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  • Question 1 - Regarding dynamic compression of the airways, which of the following statements is CORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding dynamic compression of the airways, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It does not occur in normal expiration, because the intrapleural pressure is positive throughout.

      Correct Answer: It occurs during forced expiration.

      Explanation:

      Dynamic compression occurs because as the expiratory muscles contract during forced expiration, all the structures within the lungs, including the airways, are compressed by the positive intrapleural pressure. Consequently the smaller airways collapse before the alveoli empty completely and some air remains within the lungs (the residual volume). Physiologically this is important as a completely deflated lung with collapsed alveoli requires significantly more energy to inflate. Dynamic compression does not occur in normal expiration because the intrapleural pressure is negative throughout the whole cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following states that the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of each of the gases in the mixture:

      Your Answer: Henry's law

      Correct Answer: Dalton's law

      Explanation:

      Dalton’s law states that when two or more gases, which do not react chemically, are present in the same container, the total pressure is the sum of the partial pressures of each gas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 53 year old women presents to the emergency room with a chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 53 year old women presents to the emergency room with a chronic cough. The pulmonary receptors likely to be involved in causing her cough are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Irritant receptors

      Explanation:

      Throughout the airways, there are irritant receptors which are located between epithelial cells which are made of rapidly adapting afferent myelinated fibres in the vagus nerve. A cough is as a result of receptor stimulation located in the trachea, hyperpnoea is as a result of receptor stimulation in the lower airway. Stimulation may also result in reflex bronchial and laryngeal constriction. Many factors can stimulate irritant receptors. These include irritant gases, smoke and dust, airway deformation, pulmonary congestion, rapid inflation/deflation and inflammation. Deep augmented breaths or sighs seen every 5 – 20 minutes at rest are due to stimulation of these irritant receptors. This reverses the slow lung collapse that occurs in quiet breathing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Atracurium is used as a muscle relaxant during endotracheal intubation. This drug’s mechanism...

    Incorrect

    • Atracurium is used as a muscle relaxant during endotracheal intubation. This drug’s mechanism of action is best described by which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Atracurium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that is used to help with intubation and controlled ventilation by causing muscle relaxation and paralysis.

      At the neuromuscular junction’s post-synaptic membrane, atracurium competes with acetylcholine for nicotinic (N2) receptor binding sites. This prevents the receptors from being stimulated by acetylcholine.

      Muscle paralysis occurs gradually due to the competitive blockade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Following the administration of a drug that was started a few months earlier,...

    Incorrect

    • Following the administration of a drug that was started a few months earlier, a patient presents with features of peripheral neuropathy.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause peripheral neuropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid, a first-line agent for the treatment of tuberculosis, has the commonest side effect of peripheral neuropathy. It occurs in up to 20% of patients taking the drug at a dose > 6 mg/kg daily.

      Isoniazid combines with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to form hydrazone, which is excreted in the urine. This causes a deficiency of biologically active pyridoxine leading to peripheral neuropathy.

      Peripheral neuropathy of isoniazid is prevented by the co-administration of pyridoxine at a dose of 10 mg for each 100 mg of isoniazid given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Stimulation of J receptors located on alveolar and bronchial walls results in all...

    Incorrect

    • Stimulation of J receptors located on alveolar and bronchial walls results in all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Juxtapulmonary or ‘J’ receptors are located on alveolar and bronchial walls close to the capillaries. Their afferents are small unmyelinated C-fibres or myelinated nerves in the vagus nerve. Activation causes depression of somatic and visceral activity by producing apnoea or rapid shallow breathing, a fall in heart rate and blood pressure, laryngeal constriction and relaxation of skeletal muscles via spinal neurones. J receptors are stimulated by increased alveolar wall fluid, pulmonary congestion and oedema, microembolism and inflammatory mediators. J receptors are thought to be involved in the sensation of dyspnoea in lung disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The following all cause a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve EXCEPT...

