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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl presents with multiple non-healing ulcers, poor dentition, bleeding gums and pale conjunctivae. She also complains of easy fatiguability.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:The clinical scenario presented is highly suggestive of vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy).Vitamin C is found in citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, Brussel sprouts, cauliflower, broccoli, cabbage and spinach. Deficiency leads to impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue. Scurvy is associated with severe malnutrition as well as drug and alcohol abuse, and those living in poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.Symptoms and signs include:- Follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage- Ecchymosis- Gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums- Sjogren’s syndrome- Arthralgia- Oedema- Impaired wound healing- Generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia and depression
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles?
Your Answer: Surgical closure is performed after 1-2 weeks
Correct Answer: A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is common
Explanation:Myelomeningocele is the most common type of open neural tube defect and a serious central nervous system disorder associated with significant morbidity. It is also called open spina bifida since the dura, and arachnoid matter herniates through the defect in the vertebral column. The commonest association is the decreased folate levels during early pregnancy. The alpha-fetoprotein levels are raised in the amniotic fluid. CSF leak is a common presentation with associated macrocephaly and hydrocephaly. Prenatal surgical repair is linked to a better prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 3
Correct
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A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. Which is the most appropriate strategy for this child?
Your Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age
Explanation:Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the average age that puberty starts in boys?
Your Answer: 11 years
Correct Answer: 12 years
Explanation:Puberty is when a child’s body begins to develop and change as they become an adult.The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11, while for boys the average age is 12.It’s completely normal for puberty to begin at any point from the ages of 8 to 14. The process can take up to 4 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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Gertrude is an 18 month old child who is developing normally. Which of the following should she be able to do?
Your Answer: Follow commands such as 'give me a doll please'
Explanation:At the age of 18 months, Gertrude should be able to follow a one step command. At this age she would also be capable of putting words together in 1 or 2 word phrases, scribbling, throwing a ball, and building a tower of four cubes. At 2 she should be able to feed herself with a spoon or a fork, copy a vertical line, ride a tricycle, kick a ball and balance on one foot. Activities such as jumping will follow later on in her development at 3 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct for distal renal tubular acidosis?
Your Answer: Occurs as a consequence of increased hydrogen ion secretion
Correct Answer: Children can present with nephrocalcinosis
Explanation:Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes Ca and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria, thus precipitating calcium compounds in the kidney. Other consequences of the dRTA in children include rickets, hypokalaemia, and polyuria. While dRTA can occur as a result of various pathologies including autoimmune disease, proximal renal tubular acidosis often presents as part of Fanconi’s syndrome. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA offering the child an acid load will decrease the urinary ph whereas in distal disease the pH will be unaffected due to impairment in hydrogen ion secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An infant born at term presents with low blood sugar and a history of poor feeding. She was born with exomphalos and a large left arm. What is the most probable condition that the baby is going to develop?
