-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 56-year old man, presents to emergency department following a cardiac arrest. On history and examination, he is found to be suffering from both metabolic and respiratory acidosis as a result of his cardiac arrest.
What is the best way to reduce the risk of acidaemia during cardiac arrestYour Answer: Chest compressions
Explanation:Chest compressions are an essential part of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) which helps restore spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
Sodium bicarbonate is only prescribed in patients with cardiac arrests as a result of an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants or hyperkalaemia. Its use causes the body to produce more CO2 which causes:
Exacerbation of intracellular acidosis
Negative inotropy to ischaemic myocardium
Increased osmotic load of sodium into failing brain and body
Shift of oxygen dissociation curve to the left.THAM is often used to treat metabolic acidosis as a result of cardiac bypass surgery and also cardiac arrest, when other standard methods have failed.
Carbicarb (Na2CO3 0.33 molar NaHCO3 0.33 molar) has only mild effects on acidosis. It also causes an increase in arterial CO2 pressure and lactate concentration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored.
The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows:
Time (hours) 1 2 3 4 5
Concentration (mcg/mL) 100 71 50 35.5 25
From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?Your Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours
Explanation:Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:
C = C0·e-kt
Where:
C = drug concentration
C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
k = Rate constant
t = TimeEnzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.
Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 53-year old female with a diagnosis of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma is admitted in the surgery department for an elective total thyroidectomy with radical neck dissection. The operation is expected to last for 10 hours.
Which of the following is the most suitable humidifier to use in an anaesthetic circuit for this case?Your Answer: Heat and moisture exchanger (HME)
Explanation:Adequate humidification is vital to maintain homeostasis of the airway. Heat and moisture exchangers conserve some of the exhaled water, heat and return them to inspired gases. Many heat and moisture exchangers also perform bacterial/viral filtration and prevent inhalation of small particles. Heat and moisture exchangers are also called condenser humidifier, artificial nose, etc. Most of them are disposable devices with exchanging medium enclosed in a plastic housing. For adult and paediatric age group different dead space types are available. Heat and moisture exchangers are helpful during anaesthesia and ventilatory breathing system. To reduce the damage of the upper respiratory tract through cooling and dehydration inspiratory air can be heated and humidified, thus preventing the serious complications. Moreover, they are the most appropriate humidification devices used for routine anaesthesia.
Gases can be bubbled through water to increase humidity. Passing gas through water at room temperature causes the gas to cool due to latent heat of vaporisation. The water bath can be heated. This improves the efficiency of the device and also reduces the incidence of bacterial colonisation.
Nebulisers use a venturi system which employs the Bernoulli effect. A gas at high flow passes through a constriction causing the gas to accelerate, reducing its potential energy allowing other gases or liquids to be entrained. This can include medications or in the case of humidification, water vapour. The size of the water droplet produced by nebulisation determines where in the airway it is deposited. Standard nebulisers produced droplets of 4 microns in diameter and these are deposited in the upper airway and trachea. Efficacy can be improved by passing the droplets over an anvil which further reduces particle size. The most efficient form of nebuliser is the ultrasonic nebuliser. Here a transducer immersed in water and vibrated at a frequency of 3MHz produces1-2micron droplets. These particles easily reach the bronchioles and provide excellent humidification.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy.
Which of the following is the most likely reason for the change in this patient's voice?Your Answer: Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation:After thyroid surgery, about 10-15% of patients experience a temporary subjective voice change of varying degrees. A frog in the throat or cracking of the voice, or a weak voice, are common descriptions. These modifications are only temporary, lasting a few days to a few weeks.
Swelling of the muscles in the area of the dissection, as well as inflammation and oedema of the larynx due to the dissection, or minor trauma from the tracheal tube, are all suspected causes.
On both sides of the thyroid gland, the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) runs along the upper part. The muscles that fine-tune the vocal cords are innervated by these nerves. The quality of their voice is usually normal if they are injured, but making high-pitched sounds may be difficult. Injury to the EBSLN occurs in about 2% of the population.
Injuries to the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) have been reported to occur in 1 percent to 14 percent of people. Except for the cricothyroid muscle, the RLN supplies all of the laryngeal intrinsic muscles.
This complication is usually unilateral and temporary, but it can also be bilateral and permanent, and it can be intentional or unintentional. The most common complication following thyroid surgery is a permanent lesion of damaged RLN, which manifests as an irreversible phonation dysfunction.
The crico-arytenoid joint dislocation is a relatively uncommon complication of tracheal intubation and blunt neck trauma. The probability is less than one in a thousand.
Vocal cord polyps affect 0.8 percent of people.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
Which of the following molecules is closely related to the structure of Oxytocin?
Your Answer: ADH
Explanation:Oxytocin is structurally similar to Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) and thus oxytocin can cause water intoxication (due to an ADH like action)
Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary along with ADH. It increases uterine contractions – the contraction of the upper segment (fundus and body) of the uterus whereas the lower segment is relaxed facilitating the expulsion of the foetus
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) also called vasopressin is released from the posterior pituitary in response to hypertonicity and increases fluid reabsorption from the kidney.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 70-year-old female is on bisoprolol, amitriptyline, and gabapentin medication and required hemiarthroplasty for a fractured neck of the femur. Spinal anaesthesia using 10 mg of IV ketamine to aid positioning was decided to be used. This resulting block extended to T8 and she required boluses of metaraminol for hypotension.
She became profoundly hypertensive and had multiple ventricular ectopic beats on ECG following positioning in theatre.
Which of the following is the cause for this?Your Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:Ketamine is primarily used for the induction and maintenance of anaesthesia. It induces dissociative anaesthesia. But it is contraindicated in cardiovascular diseases such as unstable angina or poorly controlled hypertension.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) are primarily used as antidepressants which is important for the management of depression. These are second-line drugs next to SSRI. They work by competitively preventing re-uptake of amines (noradrenaline and serotonin) from the synaptic cleft so increasing their concentration. But TCA overdoses are toxic and have cardiovascular effects, central effects, and anticholinergics effects. Cardiovascular effects like prolonged QT and widened QRS at lower doses progressing to ventricular arrhythmias and refractory hypotension at higher doses can be life-threatening. When used in the perioperative period, it can lead to increased sensitivity to circulating catecholamines therefore care is needed perioperatively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Concerning the intercostal nerves, which one of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Each is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk
Explanation:The intercostal nerves arise from the ventral rami of the first 11 thoracic spinal nerves. they course along the costal groove on the lower margin of the rib.
The twelfth intercoastal nerve is called the subcostal nerve. This is because it is below the 12th rib.
Each intercostal nerve is connected to a ganglion of the sympathetic trunk from which it carries preganglionic and postganglionic fibres that innervate blood vessels, sweat glands, and muscles.
