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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is true about the bispectral index (BIS)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true about the bispectral index (BIS)?

      Your Answer: Is reduced by intraoperative opioids

      Correct Answer: Sevoflurane lowers BIS more than ketamine

      Explanation:

      The bispectral index (BIS) monitors works to determine the level of consciousness of a patient by processing electroencephalographic (EEG) signals to obtain a value between 0 and 100, where 0 reflects no brain activity, and 100 reflects a patient is completely awake.

      The general meaning of BIS values are:

      >95: Patient is in an awake state.
      65-85: Patient is in a sedated state.
      40-65: Patient is in a state that is optimal for general surgery.
      <40: Patient is in a deep hypnotic state It is important in measuring the depths of anaesthesia to prevent haemodynamic changes or patient awareness during surgery. The nature of anaesthetic agent used is a determinant factor in resultant BIS values. Intravenous agents, such as propofol, thiopental and midazolam, result in a deeper hypnotic state, whilst inhalation agents have a lesser hypnotic effect at the same BIS values. Certain agents result in inaccurate BIS values such as ketamine and nitrous oxide (NO). These two agents appear to increase the BIS value, whilst putting the patient in a deeper hypnotic state, and should therefore not be used with BIS monitoring. Hypothermia also affects the BIS value as it causes a 1.12 per °C decrease in body temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      59.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a correctly stated fundamental (base) SI unit?

      Your Answer: A metre is the unit of length

      Explanation:

      The international system of units, or system international d’unites (SI) is a collection of measurements derived from expanding the metric system.

      There are seven base units, which are:

      Metre (m): a unit of length
      Second (s): a unit of time
      Kilogram (kg): a unit of mass
      Ampere (A): a unit of electrical current
      Kelvin (K): a unit of thermodynamic temperature
      Candela (cd): a unit of luminous intensity
      Mole (mol): a unit of substance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      112.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per...

    Incorrect

    • If the speed of an ultrasound in soft tissue is 1540 meters per second, what is the estimated wavelength produced if the frequency of a generated ultrasound is 10 megahertz?

      Your Answer: 0.15 metre

      Correct Answer: 0.15 millimetre

      Explanation:

      Wavelength can be computed as follows:

      Wavelength = velocity/frequency

      In the given problem, the values stated are:

      Frequency = 10 x 10^6
      Velocity = 1540 meters per second

      Wavelength = 1540/(10×10^6)
      Wavelength = 1540/10,000,000 meters
      Wavelength = 0.15 millimetres

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      171.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The statement that best describes temperature management is: ...

    Incorrect

    • The statement that best describes temperature management is:

      Your Answer: Thermistors use the Seebeck effect to measure temperature

      Correct Answer: Gauge thermometers use coils of different metals with different co-efficients of expansion which either tighten or relax with changes in temperature

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      320.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it...

    Incorrect

    • An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it is dependent on zero gradient drift and zero offset. Which of the following values will best compensate for the gradient drift?

      Your Answer: 200 mmHg and 760 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Since an arterial pressure transducer, and every other measuring apparatus, is prone to errors due to offset and gradient drifts, regular calibration is required to maintain accuracy of the instrument. The two-point calibration pressure values of 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg are within the physiologic range and can best compensate for the gradient drift.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      241
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The following statements are about capnography. Which of them is true? ...

    Correct

    • The following statements are about capnography. Which of them is true?

      Your Answer: Collision broadening is due to presence of other polyatomic molecules

      Explanation:

      Capnography is the non-invasive measurement and pictorial display of inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide (CO2) partial pressure.

      It is depicted graphically as the concentration of CO2 over time.

      It is used in disease diagnosis, determining disease severity, assessing response to treatment and is the best method to for indicating when an endotracheal tube is placed in the trachea after intubation.

      The wavelength of IR light usually absorbed by nitrous oxide is between 4.4-4.6?m (very close to that of CO2). Its absorption of wavelengths at 3.9 ?m is much weaker. It causes a measurable deficit of 0.1% for every 10% of nitrous oxide. The maximal wavelength of infrared (IR) light absorbed by carbon monoxide is 4.7 ?m. The volatile agents have strong absorption bands at 3.3 ?m and throughout the ranges 8-12 ?m.

      IR light is not absorbed by oxygen (O2), but O2 and CO2 molecules are constantly colliding which interrupts the absorption of IR light by CO2. This increases the band of absorption, that is the Collison or pressure broadening). An oxygen percentage of 95 will result in a 0.5 percentage fall in CO2 measure.

