

      Which of the following agents should be prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer: Cyclizine 50 mg IV

      Explanation:

      The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.

      Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.

      Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.

      Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).

      Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime?

      Your Answer: It mostly contains sodium hydroxide

      Explanation:

      Soda-lime contains mostly calcium hydroxide (about 94%) and remaining sodium hydroxide.

      CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O + heat
      Here in this exothermic reaction, we can see that the production of calcium carbonate does not require heat.

      When soda lime is allowed to dry with subsequent use of desflurane, isoflurane, and enflurane, it can lead to the generation of carbon monoxide.

      Silica hardens the granules and can thus prevent disintegration.

      The size of soda-lime granules is 4-8 mesh because it allows sufficient surface area for chemical reaction to occur without critically increasing the resistance to airflow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 185 - A 53-year-old-male is being operated on for a right hemicolectomy. In the procedure,...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old-male is being operated on for a right hemicolectomy. In the procedure, the ileocolic artery is ligated. Which vessel does this artery originate from?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The ileocolic artery is the terminal branch of the superior mesenteric artery. It supplies:
      1. terminal ileum
      2. proximal right colon
      3. cecum
      4. appendix (via its branch of the appendicular artery)

      As veins accompany arteries in the mesentery and are lined by lymphatics, high ligation is the norm in cancer resections—the ileocolic artery branches off the SMA near the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - Which among the following is not true regarding disease rates? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is not true regarding disease rates?

      Your Answer: The population attributable risk is equal to the attributable risk multiplied by the prevalence of exposure to a risk factor

      Correct Answer: The odds ratio is synonymous with the risk ratio

      Explanation:

      The relative risk (also known as risk ratio [RR]) is the ratio of risk of an event in one group (e.g., exposed group) versus the risk of the event in the other group (e.g., nonexposed group).

      The odds ratio (OR) is the ratio of odds of an event in one group versus the odds of the event in the other group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 187 - A pulmonary function tests results are:

    Measurement Predicted result Test result
    Forced vital capacity (FVC)...

    Correct

    • A pulmonary function tests results are:

      Measurement Predicted result Test result
      Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) 3.85 2.36
      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) 3.34 0.97
      FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) 85.1 39.9
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) 7.33 2.11
      Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) 116 44.4

      What does this indicate?

      Your Answer: Moderate restrictive and severe obstructive picture

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35% This patient has a mixed deficit with a severe obstructive deficit as %FEV1/FVC predicted is 46.9% and a moderate restrictive deficit as %FVC of predicted is 61.3 FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 188 - Campylobacter is which type of bacteria? ...

    Correct

    • Campylobacter is which type of bacteria?

      Your Answer: sdgsdf

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter is the commonest bacterial cause of infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The majority of cases are caused by the Gram-negative bacillus Campylobacter jejuni which is spread by the faecal-oral route. The incubation period is 1-6 days.

      Features include a prodrome phase with headaches and malaise, then diarrhoea occurs which is often bloody.
      There is often abdominal pain which may mimic appendicitis.

      It is usually self-limiting but treatment is warranted if the infection is severe or the infection occurs in an immunocompromised patient.
      Severe infection comprises of high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day or symptoms last for more than one week.
      This management would include antibiotics and the first-line antibiotic is clarithromycin.
      Ciprofloxacin is an alternative but there are strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin which can be frequently isolated.

      Complications include:
      1.Guillain-Barre syndrome may follow Campylobacter
      2. Jejuniinfections
      3. Reactive arthritis
      4. Septicaemia, endocarditis, arthritis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 189 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypomagnesaemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypomagnesaemia?

      Your Answer: Causes tetany

      Explanation:

      The ECG changes seen in hypomagnesaemia include:

      Prolonged PR interval
      Prolonged QT interval
      Flattening of T waves
      ST segment depression
      Prominent U waves

      These changes are almost the same as those of hypokalaemia.

      There is an increased risk of digoxin toxicity and a risk of atrial and ventricular ectopic and ventricular arrhythmias.

      There is impaired synthesis and release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in chronic hypomagnesaemia leading to impaired target organ response to PTH. This produces secondary hypocalcaemia.

      The use of potassium ‘wasting’ diuretics (e.g. loop diuretics like furosemide) may lead to Hypomagnesaemia.

      A tall T wave is seen in hypermagnesemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes.

    The...