    Incorrect

    • The following all cause a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foetal haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      A decreased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen (and hence increased ease of dissociation), shown by a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve, is caused by a fall in pH, a rise in PCO2(the Bohr effect) and an increase in temperature. These changes occur in metabolically active tissues such as in exercise, and encourage oxygen release. The metabolic by-product 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3 -DPG) also causes a right shift; 2, 3 -DPG may also be raised in chronic anaemia, chronic lung disease, or at high altitude. Foetal haemoglobin (HbF) binds 2, 3 -DPG less strongly than does adult haemoglobin (HbA), and so the HbF dissociation curve lies to the left of that for HbA, reflecting its higher oxygen affinity. This helps transfer oxygen from mother to foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 63 year old lady presents to ED with a persistent cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 63 year old lady presents to ED with a persistent cough and red currant jelly sputum. She has a history of chronic alcohol abuse and has an X-ray which demonstrates a cavitating pneumonia. The most likely causative pathogen is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      One of the results of Klebsiella pneumoniae is pneumonia that is usually a very severe infection. It is characterised by thick, bloody sputum (red currant jelly sputum), and is associated with complications like lung abscess, cavitation, necrosis, empyema and pleural effusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding the partial pressure of oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding the partial pressure of oxygen during respiration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exhaled PO 2 > Alveolar PO 2

      Explanation:

      Because of humidification, inspired PO2 in the airways is less than inhaled PO2.
      Because of gas exchange, alveolar PO2 is less than inhaled or inspired PO2.
      Because of mixing with anatomical dead space (air that has not taken part in gas exchange, exhaled PO2 is greater than alveolar O2, and therefore that has relatively higher PO2 on the way out, but is less than inhaled or inspired PO2.
      Typical values for a resting young healthy male (in kPa) are shown below:
      -Inhaled air: PO221.2, PCO20.0
      -Inspired air in airways (after humidification): PO219.9, PCO20.0
      -Alveolar air (after equilibrium with pulmonary capillaries): PO213.3, PCO25.3
      -Exhaled air (after mixing with anatomical dead space air): PO215.5, PCO24.3

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Compliance is greater in all but which one of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Compliance is greater in all but which one of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      Compliance changes at different lung volumes. Initially at lower lung volumes the compliance of the lung is poor and greater pressure change is required to cause a change in volume. This occurs if the lungs become collapsed for a period of time. At functional residual capacity (FRC) compliance is optimal since the elastic recoil of the lung tending towards collapse is balanced by the tendency of the chest wall to spring outwards. At higher lung volumes the compliance of the lung again becomes less as the lung becomes stiffer. At all volumes, the base of the lung has a greater compliance than the apex. Patients with emphysema have increased compliance. Compliance is affected by a person’s age, sex and height.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Glucagon may be used as an antidote for overdose with which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Glucagon may be used as an antidote for overdose with which of the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta blockers

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is a peptide hormone that is produced and secreted by alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, which are located in the endocrine portion of the pancreas. The main physiological role of glucagon is to stimulate hepatic glucose output, thereby leading to increases in glycaemia. It provides the major counter-regulatory mechanism to insulin in maintaining glucose homeostasis.
      Hypoglycaemia is the principal stimulus for the secretion of glucagon but may also be used as an antidote in beta-blocker overdose and in anaphylaxis in patients on beta-blockers that fail to respond to adrenaline.
      Glucagon then causes:
      Glycogenolysis
      Gluconeogenesis
      Lipolysis in adipose tissue
      The secretion of glucagon is also stimulated by:
      Adrenaline
      Cholecystokinin
      Arginine
      Alanine
      Acetylcholine
      The secretion of glucagon is inhibited by:
      Insulin
      Somatostatin
      Increased free fatty acids
      Increased urea production

      Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate. The free energy released by this process is used to form ATP and NADH. Glycolysis is inhibited by glucagon, and glycolysis and gluconeogenesis are reciprocally regulated so that when one cell pathway is activated, the other is inactive and vice versa.