      IR light is also absorbed by water vapour which will result in an overlap of the absorption band, collision broadening and a dilution of partial pressure. This is why water trap and water permeable tubing is recommended for use as it reduces measurement inaccuracies.

      The use of multi-gas analysers of modern gases also help reduce the effects of collision broadening.

      Beer’s law is also applied in this system as an increase in the concentrations of CO2 causes a decrease in the amount of IR able to pass through the gas. This IR light is what generated the signal that is analysed for display.

      The capnograph can indicate oesophageal intubation, but cannot determine if it is endotracheal or endobronchial. For this, auscultation is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      163
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Tympanic thermometers use infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings and analyses the intensity and wavelength

      Correct Answer: Thermistors use the resistance of a semiconductor bead which increases exponentially as the temperature increases

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      152.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result...

    Incorrect

    • Blood pressure monitoring is a requirement for in-patient care. Different factors can result in an inaccurate blood pressure reading, including the damping of an arterial waveform.

      How does a damped arterial waveform affect blood pressure measurements?

      Your Answer: The systolic and diastolic pressures are lower with the same mean

      Correct Answer: The systolic pressure is lower and the diastolic pressure higher with the same mean

      Explanation:

      Damping is the reduction of energy in a system achieved by reducing the amplitude of oscillations. It is necessary to some degree to prevent wave overshoots.

      Critical damping usually causes the system to be slow, so optimal damping is normally applied to provide a balance between speed and distortion.

      Damping can cause errors if excessive (overdamping) or inadequate (Underdamping). The amount of damping in a system can be determined using the damping coefficient (D), where:

      Undamped: 0
      Critically damped: 1
      Optimally damped: 0.64

      An overdamped system will cause an artificial decrease in the systolic blood pressure, and an artificial increase in the diastolic blood pressure.

      An underdamped system will cause an artificial increase in systolic blood pressure and an artificial decrease in diastolic blood pressure.

      Damping can be caused by a number of factors affecting different parts of the system, including:

      The tubing/cannula: The presence of air bubbles, increased blood viscosity or formation of blood clots.
      The diaphragm/tubing: Increased malleability/compliance
      The tubing: Presence of kinks, narrowing or too many ports of injection.

      The answer here is a damped system will have a low systolic pressure, a high diastolic pressure with a normal mean pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      2284.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man, has just undergone surgery under general anaesthesia. He has experienced a severe reaction to the anaesthetic agent resulting in malignant hyperthermia (MH) for which he has been referred for treatment.

      What investigation can be conducted to determine a patient's susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer: Serum creatine kinase (CK)

      Correct Answer: In vitro muscle contraction test using caffeine

      Explanation:

      Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a autosomal dominant inherited medical condition which predisposes affected individuals to a clinical syndrome of hypermetabolism which involves abnormal ryanodine receptors in skeletal muscle causing a deregulation of calcium in muscle.

      It is a life threatening condition requiring immediate medical intervention. It often lies dormant until triggered in susceptible individuals mostly by volatile inhaled anaesthetic agents and succinylcholine which is a muscle relaxant.

      The signs and symptoms of MH are related to this hypermetabolism, which includes an increase in carbon dioxide production, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, accelerated oxygen consumption, heat production, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, hyperkalaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and multiple organ dysfunction and failure.

      Early signs of MH to look out for in patients includes an uptick in end-tidal carbon dioxide (even with increasing minute ventilation), tachycardia, muscle rigidity, tachypnoea, and hyperkalaemia. Later signs include fever, myoglobinuria, and multiple organ failure.

      In vitro muscle contracture test (IVCT) is the standard for determining individual susceptibility to MH. It is conducted by measuring the force of muscle contraction after exposing the patient’s muscle sample to halothane and caffeine., the sample is normally taken from the vastus medialis or lateralis under regional anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      100
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year old man for septoplasty has a BMI of 32kg/m2 and neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year old man for septoplasty has a BMI of 32kg/m2 and neck circumference of 44 cm. He is troubled by intermittent nasal obstruction which causes his partner sleeps in a separate bedroom because of snoring. He currently on ramipril for hypertension.

      Which of the following best approximates to his STOP-BANG score from the information above?

      Your Answer: 6

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The STOP-BANG questionnaire is used to screen patients for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA).

      The scoring system assigns one point for each feature.