The lateral and medial pectoral nerves innervates pectoralis major muscle.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements about cerebrospinal fluid are incorrect except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a glucose concentration 2/3 that of the plasma glucose
Explanation:The pH of CSF is 7.31 which is lower than plasma.
Compared to plasma, it has a lower concentration of potassium, calcium, and protein and a higher concentration of sodium, chloride, bicarbonate and magnesium.
CSF usually has no cells present but if white cells are present, there should be no more than 4/ml.
The pressure of CSF should be less than 20 cm of water.
The concentration of glucose is approximately two-thirds of that of plasma, and it has a concentration of approximately 3.3-4 mmol/L.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Regarding the emergency oxygen flush, which is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May lead to awareness if used inappropriately
Explanation:When the emergency oxygen flush is pressed, 100% oxygen is supplied from the common gas outlet. This gas bypasses BOTH flowmeters and vaporisers. The flow of oxygen is usually 45 l/min at a PRESSURE OF 400 kPa.
There is an increased risk of pulmonary barotrauma when the emergency flush is pressed, especially when anaesthetising paediatric patients.
The inappropriate use of the flush causes dilution of anaesthetic gases and this increases the possibility of anaesthetic awareness .
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
An individual who recently moved his residence from the plains to the mountains will experience immediately which physiologic response to high altitude and hypoxia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased cardiac output
Explanation:A person remaining at high altitudes for days, weeks, or years becomes more and more acclimatized to the low PO2, so it causes fewer deleterious effects on the body.
After acclimatization, it becomes possible for the person to work harder without hypoxic effects or to ascend to still higher altitudes. The principal means by which acclimatization comes about are (1) a great increase in pulmonary ventilation, (2) increased numbers of red blood cells, (3) diffusing capacity of the lungs, (4) increased vascularity of the peripheral tissues, and (5) increased ability of the tissue cells to use oxygen despite low PO2.
The cardiac output often increases as much as 30% immediately after a person ascends to high altitude but then decreases back toward normal over a period of weeks as the blood haematocrit increases, so the amount of oxygen transported to the peripheral body tissues remains about normal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
What structure lies deepest within the popliteal fossa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Popliteal artery
Explanation:The popliteal fossa is the shallow, diamond-shaped depression located in the back of the knee joint.
The structures that lie within in from superficial to deep are:
The tibial and common fibular nerve: Most superficial. They arise from the sciatic nerve.
The popliteal vein
The popliteal artery: Lies deepest. It arises from the femoral arteryBoundaries of the popliteal fossa:
Laterally
Biceps femoris above, lateral head of gastrocnemius and plantaris belowMedially
Semimembranosus and semitendinosus above, medial head of gastrocnemius belowFloor
Popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of knee joint and popliteus muscleRoof
Superficial and deep fascia -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man with a ventricular rate of 210 beats per minute is admitted to the emergency department with atrial fibrillation. The patient develops ventricular fibrillation shortly after receiving pharmacotherapy to treat his arrhythmia, from which he is successfully resuscitated.
He has a PR interval of 40 Ms, a prominent delta wave in lead I, and a QRS duration of 120 Ms, according to an ECG from a previous admission.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be involved in this patient's development of ventricular fibrillation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:The Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPWS) is linked to an additional electrical conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles. This accessory pathway (bundle of Kent), unlike the atrioventricular (AV) node, is incapable of slowing down a rapid rate of atrial depolarization. In other words, a short circuit bypasses the AV node. Patients with a rapid ventricular response or narrow complex AV re-entry tachycardia are more likely to develop atrial fibrillation or flutter.
Digoxin can promote impulse transmission through this accessory pathway if a patient with WPWS develops atrial fibrillation because it works by blocking the AV node. This can cause ventricular fibrillation and an extremely rapid ventricular rate. As a result, it’s not advised.
Adenosine, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, among other drugs that interfere with AV nodal conduction, are also generally contraindicated.
The class III antiarrhythmic drugs amiodarone and ibutilide (K+ channel block) and procainamide (Na+ channel block) are the drugs of choice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Lisa is a 75-year-old female rushed into the emergency department by first-aid responders. The ambulance team give a history of vomiting, homonymous hemianopia, weakness of the left upper and lower limb, and dysphasia. Lisa adds that she has a headache that keeps worsening.
Lisa takes Warfarin as she is a known case of atrial fibrillation. Her INR is 4.3 despite the ideal target being 2-3.
CT scan of the head suggests anterior cerebral artery haemorrhage.
What areas of the brain are affected by an anterior cerebral artery stroke?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontal and parietal lobes
Explanation:The anterior cerebral artery supplies the midline portion of the frontal lobe and the superior medial parietal lobe of the brain. It also supplies the front four-fifths of the corpus callosum and provides blood to deep structures such as the anterior limb of the internal capsule, part of the caudate nucleus, and the anterior part of the globus pallidus.
The cerebral hemispheres are supplied by arteries that make up the Circle of Willis. The Circle of Willis is formed by the anastomosis of the two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries.
Clinically, the internal carotid arteries and their branches are often referred to as the anterior circulation of the brain. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected by the anterior communicating artery. Near their termination, the internal carotid arteries are joined to the posterior cerebral arteries by the posterior communicating arteries, completing the cerebral arterial circle around the interpeduncular fossa, the deep depression on the inferior surface of the midbrain between the cerebral peduncles.
The middle cerebral artery supplies part of the frontal, temporal and parietal lobes.
The posterior cerebral artery supplies the occipital lobe.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is not true regarding the effects of Dopamine in CNS?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most of the administered dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals
Explanation:Nausea and vomiting occur commonly due to Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone (CTZ) stimulation by dopamine (Domperidone but not metoclopramide can be used for the treatment of this vomiting)
Dopamine itself cannot cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB) but its precursor levodopa can cross BBB.
Dopamine can modulate extrapyramidal symptoms like acute dyskinesia, tardive dyskinesia, Parkinsonism, and Neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Dopamine inhibits the secretion of prolactin from the pituitary gland.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
The thyroid gland:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internalises iodine through active transport
Explanation:The thyroid gland is a gland shaped like a butterfly which lies at the base of the anterior neck. It controls metabolism using hormone secretion.
Iodine is extremely important for the synthesis of hormones within the thyroid. It is internalised into the thyroid follicular cells via the sodium/iodide symporter (NIS).
The parathyroid glands are found posterior to the thyroid gland, with the recurrent laryngeal nerves running posteromedially.
The expected weight of a normal thyroid gland is about 30 grams.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A trail has analysed that a new screening test may increase the survival time of ovarian cancer patients. But analyst say that the apparent increase in the patients survival time is just because of earlier detection instead of actual improvement.
What kind of bias is in this experiment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lead time bias
Explanation:Observation bias occurs when the behaviour of an individual changes that results from their awareness of being observed.
Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status.
Attrition bias is a systematic error caused by unequal loss of participants from a randomized controlled trial (RCT). In clinical trials, participants might dropout due to unsatisfactory treatment or efficacy, intolerable adverse events, or even death.