Your Answer: Adrenocortical carcinoma
Correct Answer: Wilms’ tumour
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests that the baby has Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome, which predisposes the individual to cancer. The most common childhood tumour that a person with Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome may develop is Wilms’ tumour. Typical features include: macrosomia, asymmetric limb growth, macroglossia, neonatal hypoglycaemia, umbilical hernias or other abdominal wall deformities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents with complaints of right-sided earache. She says that the ear has been itchy over the past few days but has become excruciatingly painful today. On examination, she appears uncomfortable at rest but otherwise well. Her observations are within normal limits. Otoscopy is difficult as the girl flinches in pain, the ear canal appears oedematous. The tympanic membrane is difficult to see with oedema and discharge present in the external canal. The oropharynx seems normal with no erythema or tonsillar exudate. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Refer to ENT
Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the patient has features suggestive of acute otitis externa, which can be managed with topic antibiotics.Otitis externa:It can be classified as acute (< 3 weeks) or chronic (> 3 months). Frequent exposure to water, e.g. swimming, is a risk factor for the condition. Itching, pain, hearing loss and discharge are common complaints. Examination demonstrates oedema of the external auditory canal with discharge. Pain may be elicited on the movement of the tragus or pinna. First-line treatment is with topical drops/sprays for one week. Acidic preparations such as 2% acetic acid, antibiotic or combined antibiotic and corticosteroid preparations may be used (1% hydrocortisone and 0.3% gentamicin). Acetic acid can be used as the first-line treatment for mild cases without discharge or hearing impairment. On selecting an appropriate topical preparation remember that topical aminoglycosides are contraindicated if the tympanic membrane is perforated and that chloramphenicol ear drops cause contact dermatitis in approximately 10% of people. Clinoquinol, a combination of antibacterial and antifungal, may be preferred over aminoglycoside containing preparations due to the theoretical lower risk of ototoxicity and dermatitis. However, there is no clear evidence to support the use of one topical preparation over another.Other options:- Admit for IV antibiotics: First line management is with analgesia and topical antibiotic or combined antibiotic and corticosteroid preparations. Thus, IV antibiotics is not an appropriate action.- Oral antibiotics: Oral antibiotics like flucloxacillin or erythromycin are considered only for severe infections such as the spread of cellulitis beyond the ear canal. – Reassurance is not sufficient to treat these patients. They require topic antibiotic therapy.- Referral to ENT: Should be considered only in case of treatment failure. ENT referral can also be considered if there is cellulitis extending past the margin of the external ear canal, extreme pain or extensive swelling and discharge likely to require suction or the insertion of an ear wick. Urgent ENT referral is reserved for suspected cases of malignant otitis externa (with the extension of the condition into the adjacent bone and spreading osteomyelitis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 9
Correct
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Which among the following genetic conditions, does NOT present with cataracts?
Your Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (also known as von Recklinghausen disease) does not present with cataracts.The eye findings in NF1 are Lisch’s nodules, which are pigmentary lesions seen on the iris and constitute one of the major diagnostic features in this condition. Note:Interestingly, in another syndrome closely related to it, Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF-2), cataracts can occur. Early detection in family members may be made by finding lens opacities (both congenital polar cataracts and posterior lenticular opacities). Other options:- Incontinentia pigmenti is an X-linked dominant disorder with pigmentary skin changes, mental retardation and eye involvement in 40% of cases. – Myotonic dystrophy is a triplet-repeat disorder with neurological symptoms and cataracts. – Lowe syndrome (oculo-cerebro-renal syndrome) is an X-linked recessive condition. Males with this X-linked recessive condition have cataracts, hypotonia, mental retardation, generalised aminoaciduria and renal tubular acidosis with hypophosphatemia. – Wilson disease is an inborn error of copper metabolism. The clinical features include hepatic involvement, progressive neurological features, eye involvement, including Kayser–Fleischer rings and cataracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 2-year-old baby sustained a wound to her hand whilst playing in the garden. She is unvaccinated as the parents are concerned regarding side effects. There is no contraindication to vaccinations. What is the most appropriate action?
Your Answer: Give complete DPT vaccine course
Explanation:A complete course of DPT should be given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 2-day old neonate is brought to the hospital with complaint of not having opened his bowels. On examination, the anus is not visible, and meconium is coming out of the urethra. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is most accurate?
Your Answer: This is an anorectal malformation with a recto urethral fistula, urgent defunctioning colostomy needed
Explanation:Anorectal malformations (ARMS) are also known as imperforate anus (IA). This is an umbrella term for a group of birth defects which affect the anorectal area.During a normal bowel movement, solid waste passes from the colon (large intestine) to the rectum (the final section the colon) and through the anus. When a child has an ARM, the rectum and the anus do not develop properly.Some types of ARM can cause constipation, faecal and / or urinary incontinence, infections and other problems. Some of these problems are very minor and easy to treat, with great long-term prognosis. Others are complex and affect multiple areas of life, such as sexual function and urinary and bowel control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a lower respiratory chest infection. Following a road traffic accident, he underwent a splenectomy a few months ago. What is the most likely organism causing the lower respiratory tract infection in this child?