      S: Snoring (louder than talking or loud enough to be heard through closed doors)
      T: Feeling tired, fatigued, or sleepy during daytime
      O: Observed apnoeas during sleep
      P: Hypertension
      B: BMI more than 35 kg/m2
      A: Age 50-years of age or greater
      N: Neck circumference (male 17 inches / 43cm or greater and female 16 inches / 41 or greater)
      G: Gender: Male

      Our patient has a score of 5 ( O, P, A, N, G)

      The score helps clinicians stratify patients for unrecognized OSA and target appropriate clinical management. It can also help triage patients for further investigation. A STOP-BANG score of 5-8 will identify patients with high probability of moderate to severe OSA in the surgical population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      163.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Systemic vascular resistance (multiplied by 80) to produce the units of dynes.s.cm-5 is...

    Incorrect

    • Systemic vascular resistance (multiplied by 80) to produce the units of dynes.s.cm-5 is represented by?

      Your Answer: Mean pulmonary artery pressure (MPAP) - pulmonary artery occlusion pressure (PAOP)/ cardiac output (CO)

      Correct Answer: Mean arterial pressure (MAP) - central venous pressure (CVP)/cardiac output (CO)

      Explanation:

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is a derived value based on:

      SVR = (MAP-CVP)/CO x 80

      = (60 -10)/5 x 80 = 800 dynes.s.cm-5

      A correction factor of 80 is needed in converting mmHg to dynes.s.cm-5
      Normal values is between 700 -1600 dynes.s.cm-5

      Pulmonary resistance (PVR) = (MPAP-PCWP)/CO x 80

      = (10 – 5)/5 x 80 = 80 dynes.s.cm-5

      To account for body size, cardiac index (CI) can be used instead of CO. CI = CO/body surface area (m2) or mL/minute/m2.
      N/B: either MAP and CVP, or MPAP and PCWP are used in calculation to get dynes.s.cm-5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      77.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 84-year-old woman has a fall. She fractures the neck of her femur...

    Correct

    • An 84-year-old woman has a fall. She fractures the neck of her femur and requires emergency surgery.

      On history and examination, she appears to also have a possible heart failure for which an echocardiogram is scheduled.

      Her measurements are:
      End-diastolic volume: 40mL (70-240)
      End-systolic volume: 30mL (16-140)

      Calculate her approximate ejection fraction.

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      An echocardiogram provides real-time visualisation of cardiac structures. The ejection fraction (EF) is normally measured using this system.

      The ejection fraction (EF) can be deduced mathematically if the patient’s end-diastolic volume (EDV), end-systolic volume (ESV) and stroke volume (SV) are known, as:

      SV = EDV – ESV, and

      EF = SV/EDV x 100

      The normal range for EF is >55-70%.

      For this patient,

      SV= 40 – 30 = 10 mL, therefore

      EF = 10/40 x 100 = 25%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      109.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is the most accurate when describing electrical equipment and shock?

      Your Answer: The leakage current limit is 0.1mA for Class IB

      Correct Answer: Type CF is considered to safe for direct connection with the heart

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      157.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following patients presenting for elective surgery has an American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) preoperative physical status grading of III?

      Your Answer: A 73-year old man who has had a TIA ten-weeks ago but has a good exercise tolerance and is a non-smoker

      Correct Answer: A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance

      Explanation:

      The ASA physical status classification system is a system for assessing the fitness of patients before surgery. It was last updated in October 2014.

      ASA I A normal healthy patient
      ASA II A patient with mild systemic disease
      ASA III A patient with severe systemic disease
      ASA IV A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
      ASA V A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation
      ASA VI A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes

      A 20-year old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant with no other medical conditions – ASA II

      A 35-year-old man with a BMI of 29 with a good exercise tolerance who smokes-ASA II

      A 50-year old man with a BMI of 41 with a reduced exercise tolerance -ASA III

      A 65-year old woman with a BMI of 34 with treated hypertension with no functional limitations-ASA II

      A 73-year old man who has had a TIA ten-weeks ago but has a good exercise tolerance and is a non-smoker-ASA IV

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      187.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which measurements is the most accurate for predicting fluid responsiveness? ...

    Correct

    • Which measurements is the most accurate for predicting fluid responsiveness?