Selection bias introduced when the individuals are not chosen randomly to take a part in the study. It usually occurs when the research decides who is going to be studied, they are not the representative of the population.
Lead-time bias occurs when a disease is detected by a screening test at an earlier time point rather than it would have been diagnosed by its clinical appearance. In this bias, earlier detection improves the survival time in the intervention group.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate from the plasma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propofol
Explanation:Propofol is cleared at the fastest rate at the rate of 60ml/kg/min.
Clearance rate of other drugs are as follows:
– Thiopental: 3.5 ml/kg/min
– Methohexitone: 11 ml/kg/min
– Ketamine: 17 ml/kg/min
– Etomidate: 10-20 ml/kg/min -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
Regarding the use of soda lime as part of a modern circle system with a vaporiser outside the circuit (VOC), which of the following is its most deleterious consequence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbon monoxide formation
Explanation:When using dry soda lime for VOCs, very high amounts of carbon monoxide may be produced, regardless of the inhalational anaesthetic agent used. The carbon monoxide produced is sufficient enough to cause cytotoxic and anaemic hypoxia. To prevent this, soda lime canisters are shaken well to even out the packing of granules. This can help to evenly distribute gas flow for proper CO2 absorption and ventilation.
Compound A is formed when dry soda lime, or soda lime in high temperature, reacts with the inhalational anaesthetic Sevoflurane. Animal studies have shown renal toxicity in rats, but renal adverse effects in humans are yet to be observed.
When monitors are not employed with VOCs, deleterious effects are not for certain. However, monitors not employed with vaporiser inside the circuit (VIC) can lead to significant adverse events.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 52-year old man was placed under general anaesthesia for an emergent open cholecystectomy. As part of the induction, suxamethonium was administered at 1.5mg/kg. Post-operatively, there was failure to restore muscle twitch responses over a course of five hours.
Clinical chemistry studies were obtained and showed the following results:
Butrylcholinesterase (BChE) activity: 49 U/L (Reference range: 3300-10,300 U/L)
Dibucaine number: <4% (Reference range: 83-88%)
The attending physician gave an initial diagnosis of Suxamethonium Apnoea.
What is the most probable phenotype of BChE of the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: S (silent)
Explanation:Silent (S) is the most probable phenotype of the patient. In S phenotype, patients have significantly reduced levels of BChE, the lowest among the four phenotypes. Because of this, individuals with S phenotype are subjected to long periods of apnoea. In addition, their dibucaine number is very low.
Other BChE phenotypes are the following:
Usual (U)
Atypical (A)
Fluoride-resistant (F) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
Drug toxicity when using bupivacaine is most likely to occur when this local anaesthetic technique is performed.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intercostal nerve block
Explanation:An intercostal nerve block is used for therapeutic and diagnostic purposes. Intercostal nerve blocks manage acute and chronic pain in the chest area. Common indications are chest wall surgery and shingles or postherpetic neuralgia.
An intercostal nerve block is also an effective option for the management of pain associated with chest trauma and rib fractures. These blocks have been shown to improve oxygenation and respiratory mechanics, and offer pain relief that is comparable to that of epidural analgesia.
This technique, however, is limited by the relatively large doses of local anaesthetic required, and relatively high intravascular uptake from the intercostal space, increasing risk of local anaesthetic toxicity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.
Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA
Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Substitution at different positions of the barbituric ring give rise to different pharmacologic properties.
Substitution with and at which specific site of the ring affects lipid solubility the most?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sulphur atom at position 2
Explanation:Barbiturates are derived from barbituric acid, which itself is nondepressant, but appropriate side-chain substitutions result in CNS depressant activity that varies in potency and duration with carbon chain length, branching, and saturation.
Oxybarbiturates retain an oxygen atom on number 2-carbon atom of the barbituric acid ring.
Thiobarbiturates replace this oxygen atom with a sulphur atom, which confers greater lipid solubility. Generally speaking, a substitution such as sulphuration that increases lipid solubility is associated with greater hypnotic potency and more rapid onset, but shorter duration of action.
Addition of a methyl group to the nitrogen atom of the barbituric acid ring, as with oxybarbiturate methohexital, also results in a compound with a short duration of action.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
The following statements are about capnography. Which of them is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Collision broadening is due to presence of other polyatomic molecules
Explanation:Capnography is the non-invasive measurement and pictorial display of inhaled and exhaled carbon dioxide (CO2) partial pressure.
It is depicted graphically as the concentration of CO2 over time.
It is used in disease diagnosis, determining disease severity, assessing response to treatment and is the best method to for indicating when an endotracheal tube is placed in the trachea after intubation.
The wavelength of IR light usually absorbed by nitrous oxide is between 4.4-4.6?m (very close to that of CO2). Its absorption of wavelengths at 3.9 ?m is much weaker. It causes a measurable deficit of 0.1% for every 10% of nitrous oxide. The maximal wavelength of infrared (IR) light absorbed by carbon monoxide is 4.7 ?m. The volatile agents have strong absorption bands at 3.3 ?m and throughout the ranges 8-12 ?m.
IR light is not absorbed by oxygen (O2), but O2 and CO2 molecules are constantly colliding which interrupts the absorption of IR light by CO2. This increases the band of absorption, that is the Collison or pressure broadening). An oxygen percentage of 95 will result in a 0.5 percentage fall in CO2 measure.
IR light is also absorbed by water vapour which will result in an overlap of the absorption band, collision broadening and a dilution of partial pressure. This is why water trap and water permeable tubing is recommended for use as it reduces measurement inaccuracies.
The use of multi-gas analysers of modern gases also help reduce the effects of collision broadening.
Beer’s law is also applied in this system as an increase in the concentrations of CO2 causes a decrease in the amount of IR able to pass through the gas. This IR light is what generated the signal that is analysed for display.
The capnograph can indicate oesophageal intubation, but cannot determine if it is endotracheal or endobronchial. For this, auscultation is used.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
What is the percentage of values that lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 99.70%
Explanation:99.7% of the values within 3 standard deviations of the mean.
For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:
1. Multiply the standard error by 3.
2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.
3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.
For a confidence interval of 68%, multiply the standard error with 1 and repeat the process. For a 95% confidence interval, Standard Error is multiplied by 1.96 to get the interval.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Regarding sine wave damping, which one would approach equilibrium the fastest at zero amplitude, without overshoot?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Critical damping
Explanation:A damped sine wave is a smooth, periodic oscillation with an amplitude that approaches zero as time goes to infinity. In other words, the wave gets flatter as the x-values become larger.
Critical damping is defined as the threshold between overdamping and underdamping. In the case of critical damping, the oscillator returns to the equilibrium position as quickly as possible, without oscillating, and passes it once at most.