      Glucagon has a minor effect of enhancing lipolysis in adipose tissue. Lipolysis is the breakdown of lipids and involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids. It makes fatty acids available for oxidation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 23-year-old student presents to the emergency department with a terrible headache, photophobia,...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old student presents to the emergency department with a terrible headache, photophobia, and a fever. On her lower limbs, you see a non-blanching purpuric rash. In the department, a lumbar puncture is conducted. What do you think you'll notice on Gram stain:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gram negative diplococci

      Explanation:

      Bacterial meningitis and septicaemia are most commonly caused by meningococcal bacteria. The Gram-negative diplococci Neisseria Meningitidis causes meningitis. Gram stain and culture of CSF identify the etiologic organism, N meningitidis. In bacterial meningitis, Gram stain is positive in 70-90% of untreated cases, and culture results are positive in as many as 80% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding chemical control of respiration, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding chemical control of respiration, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The blood-brain barrier is freely permeable to HCO3 - ions.

      Explanation:

      CSF is separated from the blood by the blood-brain barrier. This barrier is impermeable to polar molecules such as H+and HCO3-but CO2can diffuse across it easily. The pH of CSF is therefore determined by the arterial PCO2and the CSF HCO3-and is not affected by blood pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding benzodiazepines, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding benzodiazepines, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam is a short-acting benzodiazepine.

      Explanation:

      Diazepam is used to produce mild sedation with amnesia. It is a long-acting drug with active metabolites and a second period of drowsiness can occur several hours after its administration. Midazolam is a water-soluble benzodiazepine that is often used in preference to intravenous diazepam; recovery is faster than from diazepam, but may be significantly longer in the elderly, in patients with a low cardiac output, or after repeated dosing. Midazolam is associated with profound sedation when high doses are given intravenously or when it is used with certain other drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Streptococcus viridans has developed subacute bacterial endocarditis in your patient. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Streptococcus viridans has developed subacute bacterial endocarditis in your patient. Which of the following locations is most likely to be the organism's origin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral cavity

      Explanation:

      Streptococci that are alpha-haemolytic, such as Streptococcus viridans, are major components of the flora in the oral cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old man complains of pain and redness in his lower thigh due...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man complains of pain and redness in his lower thigh due to an insect bite. He was diagnosed with cellulitis. Select the first-line antibiotic for cellulitis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Cellulitis is most commonly caused by bacteria from the group Aß-hemolytic streptococcus.

      Cellulitis can be caused by animal bites. For uncomplicated cellulitis, flucloxacillin is the first-line antibiotic. Because it is beta-lactamase stable, it is efficient against Staphylococcus aureus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Approximately how long is the duration of a lidocaine block (when given with...

    Incorrect

    • Approximately how long is the duration of a lidocaine block (when given with adrenaline):

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 90 minutes

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is a tertiary amine that is primarily used as a local anaesthetic but can also be used intravenously in the treatment of ventricular dysrhythmias.
      Lidocaine works as a local anaesthetic by diffusing in its uncharged base form through neural sheaths and the axonal membrane to the internal surface of the cell membrane sodium channels. Here it alters signal conduction by blocking the fast voltage-gated sodium channels. With sufficient blockage, the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron will not depolarise and will be unable to transmit an action potential, thereby preventing the transmission of pain signals.
      Each 1 ml of plain 1% lidocaine solution contains 10 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride. The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg/kg. When administered with adrenaline 1:200,000, the maximum safe dose is 7 mg/kg. Because of the risk of vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis, lidocaine should not be used in combination with adrenaline in extremities such as fingers, toes, and the nose.
      The half-life of lidocaine is 1.5-2 hours. Its onset of action is rapid within a few minutes, and it has a duration of action of 30-60 minutes when used alone. Its duration of action is prolonged by co-administration with adrenaline (about 90 minutes).
      Lidocaine tends to cause vasodilatation when used locally. This is believed to be due mainly to the inhibition of action potentials via sodium channel blocking in vasoconstrictor sympathetic nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A critically ill 48-year-old individual appears with symptoms and signs of an anaphylactic...

    Incorrect

    • A critically ill 48-year-old individual appears with symptoms and signs of an anaphylactic reaction.

      In an allergic reaction, which of the following is an absolute contraindication to the injection of adrenaline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: None of the other options

      Explanation:

      Even if the following relevant contraindications exist, adrenaline can be given in life-threatening anaphylactic reactions:
      Coronary artery disease (CAD) 
      Coronary artery disease (CAD)  Second stage of labour
      Hypertension that is uncontrolled
      Severe Ventricular arrhythmias

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 34-year-old man arrives at the department befuddled. He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man arrives at the department befuddled. He has a history of schizophrenia and is on an antipsychotic medication, but he can't recall what it's called.