      Your Answer: Change in stroke volume following passive straight leg raise

      Explanation:

      The passive leg raising (PLR) manoeuvre is a method of altering left and right ventricular preload and it is done with real-time measurement of stroke volume. It is a simple, quick, relatively unbiased, and accurate bedside test to guide fluid management and avoid fluid overload.

      Pulse pressure variation (PPV), Stroke volume variation (SVV), superior vena cava diameter variation (threshold 36%) and end-expiratory occlusion test are used for dynamic tests of fluid responsiveness.

      PPV is derived peripherally from the arterial pressure waveform.

      Stroke volume variation (SVV) can be derived peripherally through pulse contour analysis of the arterial waveform. PPV and SVV have a threshold of 12% but since they are not used in patients who have cardiac arrhythmias, are spontaneous breathing, and in ventilated patients with low lung compliance and tidal volumes, they are of limited value.

      The tests of fluid responsiveness’ accuracy is determined by calculating the area under the receiver operating characteristic curve (UROC) obtained by plotting the sensitivity of the parameter in predicting fluid responsiveness vs. 1-specificity.

      Under optimal conditions, the ability to determine the need for fluid is best with PPV>SVV>LVEDA>CVP.

      Central venous pressure (CVP) is a static test of preload (not preload responsiveness) and a key determinant of cardiac function. The left ventricular end-diastolic area (LVEDA) a static test of fluid responsiveness, is derived using echocardiography

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The following haemodynamic data is available from a patient with pulmonary artery catheter...

    Incorrect

    • The following haemodynamic data is available from a patient with pulmonary artery catheter inserted:

      Pulse rate - 100 beats per minute
      Blood pressure - 120/70mmHg
      Mean central venous pressure (MCVP) - 10mmHg
      Right ventricular pressure (RVP) - 30/4 mmHg
      Mean pulmonary artery wedge pressure (MPAWP) - 12mmHg

      Which value best approximates the patient's coronary perfusion pressure?

      Your Answer: 60mmHg

      Correct Answer: 58mmHg

      Explanation:

      Coronary perfusion pressure(CPP), the difference between aortic diastolic pressure (Pdiastolic) and the left ventricular end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP), is mainly determined by the formula:

      CPP = Pdiastolic -LVEDP
      where
      Pdiastolic is the lowest pressure in the aorta before left ventricular ejection and
      LVEDP is measured directly during a cardiac catheterisation or indirectly using a pulmonary artery catheter. The pulmonary artery occlusion or wedge pressure approximates best with LVEDP.

      Using this patient’s haemodynamic data:

      CPP = Pdiastolic – MPAWP
      COO = 70 – 12 = 58mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      732
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman is admitted to hospital. She is scheduled for surgery and is undergoing preoperative assessment.

      As part of the preoperative assessment, her functional capacity is estimated. At 50kg in weight, she is able to cycle along a flat surface at a speed of 10-14 miles/hour (8 metabolic equivalents or METs).

      Provide the best estimated value of oxygen consumption (VO2) for eight METs.

      Your Answer: 1400 mL/minute

      Explanation:

      Oxygen consumption (VO2) refers to the optimal amount of oxygen used by the body during exercise.

      It is calculated mathematically by:

      VO2 = 3.5 x 50 x 8 = 1400 mL/kg/minute

      where,

      1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.

      Note:

      1 MET Eating
      Dressing
      Use toilet
      Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
      2 METs Playing a musical instrument
      Walking indoors around house
      Light housework
      4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
      Walking up hill
      Running a short distance
      Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
      Walking on level ground at 4 mph
      Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
      6 METs Leisurely swimming
      Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
      8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
      Basketball game
      10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
      Competitive football
      Fast cycling (14-16 mph)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      415.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 78-year-old man with a previous history of ischaemic heart disease is admitted...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man with a previous history of ischaemic heart disease is admitted to hospital. He is scheduled for a cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX) before he undergoes an elective abdominal aneurysm repair.

      What measurement obtained during a CPX test alone provides the best indication for postoperative mortality?

      Your Answer: Anaerobic threshold

      Explanation:

      Cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPX, CPEX, CPET) is a non-invasive testing method used to determine the performance of the heart, lungs and skeletal muscle. It measures the exercise tolerance of the patient.

      The parameters measured include:

      ECG and ST-segment analysis and blood pressure
      Oxygen consumption (VO2)
      Carbon dioxide production (VCO2)
      Gas flows and volumes
      Respiratory exchange ratio (RER)
      Respiratory rate
      Anaerobic threshold (AT)

      The anaerobic threshold (AT) is an estimate of exercise ability. Any measurement below 11 ml/kg/min is usually related with an increase in mortality, especially when there is a background of myocardial ischaemia occurring during the test.

