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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman who is 37-weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 37-weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department due to severe headaches, visual disturbance, and abdominal pain. Shortly after arrival, she collapses and experiences a seizure. Her husband mentions that she has been receiving treatment for hypertension during the pregnancy.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Eclampsia

      Explanation:

      Eclampsia is the most likely diagnosis in this case. It is characterized by the occurrence of one or more convulsions on top of pre-eclampsia. To control seizures in eclampsia, the recommended treatment is magnesium sulphate. The Collaborative Eclampsia Trial regimen should be followed for administering magnesium sulphate. Initially, a loading dose of 4 g should be given intravenously over 5 to 15 minutes. This should be followed by a continuous infusion of 1 g per hour for 24 hours. If the woman experiences another eclamptic seizure, the infusion should be continued for an additional 24 hours after the last seizure. In case of recurrent seizures, a further dose of 2-4 g should be administered intravenously over 5 to 15 minutes. It is important to note that the only cure for eclampsia is the delivery of the fetus and placenta. Once the patient is stabilized, she should be prepared for an emergency caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      116
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse, and thick vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative. She has no fever and her vital signs are normal. During the exam, her abdomen feels soft, but she experiences cervical motion tenderness during a pelvic examination.

      What is the MOST suitable treatment plan?

      Your Answer: IM ceftriaxone plus oral doxycycline and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a pelvic infection that affects the upper female reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically caused by an ascending infection from the cervix and is commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases like chlamydia and gonorrhea. In the UK, genital Chlamydia trachomatis infection is the most common cause of PID seen in genitourinary medicine clinics.

      PID can often be asymptomatic, but when symptoms are present, they may include lower abdominal pain and tenderness, fever, painful urination, painful intercourse, purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and tenderness in the cervix and adnexa. It is important to note that symptoms of ectopic pregnancy can be similar to those of PID, so a pregnancy test should be conducted for all patients with suspicious symptoms.

      To investigate a possible case of PID, endocervical swabs should be taken to test for C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae using nucleic acid amplification tests if available. Mild to moderate cases of PID can usually be managed in primary care or outpatient settings, while patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Signs of severe disease include a fever above 38°C, signs of a tubo-ovarian abscess, signs of pelvic peritonitis, or concurrent pregnancy.

      Empirical antibiotic treatment should be initiated as soon as a presumptive diagnosis of PID is made clinically, without waiting for swab results. The current recommended outpatient treatment for PID is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg, followed by oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days. An alternative regimen is oral ofloxacin 400 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days.

      For severely ill patients in the inpatient setting, initial treatment includes intravenous doxycycline, a single-dose of intravenous ceftriaxone, and intravenous metronidazole. This is then followed by a switch to oral doxycycline and metronidazole to complete a 14-day treatment course. If a patient fails to respond to treatment, laparoscopy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis or consider alternative diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      72.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe and persistent nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe and persistent nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant. She is struggling to keep anything down and has experienced some weight loss over the past couple of weeks. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 103 bpm, respiratory rate 14, blood pressure 113/70 mmHg. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and a urine dipstick reveals 3+ ketones.

      What is the MOST appropriate initial anti-emetic medication to be used in this case?

      Your Answer: Ondansetron

      Correct Answer: Promethazine

      Explanation:

      Vomiting is a common occurrence during the early stages of pregnancy, typically happening between 7 and 12 weeks. However, there is a more severe condition called hyperemesis gravidarum, which involves uncontrollable and intense nausea and vomiting. This condition can lead to imbalances in fluids and electrolytes, significant ketonuria, malnutrition, and weight loss. It is relatively rare, affecting less than 1% of pregnancies.

      For mild cases of nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy, dietary adjustments and non-pharmacological methods like consuming ginger or using P6 wrist acupressure can often provide relief.

      In severe cases where heavy ketonuria and severe dehydration are present, hospital admission is usually necessary for intravenous fluid rehydration. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary (CKS) on nausea and vomiting in pregnancy recommends using oral promethazine, oral cyclizine, or oral prochlorperazine as the first-line treatment if an anti-emetic is needed. After 24 hours, the situation should be reassessed to determine if the initial treatment is effective. If not, a second-line drug like metoclopramide or ondansetron should be considered.