      Which of the following statements about antipsychotic drug side effects is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol is the most common causative antipsychotic drug

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal side effects are most common with piperazine phenothiazines (fluphenazine, prochlorperazine, and trifluoperazine) and butyrophenones (fluphenazine, prochlorperazine, and trifluoperazine) (benperidol and haloperidol). The most common causative antipsychotic drug is haloperidol.

      Tardive dyskinesia (rhythmic, involuntary movements of the tongue, face, and jaw) is most commonly associated with long-term or high-dose treatment. It is the most serious form of extrapyramidal symptoms because withdrawal of the causative drug may make it irreversible, and treatment is usually ineffective.

      Dystonia (abnormal facial and body movements) is more common in children and young adults, and it usually shows up after only a few doses. Procyclidine 5 mg IV or benzatropine 2 mg IV as a bolus can be used to treat acute dystonia.

      An unpleasant feeling of restlessness characterises akathisia. The inability to initiate movement is known as akinesia.

      Renal impairment causes increased cerebral sensitivity, so lower doses should be used.

      In elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis who are treated with haloperidol, there is an increased risk of death. This appears to be due to a higher risk of heart attacks and infections like pneumonia.

      The following are some of the antipsychotic drugs’ contraindications:
      Reduced level of consciousness/coma
      Depression of the central nervous system
      Phaeochromocytoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding oral rehydration therapy, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding oral rehydration therapy, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral rehydration solutions should be slightly hyperosmolar.

      Explanation:

      Oral rehydration therapy (ORT) is a fluid replacement strategy used to prevent or treat dehydration. It is less invasive than other strategies for fluid replacement and has successfully lowered the mortality rate of diarrhoea in developing countries. Oral rehydration solutions should be slightly hypo-osmolar (about 250 mmol/litre) to prevent the possible induction of osmotic diarrhoea.
      ORT contains glucose (e.g. 90 mmol/L in dioralyte). The addition of glucose improves sodium and water absorption in the bowel and prevents hypoglycaemia. It also contains essential mineral salts.
      Current NICE guidance recommends that 50 ml/kg is given over 4 hours for the treatment of mild dehydration.
      Once rehydrated, a child should continue with their usual daily fluid intake plus 200 ml ORT after each loose stool. In an infant, give ORT at 1-1.5 x the normal feed volume and in an adult, give 200-400 ml after each loose stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids And Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Herpes simplex encephalitis has a predilection for which of the following sites: ...

    Incorrect

    • Herpes simplex encephalitis has a predilection for which of the following sites:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Herpes simplex virus is the most common cause of infective encephalitis and has a predilection for the temporal lobes. Herpes simplex is transmitted through direct contact. It invades skin locally producing skin vesicles by its cytolytic activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 7-days-old neonate is taken to the emergency department. She's pyretic, lethargic, and unresponsive, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-days-old neonate is taken to the emergency department. She's pyretic, lethargic, and unresponsive, and her fontanelle has bulged.  Antibiotics are started, and a lumbar puncture reveals Gram-negative rods. Which pathogen is most likely to be the cause:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Among neonates, group B streptococci (GBS) are the most commonly identified causes of bacterial meningitis, implicated in roughly 50% of all cases. Escherichia coli(Gram-negative rods) accounts for another 20%. Thus, the identification and treatment of maternal genitourinary infections is an important prevention strategy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Cystic fibrosis patients have a weakened lung surfactant system. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Cystic fibrosis patients have a weakened lung surfactant system. Which of the following cell types is in charge of surfactant secretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type II pneumocytes

      Explanation:

      Alveolar type II cells are responsible for four primary functions: surfactant synthesis and secretion, xenobiotic metabolism, water transepithelial transport, and alveolar epithelium regeneration following lung injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - All of the following cause bronchoconstriction, EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following cause bronchoconstriction, EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Factors causing bronchoconstriction:

      • Via muscarinic receptors
      • Parasympathetic stimulation
      • Stimulation of irritant receptors
      • Inflammatory mediators e.g. histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes
      • Beta-blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency room with chest pain. The cardiology team recently discharged him. He underwent a procedure and was given several medications, including abciximab, during his stay. Which of the following statements about abciximab is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is a glycoprotein IIa/IIIb receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Abciximab (ReoPro) is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist that is a chimeric monoclonal antibody. It is primarily used during and after coronary artery procedures such as angioplasty to inhibit platelet aggregation.