      Peak VO2 <20 mL/kg with a low AT have a correlation with postoperative complications and a 30 day mortality. The CPX test is used for risk-testing patients prior to surgery to determine the appropriate postoperative care facilities. The V slope measured in CPX testing represents VO2 versus VCO2 relationship. During AT, the ramp of V slope increases, but does not provide a picture of postoperative mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      357.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old female, presents to her GP. She complains of fatigue and increased shortness of breath. On examination, she is noted to have pallor, an increased respiratory and heart rate. Her GP requests further diagnostic investigations, including a full blood count (FBC) which finds decreased MCV and MCHC.

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Acute haemolytic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency

      Explanation:

      The patient’s diagnosis is microcytic hypochromic anaemia which is often as a result of iron deficiency and thalassaemia.

      Macrocytic anaemia is often caused by folate and B12 deficiencies and alcohol abuse.

      Normocytic normochromic anaemia is often caused by acute blood loss, haemolytic anaemia, anaemia of chronic disease and leucoerythroblastic anaemias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      476.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero amplitude, without overshoot?

      Your Answer: Optimal damping

      Correct Answer: Critical damping

      Explanation:

      A damped sine wave is a smooth, periodic oscillation with an amplitude that approaches zero as time goes to infinity. In other words, the wave gets flatter as the x-values become larger.

      Critical damping is defined as the threshold between overdamping and underdamping. In the case of critical damping, the oscillator returns to the equilibrium position as quickly as possible, without oscillating, and passes it once at most.

      In overdamping, the system moves slowly towards the equilibrium. An underdamped system moves quickly to equilibrium, but will oscillate about the equilibrium point as it does so.

      Optimal damping has a damping coefficient of around 0.64-0.7. It maximizes frequency response, minimizes overshoot of oscillations, and minimizes phase and amplitude distortion.

      In an undamped system, the amplitude of the waves that are being generated remain unchanged and constant over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      98.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A pulmonary function tests results are:

    Measurement Predicted result Test result
    Forced vital capacity (FVC)...

    Incorrect

    • A pulmonary function tests results are:

      Measurement Predicted result Test result
      Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) 3.85 2.36
      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) 3.34 0.97
      FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) 85.1 39.9
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) 7.33 2.11
      Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) 116 44.4

      What does this indicate?

      Your Answer: Moderate obstructive picture

      Correct Answer: Moderate restrictive and severe obstructive picture

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35% This patient has a mixed deficit with a severe obstructive deficit as %FEV1/FVC predicted is 46.9% and a moderate restrictive deficit as %FVC of predicted is 61.3 FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      120.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:

    Measurement - Predicted result -...

    Correct

    • The following are results of some pulmonary function tests:

      Measurement - Predicted result - Test result
      Forced vital capacity (FVC) (btps) - 3.21 - 1.94
      Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) (btps) - 2.77 - 1.82
      FEV1/FVC ratio % (btps) - 81.9 - 93.5
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF) (L/second) - 6.55 - 3.62
      Maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) (L/minute) - 103 - 87.1

      Which statement applies to the results?

      Your Answer: The patient has a moderate restrictive pulmonary defect

      Explanation:

      Severity of a reduction in restrictive defect (%FVC) or obstructive defect (%FEV1/FVC) predicted are classified as follows:

      Mild 70-80%
      Moderate 60-69%
      Moderately severe 50-59%
      Severe 35-49%
      Very severe <35% This patient has a %FVC predicted of 60.4% and this corresponds to a moderate restrictive deficit. %FEV1/FVC ratio is 93.5%. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC < 80% = mixed picture. FEV1/FVC ratio 80% < predicted and VC > 80% = obstructive picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC > 80% = normal picture.

      FEV1/FVC ratio 80% > predicted and VC < 80% predicted= restrictive picture. The integrity of the alveolar-capillary barrier is measured by carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO) and carbon monoxide transfer coefficient (KCO). These values are seen to be reduced in emphysema, interstitial lung diseases and in pulmonary vascular pathology. However, the KCO (as % predicted) is high in extrapulmonary restriction (pleural, chest wall and respiratory neuromuscular disease), and in loss of lung units provided the structure of the lung remaining is normal. The KCO distinguishes extrapulmonary (high KCO) causes of ‘restriction’ from intrapulmonary causes (low KCO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 23 - A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled...