    Correct

    • Metabolization of many drugs used in anaesthesia involves the cytochrome P450 (CYP) isoenzymes.

      The CYP enzyme most likely to be subject to genetic variability and thus cause adverse drug reactions is which of these?

      Your Answer: CYP2D6

      Explanation:

      Approximately 25% of phase-1 drug reactions is made responsible by CYP2D6.

      As much as a 1,000-fold difference in the ability to metabolise drugs by CYP2D6 can happen between phenotypes, and this may result in adverse drug reactions (ADRs).

      The metabolism of antiemetics, beta-blockers, codeine, tramadol, oxycodone, hydrocodone, tamoxifen, antidepressants, neuroleptics, and antiarrhythmics is also as a result of CYP2D6.

      Patients who take drugs that are metabolised by CYP2D6 but have poor CYP2D6 metabolism are more likely to have ADRs. People with ultra-rapid CYP2D6 metabolism may have a decreased drug effect due to low plasma concentrations of these drugs.

      All the other CYP enzymes are subject to genetic polymorphism. Variants are less likely to lead to adverse drug reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 191 - A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A mercury manometer...

    Correct

    • A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A mercury manometer can be used to check blood pressure. The SI units of length(mm) are used to measure pressure.

      Why is pressure expressed in millimetres of mercury (mmHg)?

      Your Answer: Pressure is directly proportional to length of the mercury column and is variable

      Explanation:

      A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A glass tube with one closed end serves as the barometer. The open end is inserted into a mercury-filled open vessel. The mercury in the container is pushed into the tube by atmospheric pressure exerted on its surface. Absolute pressure is the distance between the tube’s meniscus and the mercury surface.

      Pressure is defined as force in newtons per unit area (F) (A). 

      Mass of mercury = area (A) × density (ρ) × length (L)
      Pressure = ((A × ρ × L) × 9.8 m/s2)/A
      Pressure = ρ × L x 9.8
      Pressure is proportional to L

      The numerator and denominator of the above equation, area (A), cancel out. The constants are density and the gravitational acceleration value.

      The length is proportional to the applied pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 192 - A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old lady has acute onset of painless weakness on her left side of the face with a drooping mouth and difficulty speaking. With no significant past medical history and after relevant investigations, you rule out stroke as a possible cause. The lady is suspected to have suffered Bell's palsy, an idiopathic paralysis of the facial nerve.

      What symptoms are you most likely to find on examination in a patient with Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer: Bilateral ptosis

      Correct Answer: Taste impairment of the anterior tongue

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is facial muscle weakness or paralysis that arises from idiopathic damage to the facial nerve. It can occur at any age but is commonly associated with some conditions:
      1. pregnancy
      2. diabetes
      3. upper respiratory ailment
      4. GBS
      5. Toxins

      The common symptoms of Bell’s palsy are:
      1. Abnormal corneal reflex as the facial nerve controls the motor aspect of the corneal reflex.
      2. The loss of control of facial muscles and eyelids leads to decreased tear production.
      3. mild weakness to total paralysis on one side of the face, occurring within hours to days.
      4. Bell’s palsy is a lower motor neuron lesion that usually spares the forehead while the upper motor near lesions, like stroke, involves the entire face.
      5. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue is supplied by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve, thus resulting in loss of taste.
      6. Ptosis can be a feature of Bell’s palsy but Bell’s palsy would typically show unilateral symptoms rather than bilateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 193 - Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates the diaphragm?

      Your Answer: T10

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:

      T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
      T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
      T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 194 - A 72-year-old woman with a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, and...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman with a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension, and hypothyroidism was brought to ER with a change in her mental state over the past few hours. Medications used by her were hydrochlorothiazide, aspirin, ramipril, and levothyroxine.

      On physical examination, decreased skin turgor, orthostatic hypotension, and disorientation of time and place were found. There were no significant neurological signs.

      Initial biochemical tests are as follows:

      Na: 111 mmol/L (135-145)
      K: 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.1)
      Cl: 105 mmol/L (99-101)
      Bic: 29 mmol/L (22-29)
      Urea: 16.4 mmol/L (1.7-8.3)
      Creatinine: 320µmol/L (44-80)
      Glucose: 13.5mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      Plasma osmolality: 278mOsm/kg
      Urinary osmolality: 450mOsm/kg
      TSH: 6.2 miu/L (0.1-6.0)
      Free T4: 10.1 pmol/L (10-25)
      Free T3: 1.4nm/L (1.0-2.5)

      Which of the following is most likely cause for this condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Drug idiosyncrasy

      Explanation:

      Based on the laboratory reports, the patient is suffering from significant hyponatremia. The symptoms of hyponatremia are mainly neurological and depend on the severity and rapidity of onset of hyponatremia.