In overdamping, the system moves slowly towards the equilibrium. An underdamped system moves quickly to equilibrium, but will oscillate about the equilibrium point as it does so.
Optimal damping has a damping coefficient of around 0.64-0.7. It maximizes frequency response, minimizes overshoot of oscillations, and minimizes phase and amplitude distortion.
In an undamped system, the amplitude of the waves that are being generated remain unchanged and constant over time.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man is having his central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long venous line was inserted via the femoral vein into the right atrium for this purpose. The catheter is advanced through the IVC.
Which level of the vertebra is the site where this vessel enters the thorax?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T8
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Noradrenaline is used as an infusion to increase blood pressure in a 43-year-old woman with pneumonia admitted to ICU.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Noradrenaline?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a short half life about 2 minutes
Explanation:Noradrenaline has a short half-life of about 2 minutes. It is rapidly cleared from plasma by a combination of cellular reuptake and metabolism.
It acts as sympathomimetics by acting on ?1 receptors and also on ? receptors.
It decreases renal and hepatic blood flow.
Norepinephrine is metabolized by the enzymes monoamine oxidase and catechol-O-methyltransferase to 3-methoxy-4-hydroxymandelic acid and 3-methoxy-4-hydroxyphenylglycol (MHPG).
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Regarding the classification of breathing systems, which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Conway classification describes a functional classification based on whether a CO2 absorber is required
Explanation:Breathing system is an assembly of components which connects patient’s airway to anaesthesia machine through which controlled composition of gas mixture is dispensed. It delivers gas to the patient, removes expired gas and controls the temperature and humidity of the inspired mixture. It allows spontaneous, controlled, or assisted respiration. It may also provide ports for gas sampling, airway pressure, flow and volume monitoring.
Breathing systems have been classified by Conway and Mapleson.
Conway suggested a functional classification:
– Circuits requiring a CO2 absorber
– Circuits not requiring a CO2 absorberWilliam Mapleson designated varying arrangements of breathing system components (masks, breathing tubes, fresh gas flow inlets, adjustable pressure-limiting valves, and reservoir bags) as Mapleson A-E circuits.
Mapleson A: Arranged as FGF inlet, reservoir bag, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, because the reservoir bag is between the FGF inlet valve and the APL valve, expired gas from the patient may re-enter the system and fill the reservoir bag during controlled ventilation. This is the most efficient system for spontaneous breathing as the FGF must only be equal to a patient’s minute ventilation to prevent rebreathing.Mapleson B: Arranged as reservoir bag, FGF inlet, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, the FGF inlet is closer to the APL valve, which helps prevent the rebreathing concern in the Mapleson A circuit as above during controlled ventilation.Mapleson C: Arranged as reservoir bag, FGF inlet, APL valve, mask.
In this circuit, the arrangement is the same as the Mapleson B circuit. However, this circuit is shorter as it does not contain elongated corrugated tubing. This circuit also has the FGF inlet close to the APL valve to aid in preventing rebreathing.Mapleson D: Arranged as reservoir bag, APL valve, FGF inlet, and mask.
In this circuit, the arrangement interchanges the FGF inlet and APL valve of the Mapleson A circuit. This system prevents rebreathing by directing FGF towards the APL valve rather than towards the patient during exhalation.Mapleson E: Arranged as corrugated tubing, FGF inlet, and mask.
In this circuit, there is no reservoir bag and no APL valve. Given the inability to alter the pressure of the circuit, this is ideal for spontaneously ventilating neonates or paediatric patients where low-pressure ventilation is desired. The system prevents rebreathing, similar to the Mapleson D circuit.Jackson Rees later modified the Mapleson E by adding an open ended bag, which has since become known as the Mapleson F.
Mapleson F: Arranged as APL valve directly connected to reservoir bag, corrugated tubing, FGF inlet, and mask.
The system prevents rebreathing similarly to Mapleson D by directing FGF towards the APL valve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
The following foetal anatomical features functionally closes earliest at birth?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation:Foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus (DA) and ductus venosus (DV) are the three important cardiac shunts in-utero.
At birth the umbilical vessels constrict in response to stretch as they are clamped. Blood flow through the ductus venosus (DV) decreases but the DV closes passively in 3-10 days.
As the pulmonary circulation is established, there is a drastic fall in pulmonary vascular resistance and an increased pulmonary blood flow. This increases flow and pressure in the Left Atrium that exceeds that of the right atrium. The difference in pressure usually leads to the IMMEDIATE closure of the foramen ovale.
The DA is functionally closed within the first 36-hours of birth in a healthy full-term newborn. Subsequent endothelial and fibroblast proliferation leads to permanent anatomical closure within 2 – 3 weeks.
Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes via the umbilical vein to the liver. Blood also bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus into the inferior vena cava (IVC). The Crista dividens is a tissue flap situated at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium (RA). This flap directs the oxygen-rich blood, along the posterior aspect of the IVC, through the foramen ovale into the left atrium (LA).
The Eustachian valve also known as the valve of The IVC is a remnant of the crista dividens.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A 72-year old man is experiencing a cardiac risk evaluation for the management of obstructive umbilical hernia. Echocardiogram demonstrates an aortic valve area=0.59cm with a pressure of 70mmHg. Five years ago, he had mild myocardial infarction complicated with pulmonary oedema. Now he encounters angina with little exertion.
Which of the following factor is the foremost profoundly weighted using Deysky's cardiac risk scoring system in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Detsky’s Modified cardiac risk classification system in patients undergoing non-cardiac surgery:
Age more than 70: 05 points
History of myocardial infarction:
Less than 6 months: 10 points
More than 6 months: 5 pointsAngina Pectoris:
Angina with minimal exertion: 10 points
Angina at any level of exertion: 20 points
Pulmonary Oedema:
Within 7 days: 10 points
At any time: 5 pointsSuspected aortic valve stenosis with valve area <0.6cm2: 20 points Arrhythmia: Any rhythm other than sinus or sinus with premature atrial complexes (PACs): 5 points More than 5 premature ventricular contractions: 5 points
Emergency Surgery: 10 points
Deficient general medical condition: 5 pointsRisk classification:
Grade I: 0-15 points = low risk
Grade II: 15-30 points = moderate risk
Grade III: >30 points = high risk -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
Which of these structures will cause the biggest reduction in hepatic blood flow when occluded surgically?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Portal vein
Explanation:The portal vein arises from the splenic and mesenteric veins, and is the biggest vessel in the portal venous system, accounting for about 75% of the hepatic blood flow.
It is responsible for draining blood from parts of the gastrointestinal system, the spleen, the pancreas and the gallbladder into the liver.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A young male is undergoing inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeons approach the inguinal canal and expose the superficial inguinal ring.
Which structure forms the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle, just above and lateral to the pubic crest.