    Correct

    • A 77-year-old man is admitted to hospital for colorectal surgery. He is scheduled to undergo a preoperative assessment, which includes cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX).

      During the CPX, his maximum oxygen consumption (VO2 max) is determined to be 2,100 mL/minute. His weight is measured to be 100 kg.

      Calculate the metabolic equivalent (MET) that is the best estimate for his VO2 max.

      Your Answer: 6 METs

      Explanation:

      Metabolic equivalent (MET) measures the energy expenditure of an individual.

      It is calculated mathematically by:

      MET = (VO2 max/weight)/3.5 = 21/3.5 = 6 METs

      Where 1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/minute is utilized by the body.

      Note:

      1 MET Eating
      Dressing
      Use toilet
      Walking slowly on level ground at 2-3 mph
      2 METs Playing a musical instrument
      Walking indoors around house
      Light housework
      4 METs Climbing a flight of stairs
      Walking up hill
      Running a short distance
      Heavy housework, scrubbing floors, moving heavy furniture
      Walking on level ground at 4 mph
      Recreational activity, e.g. golf, bowling, dancing, tennis
      6 METs Leisurely swimming
      Leisurely cycling along the flat (8-10 mph)
      8 METs Cycling along the flat (10-14 mph)
      Basketball game
      10 METs Moderate to hard swimming
      Competitive football
      Fast cycling (14-16 mph)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is admitted to the critical care unit. He has been diagnosed with adult respiratory distress syndrome and is being ventilated. His haemodynamic condition is improved using a pulmonary artery flotation.

      His readings are listed below:

      Haemoglobin concentration: 10 g/dL
      Mixed venous oxygen saturation: 70%
      Mixed venous oxygen tensions (PvO2): 50 mmHg

      Estimate his mixed venous oxygen content (mL/100mL).

      Your Answer: 9

      Correct Answer: 9.5

      Explanation:

      Mixed venous oxygen content (CvO2) is the oxygen concentration in 100mL of mixed venous blood taken from the pulmonary artery. It is usually 12-17 mL/dL (70-75%). It is represented mathematically as:

      CvO2 = (1.34 x Hgb x SvO2 x 0.01) + (0.003 x PvO2)

      Where,

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant
      Hgb = Haemoglobin level (g/dL)
      SvO2 = % oxyhaemoglobin saturation of mixed venous blood
      PvO2 = 0.0225 = mL of O2 dissolved per 100mL plasma per kPa, or 0.003 mL per mmHg

      Therefore,

      CvO2 = (1.34 x 10 x 70 x 0.01) + (0.003 x 50)

      CvO2 = 9.38 + 0.15 = 9.53 mL/100mL

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true?

      Your Answer: Fluid-filled tubing conducts the intravascular pressure wave from the catheter tip to the transducer

      Explanation:

      Intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is a common place procedure in the ICU. It is used to provide accurate beat-to-beat information using a pressure wave displayed on a monitor.

      It involves catheter insertion in a peripheral artery (most commonly the radial, brachial and dorsalis pedis arteries). Each subsequent contraction of cardiac muscles results in pressure wave which induces a mechanical motion of flow in the catheter. This mechanical motion is then passed on to a transducer through a rigid fluid-filled tubing. The transducer is the able to process this mechanical motion into electrical signals which are displayed as arterial waves and pressure represented numerically on the monitor.

      The transducer should be placed at the same level as the heart on the phlebostatic axis, and at the level of the atria (the 4th intercostal space, in the mid-axillary line).

      Air bubbles and catheter tubing with longer lengths result in wave dampening (rounding of the resulting pressure waves). This dampening causes a decrease in systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency room after intentionally ingesting 2 g...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency room after intentionally ingesting 2 g of amitriptyline.

      A Glasgow coma score of 6 was discovered, as well as a pulse rate of 140 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg.

      Which of the following ECG changes is most likely to indicate the onset of life-threatening arrhythmias?

      Your Answer: Prolongation of the QRS complex

      Explanation:

      Arrhythmias and/or hypotension are the most common causes of death from tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose.

      The quinidine-like actions of tricyclic antidepressants on cardiac tissues are primarily responsible for their toxicity. Conduction through the His-Purkinje system and the myocardium slows as phase 0 depolarisation of the action potential slows. QRS prolongation and atrioventricular block are caused by slowed impulse conduction, which also contributes to ventricular arrhythmias and hypotension.