      It’s important to exercise caution when using metoclopramide in patients under the age of 20 due to the increased risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole) and histamine H2-receptor antagonists (e.g., ranitidine) can be beneficial for women experiencing significant dyspepsia alongside their nausea and vomiting.

      For more information, refer to the NICE CKS on nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      43.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old pregnant woman who has been receiving treatment for pre-eclampsia deteriorates and...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old pregnant woman who has been receiving treatment for pre-eclampsia deteriorates and arrives at the Emergency Department. Upon evaluating the patient, you decide to admit her due to the development of HELLP syndrome.
      Which of the following is NOT an acknowledged complication of HELLP syndrome? Select ONE option.

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      HELLP syndrome is a condition that occurs in approximately 0.5% of pregnancies. It is characterized by haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and a low platelet count. While it typically occurs in the late third trimester, it has also been reported in the late second trimester. Around 33% of patients with HELLP syndrome will present shortly after giving birth.

      The initial symptoms of HELLP syndrome can be vague and include nausea, headaches, malaise, and pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. Upon examination, raised blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema may be observed. Further investigations may reveal haemolysis on a blood film, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets, raised LDH, and raised bilirubin.

      Delivery of the baby is the main treatment for HELLP syndrome. However, complications can arise, such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, liver failure, and pulmonary edema. It is crucial to tightly control blood pressure, and magnesium sulfate is often used to reduce the risk of progression to eclampsia. If DIC occurs, treatment with fresh frozen plasma is necessary.

      Without prompt recognition, approximately 25% of individuals with HELLP syndrome may experience severe complications, including placental abruption, liver failure, retinal detachment, and renal failure. With treatment, the mortality rate for the mother is around 1%, while the mortality rate for the baby ranges from 5-10%, depending on the gestational age at the time of delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman with a previous history of salpingitis presents with excessive vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a previous history of salpingitis presents with excessive vaginal bleeding. Her pregnancy test is positive, and a preliminary diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy is made.

      What is the most frequent anatomical site for an ectopic pregnancy to occur?

      Your Answer: Isthmus of Fallopian tube

      Correct Answer: Ampulla of Fallopian tube

      Explanation:

      An ectopic pregnancy happens when the fertilized egg attaches itself outside of the uterus. In over 95% of cases, ectopic pregnancies occur in the Fallopian tubes. Although rare, they can also occur in other locations such as the abdomen, cervix, and ovary.

      The most common location for an ectopic pregnancy in the Fallopian tube is the ampulla, accounting for approximately 70% of cases. The isthmus and infundibulum each account for 10-15% of cases, while the uterine part only accounts for 2-5%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car accident where she was a passenger in a car hit by a truck at high speed. She is 32 weeks pregnant. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 120, blood pressure 98/62, oxygen saturation 97% on high-flow oxygen, respiratory rate 24, temperature 36.8°C. Her cervical spine is immobilized. The airway is clear, and her chest examination is normal. She has experienced a small amount of vaginal bleeding and is experiencing abdominal pain and tenderness. Two large IV needles have been inserted in her arm, and a complete set of blood tests have been sent to the laboratory, including a request for a blood type and cross-match. She has also had a small amount of vaginal bleeding and is complaining of abdominal pain. It is noted from her initial blood tests that she is rhesus D negative.
      Which of the following adjustments should be made during the initial assessment?

      Your Answer: Anti-D immunoglobulin should be administered

      Correct Answer: The mother should be log rolled to her left side at a 15-30-degree angle

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, the vena cava can be compressed by the uterus, leading to a decrease in venous return to the heart. This can worsen the shock state in cases of trauma by reducing cardiac output. To alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, the ATLS guidelines recommend manually displacing the uterus to the left side during the primary survey.

      If spinal immobilization is necessary, the mother should be log rolled to her left side at a 15-30-degree angle, raising the right side by 10-15 cm. To maintain spinal motion restriction while decompressing the vena cava, a bolstering device like a Cardiff wedge should be used to support the mother.