The superficial ring resembles a triangle more than a ring with the base lying on the pubic crest and its apex pointing towards the anterior superior iliac spine. The sides of the triangle are crura of the opening in the external oblique aponeurosis. The lateral crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic tubercle. The medial crura of the triangle is attached to the pubic crest.
The external oblique aponeurosis forms the anterior wall of the inguinal canal and also the lateral edge of the superficial inguinal ring. The rectus abdominis lies posteromedially, and the transversalis posterior to this.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
The external laryngeal nerve is responsible for the innervation of which of the following muscles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cricothyroid
Explanation:The external laryngeal nerve arises from the superior laryngeal nerve and provides innervation to the cricothyroid muscle.
The other muscles mentioned receive their innervations from the recurrent laryngeal nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
Diagnosis of the neuroleptic malignant syndrome is best supported by which of the following statement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased Creatine Kinase
Explanation:The neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare complication in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication.
The main features are:
– Elevated creatinine kinase
– Hyperthermia and tachycardia
– Altered mental state
– Increased white cell count
– Insidious onset over 1-3 days
– Extrapyramidal dysfunction (muscle rigidity, tremor, dystonia)
– Autonomic dysfunction (Labile blood pressure, sweating, salivation, urinary incontinence)Management is supportive ICU care, anticholinergic drugs, increasing dopaminergic activity with Amantadine, L-dopa, and dantrolene, and non- depolarising neuromuscular blockade drugs
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angiotensin II
Explanation:Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.
Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.
Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.
Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This means either a ventricular origin problem or aberrant conduction. The normal resting membrane potential of the heart's ventricular contractile fibres is which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: -90mV
Explanation:The cardiac muscle’s contractile fibres have a much more stable resting potential than its conductive fibres. In the ventricular fibres it is -90mV and in the atrial fibres it is -80mV.
The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms. (QRS complex)Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
Which muscle separates the subclavian artery and the subclavian vein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scalenus anterior
Explanation:The subclavian artery and vein have a similar path throughout their course, with the subclavian vein running anterior to the subclavian artery. The artery and vein are separated by the insertion of the scalenus anterior muscle.
There are three scalene muscles, found on each side of the neck:
1. Anterior scalene
2. Middle scalene
3. Posterior scaleneThe scalenus anterior muscle is the anterior most of the three scalene muscles. It originates from the transverse processes of vertebrae C3-C6 and is inserted in the first rib.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
Regarding pre-eclampsia with warning signs, which of the following laboratory tests is the most appropriate to establish a platelet dysfunction or disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Platelet count
Explanation:Decreased platelet concentrations with eclampsia were described as early as 1922 by Stancke. The platelet count is routinely measured in women with any form of gestational hypertension. The frequency and intensity of thrombocytopenia vary and are dependent on the severity and duration of the preeclampsia syndrome and the frequency with which platelet counts are performed.
Overt thrombocytopenia defined by a platelet count < 100,000/microliter - indicates severe disease. In general, the lower the platelet count, the higher the rates of maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. In most cases, delivery is advisable because thrombocytopenia usually continues to worsen. After delivery, the platelet count may continue to decline for the first day or so. It then usually increases progressively to reach a normal level within 3-5 days. In some instances with HELLP syndrome, the platelet count continues to fall after delivery. If these do not reach a nadir until 48 to 72 hours, then preeclampsia syndrome may be incorrectly attributed to one of the thrombotic microangiopathies. The following are other severe features associated with preeclampsia: Proteinuria: >/= 300 mg/24 hours; or urine protein: creatinine ratio >/= 0.3; or dipstick 1+
Renal insufficiency: serum creatinine > 1.1 mg/dL or doubling of creatinine in the absence of other renal disease
Impaired liver function: two times elevated AST/ALT or unexplained right upper quadrant pain or epigastric pain unresponsive to medications
Pulmonary oedema
Cerebral or visual symptoms: headache, visual disturbances
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
You are approached by a drug rep who tells you about a new drug. The dosage and side effects of the drug are being determined in a trial. The representative asks you to refer participants for the trial.
What type of participants should you refer? In which phase of trials is the drug currently in?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Healthy participants, Phase 1
Explanation:Phase 2 trials involve patients that are suffering from the disease under study and are associated with determining the efficiency and the optimum dosage of the drug.
Phase 0 trials assist the scientists in studying the behaviour of drugs in humans by micro dosing patients. They are used to speed up the developmental process. They have no measurable therapeutic effect and efficiency.
Phase 1 is associated with assessing whether a drug is safe to use or not. The process is extensive and can take up to several months. It also involves healthy participants (less than 100) that are paid to take part in the study. The side effects upon increasing dosage are also addressed by the study. The effects the drug has on humans including how its absorbed, metabolized and excreted are studied. Approximately 70% of the drugs pass this phase.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
Which vessel is the first to branch from the external carotid artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior thyroid artery
Explanation:The superior thyroid artery is the first branch of the external carotid artery. The other branches of the external carotid artery are:
1. Superior thyroid artery
2. Ascending pharyngeal artery
3. Lingual artery
4. Facial artery
5. Occipital artery
6. Posterior auricular artery
7. Maxillary artery
8. Superficial temporal arteryThe inferior thyroid artery is derived from the thyrocervical trunk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true about the bispectral index (BIS)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sevoflurane lowers BIS more than ketamine
Explanation:The bispectral index (BIS) monitors works to determine the level of consciousness of a patient by processing electroencephalographic (EEG) signals to obtain a value between 0 and 100, where 0 reflects no brain activity, and 100 reflects a patient is completely awake.
The general meaning of BIS values are:
>95: Patient is in an awake state.
65-85: Patient is in a sedated state.
40-65: Patient is in a state that is optimal for general surgery.
<40: Patient is in a deep hypnotic state It is important in measuring the depths of anaesthesia to prevent haemodynamic changes or patient awareness during surgery. The nature of anaesthetic agent used is a determinant factor in resultant BIS values. Intravenous agents, such as propofol, thiopental and midazolam, result in a deeper hypnotic state, whilst inhalation agents have a lesser hypnotic effect at the same BIS values. Certain agents result in inaccurate BIS values such as ketamine and nitrous oxide (NO). These two agents appear to increase the BIS value, whilst putting the patient in a deeper hypnotic state, and should therefore not be used with BIS monitoring. Hypothermia also affects the BIS value as it causes a 1.12 per °C decrease in body temperature. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old female has presented to her physician with complaints of a lump in her groin area. The lump is painless and is more prominent in coughing.
On examination, the lump's location is inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle. This points towards the diagnosis of femoral hernia, where part of her intestines has entered the femoral canal, causing a bulge in the femoral triangle. The femoral triangle is an anatomical region in the upper thigh.
Name the structures found in the femoral triangle, laterally to medially.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics
Explanation:The femoral triangle is a wedge-shaped area found within the superomedial aspect of the anterior thigh. It is a passageway for structures to leave and enter the anterior thigh.