      It’s approved for use as a supplement to heparin and aspirin in high-risk patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention to prevent ischaemic complications. Only one dose of abciximab should be given (to avoid additional risk of thrombocytopenia).

      Before using, it is recommended that baseline prothrombin time, activated clotting time, activated partial thromboplastin time, platelet count, haemoglobin, and haematocrit be measured. 12 and 24 hours after starting treatment, haemoglobin and haematocrit should be measured again, as should platelet count 2-4 hours and 24 hours after starting treatment.
      When used for high-risk patients undergoing angioplasty, the EPIC trial(link is external)found that abciximab reduced the risk of death, myocardial infarction, repeat angioplasty, bypass surgery, and balloon pump insertion.

      The use of abciximab is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Internal bleeding is present.
      Within the last two months, you’ve had major surgery, intracranial surgery, or trauma.
      Stroke in the previous two years
      Intracranial tumour
      Aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation
      Haemorrhagic diathesis is a type of haemorrhagic diathesis.
      Vasculitis
      Retinopathy caused by hypertension

      The following are some of the most common abciximab side effects:
      Manifestations of bleeding
      Bradycardia
      Back ache
      Pain in the chest
      Vomiting and nausea
      Pain at the puncture site
      Thrombocytopenia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding aciclovir, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding aciclovir, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aciclovir eradicates herpes simplex virus from the body.

      Explanation:

      Aciclovir is active against herpesviruses but does not eradicate latent virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood, which of the following statements is...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding carbon dioxide transport in the blood, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deoxygenated haemoglobin acts as a buffer for H+ ions.

      Explanation:

      CO2generated in the tissues and water combine to form carbonic acid which readily dissociates to form HCO3-and H+. The first part of this reaction is very slow in plasma, but is accelerated dramatically by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase present in red blood cells. Bicarbonate is therefore formed preferentially in red cells, from which it freely diffuses down its concentration gradient into plasma where it is transported to the lungs. The red cell membrane is impermeable to H+ions which remain in the cell. To maintain electroneutrality, Cl-ions diffuse into the cell to replace HCO3-, an effect known as the chloride shift. Deoxygenated haemoglobin acts as a buffer for H+, allowing the reaction to continue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to the use of diazepam: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to the use of diazepam:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute alcohol withdrawal

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are used to treat symptoms in patients with acute alcohol withdrawal syndrome.
      Benzodiazepines are contraindicated in:
      Respiratory depression
      Marked neuromuscular respiratory weakness, such as unstable myasthenia gravis
      Obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome (symptoms may be aggravated)
      Severe hepatic impairment (the elimination half-life of diazepam may be prolonged; increased risk of coma)
      Phobic or obsessional states, chronic psychosis or hyperkinesis (paradoxical reactions may occur).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Regarding airway resistance, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding airway resistance, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In the lower respiratory tract, airway resistance is mostly determined by the smallest bronchioles.

      Explanation:

      Airway resistance is primarily determined by the airway radius according to Poiseuille’s law, and whether the flow is laminar or turbulent. The major site of airway resistance is the medium-sized bronchi. The smallest airways would seem to offer the highest resistance, but they do not because of their branching parallel arrangement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following side effects is more common of etomidate than other...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side effects is more common of etomidate than other intravenous induction agents:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extraneous muscle movements

      Explanation:

      Etomidate is associated with a high incidence of extraneous muscle movements, which can be minimised by an opioid analgesic or a short-acting benzodiazepine given prior to induction. Etomidate causes less hypotension than thiopental sodium and propofol during induction. Etomidate is associated with rapid recovery without a hangover effect. The rate of respiratory depression and tachycardia is not higher in etomidate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infections (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Passmed