Your Answer: Rhinovirus
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:The organisms most likely to cause post-splenectomy sepsis include:- Streptococcus pneumoniae- Haemophilus influenzae- MeningococciEncapsulated organisms carry the most significant pathogenic risk following splenectomy. Hyposplenism:It may complicate certain medical conditions where splenic atrophy occurs or maybe the result of medical intervention such as splenic artery embolization and splenectomy for trauma. The diagnosis of hyposplenism is difficult, and while there may be peripheral markers of the splenectomised state (e.g. Howell-Jolly bodies), these are neither 100% sensitive or specific. The most sensitive test is a radionucleotide labelled red cell scan.It dramatically increases the risk of post-splenectomy sepsis, particularly with encapsulated organisms. Since these organisms may be opsonized, but this then goes undetected at an immunological level due to loss of the spleen. For this reason, individuals are recommended to be vaccinated and have antibiotic prophylaxis.Key recommendations:- All those with hyposplenism or prior to an elective splenectomy should receive pneumococcal, Haemophilus type b and meningococcal type C vaccines. These should be administered two weeks before or two weeks following splenectomy. The vaccine schedule for meningococcal disease primarily consists of a dose of Men C and Hib at two weeks and then a dose of the MenACWY vaccine one month later. Those aged under two may require a booster at two years. A dose of pneumococcal polyvalent polysaccharide vaccine (PPV) is given at two weeks. A conjugate vaccine (PCV) is offered to young children. The PCV is more immunogenic but covers fewer serotypes. Boosting PPV is either guided by serological measurements (where available) or by routine boosting doses at five-yearly intervals.Annual influenza vaccination is recommended in all cases- Antibiotic prophylaxis is offered to all. The risk of post-splenectomy sepsis is highest immediately following splenectomy. Individuals with an inadequate response to pneumococcal vaccination are another high-risk group. High-risk individuals should be counselled to take penicillin or macrolide prophylaxis. Those at low risk may choose to discontinue therapy. All patients should be advised about taking antibiotics early in the case of intercurrent infections.- Asplenic individuals travelling to malaria-endemic areas are at high risk and should have both pharmacological and mechanical protection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 13
Correct
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A boy with Duchene muscular dystrophy and healthy parents is expecting a new brother. What are the chances that his brother develops the same disease after birth?
Your Answer: 0.5
Explanation:Duchenne muscular dystrophy has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance. Since the first son is affected by the disease, it means that the mother is a carrier. The male children will inherit the Y chromosome from their father and the X chromosome from their mother, having 50% chances of inheriting the X chromosome with the affected gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon examination the clinician discovered that the fracture affected the insertion of the peroneus brevis muscle. Which of the following bones was most likely affected?
Your Answer: Calcaneus
Correct Answer: Base of the fifth metatarsal
Explanation:The peroneus brevis muscle originates from the lower two-thirds of the lateral body of the fibula and has inserts at the base of the fifth metatarsal. Fractures to this bone are common and can be due to infection, trauma, overuse and repetitive use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 6 year old boy presents with severe gastroenteritis and dehydration. He is receiving IV fluids and a routine blood test is done to evaluate kidney function and look for signs of acute kidney injury. All of the following are being used to evaluate for kidney injury, except:
Your Answer: 25% or more reduction in eGFR over 7 days
Correct Answer: Potassium >6mmol/l
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is not to evaluate or detect AKI but rather the result of it. If one of the rest of the options is present, then AKI would be suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A pregnant woman that already has a son with haemophilia A, wants to know the chances of her next unborn child having the same condition.