Superior: Inguinal ligament
Medial: Adductor longus
Lateral: Sartorius
Floor: Iliopsoas, adductor longus and pectineusThe contents include: (medial to lateral)
Femoral vein
Femoral artery-pulse palpated at the mid inguinal point
Femoral nerve
Deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Lateral cutaneous nerve
Great saphenous vein
Femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
Regarding the carbon dioxide monitoring, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbon dioxide absorbs infrared radiation at 4.28 µm
Explanation:Carbon dioxide (CO2), is a carbonic gas made up of two dissimilar atoms, namely one carbon atom and two oxygen atoms. Capnography is a technique used to measure carbon dioxide during a respiratory cycle, and it consists in calculating the concentration of the partial pressure of CO2, through the absorption of the infrared light, namely that CO2 absorbs infrared radiation at a wavelength of 4.28 µm.
End-tidal CO2 (ETCO2), referring to the level of the carbon dioxide released at the end of an exhaled breath, is required to be continuously monitored, especially in ventilated patients, as it is a sensitive and a non invasive technique that provides immediate information about ventilation, circulation, and metabolism functions. ETCO2 is normally lower than the arterial partial pressure and varies between 0.6 and 0.7 kPa.
There are two methods used to measure carbon dioxide. The sidestream capnometer method samples gases at a set flow rate (150-200 mL/min) from a sampling area through small diameter tubing, and the mainstream analyser method that uses a direct measurement of the patient exhaled CO2 by a relatively large and heavy sensors. Sidestram method allows the analysis of multiple gases and anaesthetic vapours comparing to the mainstream method that does not allow the measurement of other gases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man presents worried about his risk of motor neurone disease. No symptoms have developed, but his father suffered from motor neurone disease. Recently, his cousin has also been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. He searched the internet for screening tests for motor neurone disease and found a blood test called ‘neuron’, and requests to have it done. You search this blood test and find a prospective study going on evaluating the potential benefits of this blood test. On average, this test diagnosed patients with the disease 8 months earlier than the patients who are diagnosed on the basis of their clinical symptoms. The patients diagnosed using this neuron test also survived, on average, 48 months from the diagnosis, whereas the patients diagnosed clinically survived an average of 39 months from the diagnosis. Considering the clear benefits, you decide to have it done on the patient.
Which of the following options best relate to the above scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lead-time bias
Explanation:Hypochondriasis is an illness anxiety disorder, and describes excessively worriedness about the presence of a disease. While the woman is concerned about her possibility of developing motor neurone disease, she understands that no symptoms have yet appeared. Hypochondriasis involves patients who refuse to accept that they don’t have the disease, even if the results come back negative.
Late Look Bias occurs when the data is gathered or analysed at an inappropriate time e.g. when many of the subjects suffering from a fatal disease have died. This type of biasness might occur in some retrospective studies of motor neurone disease, but is not applicable to this prospective study.
In procedure bias, the researcher decides assignment of a treatment versus control and assigns particular patients to one group or the other non-randomly. This is unlikely to have occurred in this case, although it is not mentioned specifically. Of all the options, lead time-bias is a better answer.
The Hawthorne Effect refers to groups modifying their behaviour simply because they are aware of being observed. Any differences in the behaviour have not been mentioned in the question, and it is highly unlikely that a change in patient’s behaviour would have affected their length of survival in this case.
The correct option is lead-time bias. Even if the new blood test diagnoses the disease earlier, it doesn’t affect the outcome, as the survival time was still on average 43 months from the onset of symptoms in both groups. With the help of blood test, the disease was only detected 8 months earlier.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Sucralfate is an octasulfate of glucose to which Al(OH)3 has been added. It undergoes extensive cross-linking in an acidic environment and forms a polymer which adheres to the ulcer base for up to 6 hours and protects it from further erosion. Since it is not systemically absorbed it is virtually devoid of side effects. However, it may cause constipation in about 2% of cases due to the Aluminium component in it.
Sucralfate does not have antibacterial action against Helicobacter pylori. However, Bismuth has antibacterial action due to its oligodynamic effect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
Health workers are at increased risks of anaesthetic exposure. Therefore, The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations require measures implemented to assess and control the risks related to this exposure.
Among the following control measures, which one is most likely to limit potentially harmful exposure to anaesthetic agents within an operating theatre?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA)
Explanation:Exposure to anaesthetic hazards is one among the occupational exposures in manipulating toxic agents or inhaling toxic gases during anaesthetic practices.
Toxic gases mainly nitrous oxide, is one of the most gaseous anaesthetic agents that constitutes an important source of pollution. One of the safe and effective technics used in anaesthesia and reducing the amount of pollution is the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia (TIVA) which consists of using opioids in analgesia and propofol for the induction and the maintenance of anaesthesia. It refers to the administration intravenously of an anaesthetic, sedative, and/or tranquilizer. A less polluting but not the best way to get rid of the toxic aesthetic agents is the scavenger system that collects and expels the gas outside the medical environment. Yet, this technique still represents a hazard for the environment and still increase the risk of exposure for the health workers and clinical staff.
Fume cupboards are also not recommended to use because of their high pollution potency, mainly of the air resulting in a great harm for medical workers.
Supraglottic airways as well as the Air Changes per Hour technics could be harmful for both patients and health workers, increasing the risks of transmitted diseases, namely nosocomial infections.
Therefore, the Total Intravenous Anaesthesia technique (TIVA) is most likely to be safe and recommended to use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
A 76-year-old man, presents to his general practitioner with a lump in his left groin. Upon examination, his doctor is able to diagnose a direct inguinal hernia. There are many structures present in the inguinal canal.
Where is the ilioinguinal nerve located in relation to the spermatic cord?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior to the spermatic cord
Explanation:The answer is anterior to the spermatic cord.
The inguinal canal in men contains the ilioinguinal nerve, the genitofemoral nerve and the spermatic cord.
The ilioinguinal nerve arises of the L1 nerve root with the Iliohypogastric nerve, before entering the inguinal canal from the side, through the muscles of the abdomen, travelling superficial to the spermatic cord.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent:
Effective dose 95 (ED95) - 0.3 mg/kg
Time to 95% depression of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 75 seconds
Time to 25% recovery of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 33 minutes.
Which of the following statements about this neuromuscular blocking agent is the most accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can be reversed by a modified gamma-cyclodextrin
Explanation:The aminosteroid rocuronium is the neuromuscular blocking agent in question.
0.3 mg/kg is the effective dose 95 (ED95) (the dose required to depress the twitch height by 95 percent )
The dose for intubation is 0.6 mg/kg.
75 seconds is the time it takes to reach 95 percent depression of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) or the onset time.
The clinical duration or time to 25% recovery of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) is 33 minutes.A modified cyclodextrin can quickly reverse both rocuronium and vecuronium (sugammadex).