      Arrhythmias can also be caused by abnormal repolarization, impaired automaticity, cholinergic blockade, and inhibition of neuronal catecholamine uptake, among other things.

      Acidaemia, hypotension, and hyperthermia can all exacerbate toxicity.

      The anticholinergic effects of tricyclic antidepressants, as well as the blockade of neuronal catecholamine reuptake, cause sinus tachycardia. Sinus tachycardia is usually well tolerated and does not require treatment. It can be difficult to tell the difference between sinus tachycardia and ventricular tachycardia with QRS prolongation.

      A QRS duration of more than 100 milliseconds indicates a higher risk of arrhythmia and should be treated with systemic sodium bicarbonate.

      The tricyclic is dissociated from myocardial sodium channels by serum alkalinization, and the extracellular sodium load improves sodium channel function.

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      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 27 - A patient has a myocardial infarction with anterior ST elevation. There are the...

    Correct

    • A patient has a myocardial infarction with anterior ST elevation. There are the following observations:

      Cardiac output 2.0 L/min
      Blood pressure 80/60 mmHg
      CVP 20 mmHg
      SpO2 91% on 4 L/min oxygen

      What is the most logical physiological explanation for these findings?

      Your Answer: Biventricular failure

      Explanation:

      The occlusion of the left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery causes anterior ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). It has the worst prognosis of all the infarct locations due to its larger infarct size. It has a higher rate of total mortality (27 percent versus 11 percent), heart failure (41 percent versus 15 percent), and a lower ejection fraction on admission than an inferior myocardial infarction (38 percent versus 55 percent ).

      The LAD artery supplies the majority of the interventricular septum, as well as the anterior, lateral, and apical walls of the left ventricle, as well as the majority of the right and left bundle branches and the bicuspid valve’s anterior papillary muscle (left ventricle).

      The left or right ventricle’s end-diastolic volume (EDV) is the volume of blood in each chamber at the end of diastole before systole. Preload is synonymous with the EDV.

      120 mL is a typical left ventricular EDV (range 65-240 mL). The EDV of the right ventricle in a typical range is (100-160 mL).

      With an ejection fraction (EF) of less than 45 percent, the patient is most likely suffering from systolic dysfunction. Increases in right and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures and volumes are likely with a reduced EF because the ventricles are not adequately emptied. The left atrium and the pulmonary vasculature are affected by the increased pressures on the left side of the heart.

      By causing an imbalance of the Starling forces acting across the capillaries, increased hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary circulation favours the development of pulmonary oedema. With cardiogenic pulmonary oedema, capillary permeability is likely to remain unchanged.

      Biventricular failure will result as a result of the pressure changes being transmitted to the right side of the circulation. The patient’s systemic vascular resistance is likely to be elevated as well, but it is not the most likely cause of his symptoms. The patient is suffering from cardiogenic shock as a result of biventricular failure. The patient has low cardiac output and is hypotensive. Right ventricular filling pressures are elevated, indicating right ventricular dysfunction.

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      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 28 - The diaphragm is a muscle that is relatively resistant to non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade's...

    Correct

    • The diaphragm is a muscle that is relatively resistant to non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade's effects.

      When these muscle relaxants are used, which of the following peripheral nerve stimulator twitch patterns is best for monitoring the return of diaphragmatic function?

      Your Answer: Post-tetanic count stimulation

      Explanation:

      Certain skeletal muscles are more resistant to the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents, both non-depolarizing and depolarizing. The diaphragm is the most resistant. The muscles of the larynx and the corrugator supercilii are less resistant. The abdominal, orbicularis oris, and limb peripheral muscles are the most sensitive muscles.

      Twitch stimulation patterns:

      Supramaximal single stimulus:

      The frequency ranges from 1 Hz to 0.1 Hz (one every second to one every 10 seconds)
      The response is proportional to the frequency of the event.
      It has limited clinical utility because it only tells you whether or not a patient is paralysed (no information on degree of paralysis).

      Over the course of 0.5 seconds (2 Hz), four supramaximal stimulate were applied:

      It is possible to see ‘fade’ and use it as a basis for evaluation.
      This stimulation pattern is used to determine the degree of blockade (1-2 twitches is appropriate for abdominal surgery)
      If the train of four (TOF) count is 1-2, reversal agents can be used in conjunction with medium-acting neuromuscular blocking agents.