      Patient symptom according to the hyponatremia level is correlated below:

      125 – 130mmol/L – Nausea and malaise
      115 – 125mmol/L – Headache, lethargy, seizures, and coma
      <120mmol/L - Up to 11% present with coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 195 - The diaphragm is a muscle that is relatively resistant to non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade's...

    Incorrect

    • The diaphragm is a muscle that is relatively resistant to non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade's effects.

      When these muscle relaxants are used, which of the following peripheral nerve stimulator twitch patterns is best for monitoring the return of diaphragmatic function?

      Your Answer: Train-of-four stimulation

      Correct Answer: Post-tetanic count stimulation

      Explanation:

      Certain skeletal muscles are more resistant to the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents, both non-depolarizing and depolarizing. The diaphragm is the most resistant. The muscles of the larynx and the corrugator supercilii are less resistant. The abdominal, orbicularis oris, and limb peripheral muscles are the most sensitive muscles.

      Twitch stimulation patterns:

      Supramaximal single stimulus:

      The frequency ranges from 1 Hz to 0.1 Hz (one every second to one every 10 seconds)
      The response is proportional to the frequency of the event.
      It has limited clinical utility because it only tells you whether or not a patient is paralysed (no information on degree of paralysis).

      Over the course of 0.5 seconds (2 Hz), four supramaximal stimulate were applied:

      It is possible to see ‘fade’ and use it as a basis for evaluation.
      This stimulation pattern is used to determine the degree of blockade (1-2 twitches is appropriate for abdominal surgery)
      If the train of four (TOF) count is 1-2, reversal agents can be used in conjunction with medium-acting neuromuscular blocking agents.

      Ratio of TOF:

      This is the ratio of the 4th twitch amplitude to the 1st twitch amplitude.
      The ratio decreases with non-depolarising block and is inversely proportional to the degree of block, allowing objective measurement of residual neuromuscular blockade.
      To achieve adequate reversal, the ratio (as measured by accelerography) must be between 0.7 and 0.9.

      Count of twitches after a tetanic experience(PTC):

      50 Hz for 5 seconds, then a 3 second pause, followed by a single 1 Hz twitch stimulus.
      When the TOF count is zero, this stimulation pattern is used to assess deep blockade (that is, in neurosurgery, microsurgery or ophthalmic surgery when even small movements of a patient will disturb the surgical field)
      It gives an estimate of how long it will take for the response to return to single twitches, allowing assessment of blocks that are too deep for any other technique.
      A palpable post-tetanic count (PTC) of 2 indicates no twitch response for about 20-30 minutes, and a PTC of 5 indicates no twitch response for about 10-15 minutes.

      This is without a doubt the best way to keep track of paralysis in patients who need to avoid diaphragmatic movement. It’s best to use drug infusions and aim for a PTC of 2. After a tetanic stimulus, acetylcholine is mobilised, causing post-tetanic potentiation.

      Stimulation in Two Bursts:

      750 milliseconds between two short bursts of 50 Hz
      This stimulation pattern is used to assess small amounts of residual blockade manually (tactile).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 196 - A 5-year old male has ingested a peanut and has developed urticaria, vomiting...

    Correct

    • A 5-year old male has ingested a peanut and has developed urticaria, vomiting and hypotension. The pathogenesis of this condition is derived from predominant cells of which cell line?

      Your Answer: Common myeloid progenitor

      Explanation:

      A is correct. Common myeloid progenitor cells are involved in the anaphylaxis reaction.
      B is incorrect. The common lymphoid lineage gives rise to T-cells, B-cell and NK cells.
      C is incorrect as megakaryocytes give rise to platelets.
      D is incorrect – Neural crest cells give rise to various cells throughout the body, including melanocytes, enterochromaffin cells and Schwann cells. However, they do not give rise to mast cells.
      E is incorrect. Reticulocytes give rise to erythrocytes.