It is more fat-soluble than vecuronium, with the liver absorbing the majority of the drug and excreting it in the bile. The only metabolite found in the blood (17-desacetylrocuronium) is 20 times less potent than the parent drug and is unlikely to cause neuromuscular block.
Despite its quick onset of action (60-90 seconds), suxamethonium arguably is still the neuromuscular blocker of choice for a quick sequence induction. Rocuronium is becoming increasingly popular for this purpose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his limbs.
History revealed that he was placed under anaesthesia for a major surgery 12 hours prior to the referral. Other symptoms were noted such as anxiousness, agitation, and fever of 38°C. Upon physical examination, he was tachycardic at 119 beats per minute. Moreover, his medical history showed that he was on Fluoxetine for clinical depression.
The nurses reported that, because of his frequent complaints of axillary pain, he was given tramadol with paracetamol.
Which of the following is responsible for his clinical features?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Tramadol is weak agonist at the mu receptor. It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, and inhibits pain neurotransmission. It is given for moderate pain, chronic pain syndromes, and neuropathic pain.
Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin by inhibiting the serotonin transporter (SERT). It is the drug of choice for major depressive disorder, and is given for other psychiatric disorders such as anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, post-traumatic stress, and phobias.
When tramadol is given with SSRIs, serotonin syndrome may occur. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by fever, agitation, tremors, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. The onset of symptoms may occur within a few hours, and the first-line treatment is sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
Which statement most accurately describes the action of increasing the gain in ultrasound imaging?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amplifies the returning signal
Explanation:A higher frequency ultrasound comes with a better resolution of the digital image. Ultrasound with a frequency of 15 MHz is best used in imaging of superficial organs such as the thyroid gland, muscles, tendons and breasts whereas deep organs are better imaged using a lower frequency of 2-7MHz because of its ability for deeper penetration but lower resolution. These low frequency probes are also used to diagnose ascites, pleural effusions or can be used in echocardiography.
The US probe emits and then absorbs a reflected wave. Similar to brightness control, increasing the gain will amplify the return signal which is then attenuated by the tissue. This increases the signal to noise ratio.
A high frame rate, which basically means the number of times an image is updated onto the screen per second, improves the resolution of a moving 3D image which has become more accurate as the computing power has increased.Widening of the image field can be obtained by altering the penetration depth which is obtained by changing the frequency of the US beam
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 19-year-old woman presents to the emergency department. She complains of symptoms indicative of an acute exacerbation of known 'brittle' asthma. On history, she reveals her asthma is normally controlled using inhalers and she has never had an acute exacerbation requiring hospitalisation.
On her admission into the ICU, further examination and diagnostic investigations are conducted. Her readings are:
Physical state: Alert, anxious and non-cyanotic.
Respiratory rate: 30 breaths/min
Pulse: 120 beats/min
Blood pressure: 150/90 mmHg
SPO2: 95% on air
Auscultation: Quiet breath sounds at both lung bases
What is the next most important step of investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate
Explanation:Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is the maximum speed of air flow generated during a single forced exhaled breath. It is most useful when expressed as a percentage of the best value obtained from the patient.
Forced expiratory volume over 1 second (FEV1) is a lung parameter measured using spirometry. It is the amount of air forced out of the lung in one exhaled breath. It is a more accurate measure of lung obstructions as it doesn’t rely on effort like PEFR
PEFR and FEV1 are usually similar, but become more different in asthmatic patients as airflow becomes increasingly obstructed.
Acute severe asthma is most often diagnosed on history taking and examinations:
Respiratory rate: >25 breaths/min
Heart rate: >110 beats/min
PEFR: 33 – 50% predicted (<200L/min)
Patient state: Unable to complete a sentence in a single breath.A chest x-ray is not routinely required, and is only indicated in specific circumstances, which are:
If a pneumomediastinum or pneumothorax is suspected
Possible life threatening asthma
Possible consolidation
Unresponsive asthma
If ventilation is required.An echocardiograph (ECG) is not necessary in this case
Routine haematological and biochemical investigations are not urgent in this case as any abnormalities they detect will be secondary to the patient’s presentation.
An arterial blood gas (ABG) will only be indicated if SPO2 was <92% or if patient presented with life threatening symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sympathomimetic effects work mainly through ?1 but also ? receptors
Explanation:Noradrenaline acts as a sympathomimetic effect via alpha as well as a beta receptor. However, they have weak ?2 action.
Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
Because this benzodiazepine has a half-life of 2-4 hours, it is preferred for clinical use.
This benzodiazepine has which of the following properties that no other benzodiazepine has?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is water soluble at a pH of 3.5 and lipid soluble at a pH of 7.4
Explanation:Midazolam is the benzodiazepine in question. It’s the only benzodiazepine that undergoes tautomeric transformation (dynamic isomerism). The molecule is ionised and water soluble at pH 3.5, but when injected into the body at pH 7.4, it becomes unionised and lipid soluble, allowing it to easily pass through the blood brain barrier.
The half-life of midazolam is only 2-4 hours.
It is a GABAA receptor agonist because it is a benzodiazepine. GABAA receptors are found in abundance throughout the central nervous system, particularly in the cerebral cortex, hippocampus, thalamus, basal ganglia, and limbic system. GABAA receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, with the inhibitory neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid as the endogenous agonist. It is a pentameric protein (2, 2 and one subunit) that spans the cell membrane, and when the agonist interacts with the alpha subunit, a conformational change occurs, allowing chloride ions to enter the cell, resulting in neuronal hyperpolarization.
For status epilepticus, midazolam is not the drug of choice. Lorazepam is the benzodiazepine of choice for status epilepticus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
With a cervical dilation of 9 cm, a 23-year-old term primigravida is in labour. She is otherwise in good health. She's been in labour for 14 hours and counting.
Early foetal pulse decelerations can be seen on the cardiotocograph, and a recent foetal scalp blood sample revealed a pH of 7.25.
Which of the following is true about this patient's care and management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monitor for downward trend in fetal scalp blood pH as caesarean section is not indicated at the present time
Explanation:Once the decision to deliver a baby by caesarean section has been made, it should be carried out with a level of urgency commensurate with the risk to the baby and the mother’s safety.
There are four types of caesarean section urgency:
Category 1 – Endangering the life of the mother or the foetus
Category 2 – Maternal or foetal compromise that is not immediately life threatening
Category 3 – Early delivery is required, but there is no risk to the mother or the foetus.
Category 4: Elective delivery at a time that is convenient for both the mother and the maternity staff.Caesarean sections for categories 1 and 2 should be performed as soon as possible after the decision is made, especially for category 1. For category 1 caesarean sections, a decision to deliver time of 30 minutes is currently used.
In most cases, Category 2 caesarean sections should be performed within 75 minutes of making the decision.
The condition of the woman and the unborn baby should be considered when making a decision for a quick delivery, as it may be harmful in some cases.