      Pregnancy causes an increase in intravascular volume, which means that pregnant patients can lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of hypovolemia such as tachycardia and hypotension. Despite stable vital signs, the placenta may not receive adequate perfusion, putting the fetus at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to initiate fluid resuscitation, starting with crystalloid fluids and then using type-specific blood if necessary. Vasopressors should only be used as a last resort to restore maternal blood pressure, as they can further reduce uterine blood flow and lead to fetal hypoxia.

      If the mother is rhesus D negative, anti-D immunoglobulin should be administered within 72 hours. However, this is not a priority during the primary survey.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      121.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department due to severe headaches, visual disturbances, and abdominal pain. Shortly after arrival, she experiences a seizure and collapses. Her husband mentions that she has been receiving treatment for hypertension during the pregnancy.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      Eclampsia is the most likely diagnosis in this case. It is characterized by the occurrence of one or more convulsions on top of pre-eclampsia. To control seizures in eclampsia, the recommended treatment is magnesium sulphate. The Collaborative Eclampsia Trial regimen should be followed for administering magnesium sulphate. Initially, a loading dose of 4 g should be given intravenously over 5 to 15 minutes. This should be followed by a continuous infusion of 1 g per hour for 24 hours. If the woman experiences another eclamptic seizure, the infusion should be continued for an additional 24 hours after the last seizure. In case of recurrent seizures, a further dose of 2-4 g should be administered intravenously over 5 to 15 minutes. It is important to note that the only cure for eclampsia is the delivery of the fetus and placenta. Once the patient is stabilized, she should be prepared for an emergency caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You assess a 27-year-old patient who is 10-weeks pregnant. She is concerned as...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 27-year-old patient who is 10-weeks pregnant. She is concerned as she had contact with someone with chickenpox two days ago. She is unsure if she had chickenpox in her childhood.
      What is the MOST suitable initial course of action?

      Your Answer: She should be given varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG)

      Correct Answer: She should have a blood test to check for varicella zoster immunity

      Explanation:

      Varicella can have serious consequences for pregnant women. If a woman contracts varicella during the first 28 weeks of pregnancy, there is a 1% chance that the fetus will be affected and develop foetal varicella syndrome (FVS). FVS is characterized by eye defects, limb underdevelopment, skin scarring, and neurological abnormalities.

      Pregnant women who have not had chickenpox or who test negative for VZV IgG should be advised to minimize contact with individuals who have chickenpox or shingles. If they are exposed, they should seek immediate medical help.

      If a pregnant woman is exposed to varicella, the first step is to perform a blood test to check for VZV immunity. If she is not immune and the exposure is significant, she should be given VZV immunoglobulin as soon as possible. This treatment is effective within 10 days of exposure.

      If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, she should urgently seek medical assistance. There is an increased risk of pneumonia, encephalitis, and hepatitis for the mother, as well as a 1% risk of the fetus developing FVS.

      Acyclovir should be used cautiously before 20 weeks of gestation but is recommended after 20 weeks if the woman seeks medical help within 24 hours of the rash appearing.

      If a woman develops any complications of varicella, she must be referred to a hospital. Additionally, she should be referred to a specialized center five weeks after the infection for a detailed ultrasound scan to determine if FVS has occurred.

      For more information, refer to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists green-top guidelines for the management of VZV exposure and infection in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car crash where...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance following a car crash where she was a passenger in a vehicle struck by a truck at a high velocity. She is 32 weeks pregnant.

      What is the primary cause of fetal demise in traumatic incidents during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Correct Answer: Maternal shock

      Explanation:

      The primary reason for foetal death in trauma during pregnancy is maternal shock and maternal mortality. The second most prevalent cause of foetal death is placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old patient comes in with a complaint of excessive menstrual bleeding. The...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient comes in with a complaint of excessive menstrual bleeding. The periods are not excessively painful. A recent ultrasound scan showed the presence of small fibroids, all measuring less than 2-3 cm in diameter. During the examination, a slightly enlarged uterus is palpated. The patient expresses a strong desire to start a family soon.
      What would be the most appropriate initial treatment option to consider in this case?

      Your Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Tranexamic acid is the best choice for this patient because her periods are heavy, but not very painful, and her fibroids are small. Additionally, she wants to start a family soon, so contraceptive options are not as suitable. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of heavy menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      49.7
      Seconds

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Obstetrics & Gynaecology (5/10) 50%
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