      Ratio of TOF:

      This is the ratio of the 4th twitch amplitude to the 1st twitch amplitude.
      The ratio decreases with non-depolarising block and is inversely proportional to the degree of block, allowing objective measurement of residual neuromuscular blockade.
      To achieve adequate reversal, the ratio (as measured by accelerography) must be between 0.7 and 0.9.

      Count of twitches after a tetanic experience(PTC):

      50 Hz for 5 seconds, then a 3 second pause, followed by a single 1 Hz twitch stimulus.
      When the TOF count is zero, this stimulation pattern is used to assess deep blockade (that is, in neurosurgery, microsurgery or ophthalmic surgery when even small movements of a patient will disturb the surgical field)
      It gives an estimate of how long it will take for the response to return to single twitches, allowing assessment of blocks that are too deep for any other technique.
      A palpable post-tetanic count (PTC) of 2 indicates no twitch response for about 20-30 minutes, and a PTC of 5 indicates no twitch response for about 10-15 minutes.

      This is without a doubt the best way to keep track of paralysis in patients who need to avoid diaphragmatic movement. It’s best to use drug infusions and aim for a PTC of 2. After a tetanic stimulus, acetylcholine is mobilised, causing post-tetanic potentiation.

      Stimulation in Two Bursts:

      750 milliseconds between two short bursts of 50 Hz
      This stimulation pattern is used to assess small amounts of residual blockade manually (tactile).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following can be measured directly using spirometry? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following can be measured directly using spirometry?

      Your Answer: Vital capacity

      Explanation:

      Spirometry measures the total volume of air that can be forced out in one maximum breath, that is the total lung capacity (TLC), to maximal expiration, that is the residual volume (RV).

      It is conducted using a spirometer which is capable of measuring lung volumes using techniques of dilution.

      During spirometry, the following measurements can be determined:
      Forced vital capacity (FVC)/vital capacity (VC): The maximum volume of air exhaled in one single forced breathe.
      Forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1)
      FEV1/FVC ratio
      Peak expiratory flow (PEF): the maximum amount of air flow exhaled in one blow.
      Forced expiratory flow (mid expiratory flow): the flow at 25%, 50% and 75% of FVC
      Inspiratory vital capacity (IVC): The maximum volume of air inhaled after a full total expiration.

      Anatomical dead space is measured using a single breath nitrogen washout called the Fowler’s method.

      Residual volume and total lung capacity are both measured using the body plethysmograph or helium dilution

      The functional residual capacity is usually measured using a nitrogen washout or the helium dilution technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
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  • Question 30 - A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the coronary care unit. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the coronary care unit. She has been diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and has gone into a cardiogenic shock. As part of her treatment, she is prescribed a dobutamine infusion and placed on full haemodynamic monitoring.

      Over the next four days, her measurement are:

      Day1 Day2 Day3 Day4
      Infusion rate of dobutamine (mcg/kg/min): 5 10 15 25
      Cardiac output (L/min): 3.4 3.2 3.1 3.2
      Pulse rate (beats/min): 110 112 105 100
      Blood pressure (mmHg): 80/60 75/61 83/60 81/56

      Haemodynamic changes are noted as a result of response to treatment. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Tachyphylaxis secondary to depletion of neurotransmitters

      Correct Answer: Tolerance by down-regulation of beta1 receptors

      Explanation:

      Tachyphylaxis is the swiftly declining response to successive drug doses which vastly reduces its effectiveness in a short space of time, mostly as a result of an acute consumption of neurotransmitters.

      Tolerance or desensitisation is the slow decline in a person’s reaction to a drug due to continued use. It requires a longer time span than tachyphylaxis, usually over days or weeks.

      Down- regulation is a reduction in the amount of receptors available on target cells which decreases the affinity of the agent to the cells. For this to occur, the down-regulation of receptors must occur at a rate faster than receptor synthesis. This down-regulation often occurs with beta1 receptors due to:

      1) The transportation or receptors from the cell surface to the interior of the cell

      2) Degradation of receptors occurring over time.

      In this case, dobutamine is prescribed to treat cardiogenic shock. It is able to function by binding to beta1-adrenergic receptors to increase the contraction of the heart, thereby improving cardiac output. It also binds to beta2- and alpha1-adrenergic receptors to balance out the effects produced by binding to beta1 receptors and reduce the risk of system vasculature responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      136.6
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