Your Answer: 0.25
Correct Answer: 0.5
Explanation:Haemophilia A has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that is a 50% chance of having a son with haemophilia and 50% chance of the daughters being carriers of the haemophilia gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old child who is undergoing assisted ventilation following traumatic brain injury develops new-onset bradycardia and hypertension.Which of the following can improve his current condition?
Your Answer: Head up at 15° in midline
Correct Answer: Mannitol 20%
Explanation:All of the presenting features of the child are suggestive raised intracranial pressure. Thus, urgent treatment with 20% Mannitol can improve the child’s condition. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is used in the treatment of raised intracranial pressure. It should be avoided in hypovolaemia because of its diuretic effects. Other options:- Head up at 15°: Keeping the head up at 20° in the midline will aid venous drainage. – Maintain CO2 at 5 kPa: If there is an acute rise in intracranial pressure, then lowering the CO2 to 4–4.5 kPa as a temporary measure can be beneficial. However, this must be only short-lived since it causes vasoconstriction and can impair cerebral blood flow. – 10% glucose bolus: Maintaining normoglycemia in traumatic brain injury is important. – 0.9% saline infusion: Hypertonic saline infusion of 3% can reduce intracranial pressure. 0.9% saline as a bolus could be beneficial if there were hypotension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?
Your Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A study done on a group of epileptics records the numbers of seizures in the weeks before and after a dietary intervention. The decrease in seizures is on average 20. (95% CI=15 to 25| P=0.0024)Which of the following options is true?
Your Answer: The confidence interval shows that the diet is associated with clinically important falls in seizure rate
Correct Answer: This is a before and after study with no control group and so the results should be viewed with great caution
Explanation:While the results of this before and after study can provide some preliminary insight into the effects of the dietary intervention, the results should be viewed with great caution as they may be considered merely anecdotal. The lack of a control group contributes to confounding the data. Therefore, while the difference may be statistically significant and the confidence interval is compatible with a fall in the number of seizures after therapy, the results cannot be introduced as the standard without a control group to compare with.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?
Your Answer: Methicillin
Explanation:Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy presented with a history of sleep disturbance for the past year. According to the parents, he has episodes in the middle of the night where he sits up in bed, unresponsive, eyes wide open, arms outstretched, and thrashing. During these episodes, he usually looks frightened, will cry out, and then goes back to sleep again. The event lasts for 2–3 minutes and can occur up to three times a night. The following day, he is tired and falls asleep at school. What is the most appropriate next step to be taken for this patient?
Your Answer: Request an EEG
Explanation:The most appropriate next step would be to request for an EEG (electroencephalogram).The two primary differential diagnoses for the clinical scenario presented would be night terrors (hypnopompic hallucinations) due to underlying narcolepsy or frontal lobe epilepsy.Though occult airway obstruction and obstructive sleep apnoea can cause sleep disturbances, the clinical scenario presented is more suggestive of neurological disorders.The hyper-motor activity, along with arm posturing (often dystonic in appearance) and multiple occurrences per night would favour epilepsy. The daytime somnolence could be secondary to the nocturnal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with complaints of vomiting, constipation and decreased serum potassium. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Hirschsprung disease
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis: hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:In pyloric stenosis a new-born baby presents with a history of vomiting, constipation and deranged electrolytes. Excessive vomiting leads to hypokalaemia. Difficulty in food passing from the stomach to the small intestine causes constipation. Hypokalaemia also causes constipation. None of the other disorders mentioned present with the hypokalaemia, vomiting and constipation triad in a new-born.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 14 year old girl presented with complaints of acne vulgaris over her face. The acne is exacerbated during her menstrual period. The most appropriate treatment option would be?
Your Answer: Topical benzoyl peroxide
Explanation:Topical benzoyl peroxide is used for the treatment of mild to moderate acne vulgaris. It is actually a peeling agent and it clears the pores and reduces the bacterial cell count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy presents with left-sided hemi-sensory loss and ipsilateral sensory inattention. The doctor suspects a space-occupying lesion.Where is this likely to be?