      This is a classic case of anaphylaxis. In this situation, IgE previously raised against antigens (in this case peanut antigen) bind to mast cells, and this causes them to degranulate.
      There is release of vasoactive substances like histamine into the blood, and this is responsible for the symptoms seen. Therefore, the main type of cells involved in the pathogenesis of the disease is mast cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.

    It's...

    Correct

    • A new volatile anaesthetic agent has been approved for use in clinical testing.

      It's a non-irritating, sweet-smelling substance. It has a molecular weight of 170, a 0.6 blood:gas partition coefficient, and a 180 oil:gas partition coefficient. An oxidative pathway converts 2% of the substance to trifluoroacetic acid.

      Which of the following statements best describes this agent's pharmacological profile?

      Your Answer: It has a lower molecular weight than isoflurane

      Explanation:

      Because enflurane is much less soluble in blood and has a blood: gas partition coefficient of 1.8, both wash-in and wash-out should be faster.

      Sevoflurane’s sweet-smelling, non-irritant nature, combined with a low blood: gas partition coefficient, would result in similar offset and onset characteristics.

      Isoflurane and enflurane have a molecular weight of 184.

      The oil: gas partition coefficient on a volatile agent is a measure of lipid solubility, potency, and thus MAC. Halothane has an oil: gas partition coefficient of 220 and a MAC of 0.74. One would expect the MAC to be higher with an oil gas partition coefficient of 180 (less lipid soluble).

      The conversion of halothane (20%) to trifluoroacetic acid via oxidative metabolism has been linked to the development of hepatitis.

      P450 2E1 converts sevoflurane to hexafluoroisopropanol, which results in the release of inorganic fluoride ions. It’s the only fluorinated volatile anaesthetic that doesn’t break down into trifluoracetic acid.

      Desflurane is likely to cause airway irritation, which can lead to coughing, apnoea, and laryngospasm, despite its low blood:gas partition coefficient (0.42).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 198 - Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the abdominal aorta? ...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following, which is NOT a branch of the abdominal aorta?

      Your Answer: Inferior phrenic artery

      Correct Answer: Superior phrenic artery

      Explanation:

      The abdominal aorta begins at the level of the body of T12 near the midline, as a continuation of the thoracic aorta. It descends and bifurcates at the level of L4 into the common iliac arteries.

      The branches of the abdominal aorta (with their vertebra level) are:
      1. Inferior phrenic arteries: T12 (upper border)
      2. Coeliac artery: T12
      3. Superior mesenteric artery: L1
      4. Middle suprarenal arteries: L1
      5. Renal arteries: Between L1 and L2
      6. Gonadal arteries: L2 (in males, it is the testicular artery, and in females, the ovarian artery)
      7. Inferior mesenteric artery: L3
      8. Median sacral artery: L4
      9. Lumbar arteries: Between L1 and L4

      The superior phrenic artery branches from the thoracic aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following does Lidocaine 1% solution equate to?

      Your Answer: 1000 mg per 100 ml

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine 1% is formulated as 1000 mg/100 mL.

      % solution is based on (grams of medicine) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ (1000 mg) / 100 ml

      % solution ~ 10 mg/ml

      Examples:

        • Lidocaine 4% = 40 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 2% = 20 mg/ml of Lidocaine
        • Lidocaine 1% = 10 mg/ml of Lidocaine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the Wrights Respirometer? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the Wrights Respirometer?

      Your Answer: Measures the minute volume to within an accuracy of +/- 10%

      Explanation:

      A Wrights Respirometer measures the volume of air exhaled over the course of one minute of normal breathing

      It is unidirectional and measures tidal volume and minute volume of gas flow in one direction. It is placed at the expiratory side (lower pressure than inspiratory side therefore lower chances of gas leaks)

      Slits are arranged such that incoming gas will rotate the vane at a rate of 150 revolutions per litre of flowing gas

      The Wright respirometer tends to over-read at high flow rates and under-read at low flows because of mechanical causes like friction and inertia and the accumulation of water vapour

      The ideal flow for accurate readings is 2 L/min for the respirometer. The respirometer reads the tidal volume and minute volume with a ±5–10% accuracy within the range of 4–24 L/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      7.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (23/40) 58%
Pathophysiology (35/36) 97%
Physiology And Biochemistry (10/12) 83%
Pharmacology (29/37) 78%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (13/14) 93%
Physiology (22/25) 88%
Statistical Methods (5/17) 29%
Clinical Measurement (10/15) 67%
Basic Physics (4/4) 100%
Passmed