Your Answer: Right parietal lobe
Explanation:Damage to the left parietal lobe can result in what is called Gerstmann’s Syndrome. It includes right-left confusion, difficulty with writing (agraphia) and difficulty with mathematics (acalculia). It can also produce disorders of language (aphasia) and the inability to perceive objects normally (agnosia).Damage to the right parietal lobe can result in neglecting part of the body or space (contralateral neglect), which can impair many self-care skills such as dressing and washing. Right side damage can also cause difficulty in making things (constructional apraxia), denial of deficits (anosognosia) and drawing ability.Bi-lateral damage (large lesions to both sides) can cause Balint’s Syndrome, a visual attention and motor syndrome. This is characterized by the inability to voluntarily control the gaze (ocular apraxia), inability to integrate components of a visual scene (simultanagnosia), and the inability to accurately reach for an object with visual guidance (optic ataxia)Special deficits (primarily to memory and personality) can occur if there is damage to the area between the parietal and temporal lobes.Left parietal-temporal lesions can affect verbal memory and the ability to recall strings of digits. The right parietal-temporal lobe is concerned with non-verbal memory.Right parietal-temporal lesions can produce significant changes in personality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes presents with a history of recurrent early morning non-ketotic hyperglycaemia. Which of the following statements regarding the phenomenon described is correct?
Your Answer: Is best treated with increased evening insulin dose
Correct Answer: Can be seen after a hypoglycaemic fit
Explanation:The child has experienced the Somogyi phenomenon. It is a phenomenon where there’s a morning rise in blood sugar. Often it occurs as posthypoglycemic hyperglycaemia and follows nocturnal hypoglycaemia. The mechanism is the production of counter-regulatory hormones like glucagon, cortisol and adrenaline, which increase glucose. She can be managed by reducing her evening insulin dosage and increasing complex carbohydrates for supper (evening meal).Type I diabetes mellitus:It is a chronic illness that is characterised by the inability to produce insulin. It is caused by autoimmune destruction of the beta cells in the pancreas and often presents with ketoacidosis.The patient can present with symptoms suggestive of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. There can be periods of islet cell regeneration in these patients, which leads to a ‘honeymoon period’ of remission.Symptoms occur when there is < 20% of islet cell activity left.Insulin therapy is required in almost all children with type 1 diabetes.Most children require multiple insulin injections throughout the day via subcutaneous insulin pumps.Target HbA1c in these patients is 48 mmol/mol according to the updated NICE guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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The merlin gene is implicated in the Neurofibromatosis type 2 phenotype. On which chromosome is merlin located?
Your Answer: Chromosome 11
Correct Answer: Chromosome 22
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis type 2, also known as schwannomin, is an autosomal dominant genetic disease caused by mutation of the merlin gene located on chromosome 22. Merlin is a tumour suppressor protein, which is responsible for controlling cell shape, growth and adhesion, and is predominantly found in nervous tissue. Its mutation increases the risk of tumour development especially bilateral vestibular schwannomas, the hallmark of neurofibromatosis 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy arrives at the clinic with a history of fainting. Physical examination shows a male habitus, height above 75th percentile, weight and occipitofrontal circumference both below 50th percentile. Pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum can be seen. Hand joints are markedly flexible, and fingers show arachnodactyly. His palate is high arched. ophthalmoscopic examination reveals ectopia lentis. On auscultation, a 2/6 soft, systolic ejection murmur can be heard at the upper right 2nd intercostal space which radiates to the carotids. BP is normal, and so are the respiratory, abdominal and neurological examinations. investigations show a dilated aorta. HIs cerebral MRI scan, magnetic resonance angiography, ECG and blood tests are unremarkable. From the information provided, the boy most likely has which of the following?
Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: Marfan syndrome
Explanation:Individuals with Marfan syndrome are usually tall and slender, have elongated fingers and toes (arachnodactyly), loose joints, and have an arm span that exceeds their body height. Other common features include a long and narrow face, crowded teeth, an abnormal curvature of the spine (scoliosis or kyphosis), stretch marks (striae) not related to weight gain or loss, and either a sunken chest (pectus excavatum) or a protruding chest (pectus carinatum). Some individuals develop an abnormal accumulation of air in the chest cavity that can result in the collapse of a lung (spontaneous pneumothorax). A membrane called the dura, which surrounds the brain and spinal cord, can be abnormally enlarged (dural ectasia) in people with Marfan syndrome. Dural ectasia can cause pain in the back, abdomen, legs, or head. Most individuals with Marfan syndrome have some degree of near-sightedness (myopia). Clouding of the lens (cataract) may occur in mid-adulthood, and increased pressure within the eye (glaucoma) occurs more frequently in people with Marfan syndrome than in those without the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 28
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding precocious puberty?
Your Answer: It is treated with LHRH agonists
Explanation:Precocious puberty refers to the appearance of physical and hormonal signs of pubertal development at an earlier age than is considered normal.Most patients, particularly girls suspected of having central precocious puberty, are otherwise healthy children whose pubertal maturation begins at the early end of the normal distribution curveIn a series of more than 200 patients evaluated at a single medical centre, central precocious puberty occurred 5 times more often in girls than boys.GnRH-dependent precocious puberty is treated with GnRH agonists or Luteinizing Hormone Releasing Hormone (LHRH). Follow up every 4-6 months to ensure that progression of puberty has been arrestedFavourable signs include normalization of accelerated growth, reduction (or at least no increase) in size of breasts, and suppression of gonadotropin levels after a challenge of GnRHThe ideal testing frequency has not been established. Monitor bone age yearly to confirm that the rapid advancement seen in the untreated state has slowed, typically to a half year of bone age per year or less
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Correct
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What does a prominent left precordium in a 15-year-old boy with an ejection murmur in the second left intercostal space indicate?
Your Answer: ASD with pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Pulmonary arterial hypertension (PH) is noted in 9 to 35 % of patient with a secundum type ASD. The haemodynamic definition of PH is a mean pulmonary arterial pressure (mPAP) of ≥25 mmHg at rest by means of right heart catheterization. In ASD, The findings on physical examination depend on the degree of left-to-right shunt and its hemodynamic consequences, which, in turn, depends on the size of the defect, the diastolic properties of both ventricles, and the relative resistance of the pulmonary and systemic circulations.Blood flow across the atrial septal defect (ASD) does not cause a murmur at the site of the shunt because no substantial pressure gradient exists between the atria. However, ASD with moderate-to-large left-to-right shunts results in increased right ventricular stroke volume across the pulmonary outflow tract creating a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur. This murmur is heard in the second intercostal space at the upper left sternal border.Patients with large left-to-right shunts often have a rumbling mid-diastolic murmur at the lower left sternal border because of increased flow across the tricuspid valve.ASD is an acyanotic lesion. Thus, the patient should be normally saturated. In the rare case of severe pulmonary arterial hypertension, atrial shunt reversal (Eisenmenger syndrome) may occur, leading to cyanosis and clubbing
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 30
Correct
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A 5 month old boy presents with pallor but otherwise appears well and healthy. The clinical examination was normal and his mother reported a good appetite. His blood results showed: Hb: 9.0 g/dl (11 – 16 g/dl)MCV: 66fl (76 – 96 fl)WBC : 5x109/L (4 – 11x109/L)Ferritin : 9ug/L (12 – 200ug/L)Serum iron : 7umol/l (14 – 31umol/l)What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:Iron deficiency anaemia has the following laboratory characteristics: low haemoglobin, a low serum iron, a low serum ferritin, a low transferrin saturation, and a high total iron-binding capacity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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