There is no evidence of foetal compromise in the example above (early foetal pulse decelerations and a pH of less than 7.25). Early foetal pulse decelerations are most likely caused by the uterus compressing the foetal head. The foetus is not harmed by these. A spinal anaesthetic is preferred over a general anaesthetic whenever possible.
If the foetal scalp blood pH is greater than 7.25, it’s a good idea to repeat the test later and look for any changes. When a foetus decelerates, the mother should be given oxygen, kept in a left lateral position, and kept hydrated to avoid the need for a caesarean section.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements about a cervical rib is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It originates from the 7th cervical vertebra
Explanation:The costal elements of the seventh cervical vertebrae form projections known as cervical ribs, which are present in approximately 0.5% – 1 % individuals.
A cervical rib commonly comprises of a head, neck and tubercle. The body of the rib varies from person to person. It extends into the posterior triangle of the neck, where it is either free anteriorly, or attached to the first rib / sternum.
Patients with a cervical rib mostly are asymptomatic and it is usually diagnosed as an incidental finding on chest x-ray. However, in some cases, the subclavian artery and the lower trunk of the brachial plexus are compressed where they pass over the cervical rib. This leads to a condition known as ”neurovascular compression syndrome,” in which these neurovascular structures are compressed between the cervical rib and scalenus anterior.
The most common cause of neurogenic symptoms in approximately 80% of the patients with cervical rib is neck trauma.
In most cases, the tingling, numbness and impaired circulation to the upper limb appears only after puberty. This is because the neck elongates, and the shoulders droop slightly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements about dopamine are FALSE except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and ?1 (but not ?2 )agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate).
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct ?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier – no Central nervous system effects.
Dopamine is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline
Regarding dopamine part of the dose is converted to Noradrenaline in sympathetic nerve terminals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
Which of the following vertebral levels is the site where the aorta perforates the diaphragm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T12
Explanation:The diaphragm divides the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. Structures penetrate the diaphragm at different vertebral levels through openings in the diaphragm to communicate between the two cavities. The diaphragm has openings at three vertebral levels:
T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
Regarding adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) one of these is true.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is increased in the maternal plasma in pregnancy
Explanation:ACTH production is stimulated through the secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamic nuclei.
ACTH secretion has a circadian rhythm. A high level of cortisol in the body stops its production. ACTH is secreted maximally in the morning and concentrations are lowest at midnight.
ACTH can be expressed in the placenta, the pituitary and other tissues.
Conditions where ACTH concentrations rise include: stress, disease and pregnancy.
Glucocorticoids (not mineralocorticoids – aldosterone) switch off ACTH production through a negative feedback loop .
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
In North America, there have been reports of paediatric patients dying after undergoing adenotonsillectomy for obstructive sleep apnoea.
Respiratory depression/obstruction is thought to be the cause of death. The codeine dose was 0.5-1 mg/kg, given every 4-6 hours.
In this group of patients, which of the following is the most likely cause of respiratory depression and obstruction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exaggerated metabolism of codeine
Explanation:Codeine is easily absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and converted to morphine and norcodeine in the liver via O- and N-demethylation. Morphine and norcodeine are excreted almost entirely by the kidney, primarily as conjugates with glucuronic acid.
By glucuronidation, phase II metabolism enzyme UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-2B7 converts morphine to morphine-3-glucuronide (M3G) and morphine-6-glucuronide (M6G) (UGT2B7).
Approximately 60% of morphine is converted to M3G, with the remaining 6-10% converted to M6G. M3G is inactive, but M6G is said to be 4 to 650 times more potent on the MOP receptor than morphine.
When codeine is consumed, cytochrome P450 2D6 in the liver converts it to morphine (CYP2D6).
Some people have DNA variations that increase the activity of this enzyme, causing codeine to be converted to morphine more quickly and completely than in others. After taking codeine, these ultra-rapid metabolisers are more likely to have higher than normal levels of morphine in their blood.
Respiratory depression/obstruction can be caused by high levels of morphine and M6G, especially in people who have a history of obstructive sleep apnoea. The estimated number of ultra-rapid metabolisers ranges from 1 to 7 per 100 people, but some ethnic groups may have as many as 28 per 100 people.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
Out of the following, which therapy for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma has been NOT been approved in recent guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heliox
Explanation:Recommendations from the British Thoracic Society for acute severe asthma or life-threatening asthma are:
1. Give controlled supplementary oxygen to all hypoxemic patients with acute severe asthma titrated to maintain a SpOâ‚‚ level of 94 98%.
2. Use high-dose inhaled ?â‚‚ agonists as first-line agents in patients with acute asthma and administer them as early as possible. Reserve
intravenous ?â‚‚ agonists for those patients in whom inhaled therapy cannot be used reliably.
3. Give steroids in adequate doses to all patients with an acute asthma attack.
4. Add nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg 4–6 hourly) to ?₂ agonist treatment for acute severe or life-threatening asthma or those with a poor initial response to ?₂ agonist therapy.
5. Consider aminophylline for children with severe or life-threatening asthma unresponsive to maximal doses of bronchodilators and steroids.A review (including 12 case reports, three RCTs, and five other observational studies) of ketamine use in adults and children in status asthmaticus reported that ketamine is a potential bronchodilator. Still, prospective trials are needed before conclusions about effectiveness can be drawn.
Heliox has no place in the current guidelines issued by the British Thoracic Society.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
The structure most likely to be damaged during cannulation of the subclavian vein is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subclavian artery
Explanation:The subclavian artery lies behind and partly above the subclavian vein. 3-4% of the time, it can be inadvertently cannulated during cannulation of the subclavian vein
Because of its anatomical position, putting pressure on the subclavian artery is impossible so arresting bleeding with pressure when it is punctured is not viable.
One of the consequences of subclavian vein cannulation (1%) is pleural puncture leading to a pneumothorax. This is because the apical pleura is inferior and caudal to the subclavian vein.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
An 80 year old woman is due for cataract surgery.
There are no contraindications to regional anaesthesia so a peribulbar block was performed. 8mls of 2% lidocaine was injected using an infratemporal approach. However, there is still movement of the globe after 5 mins.
The least likely extraocular muscle to develop akinesia is:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior oblique
Explanation:The fibrotendinous ring formed by the congregation of the rectus muscles at the apex of the orbit does not include superior oblique. This muscle is completely outside the ring and so it is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely. A good grasp of the anatomy of the area being anaesthetised is important with all regional anaesthetic techniques so that potential problems and complications with a block can be anticipated.
The borders of this pyramid whose apex points upwards and outwards of the bony orbit are as follows:
Floor – Zygoma and Maxilla
Roof – frontal bone
Medial wall – maxilla, ethmoid, sphenoid and lacrimal bones.
Lateral wall – greater wing of the sphenoid and the zygoma.The four recti muscles (superior, medial, lateral and inferior) originate from a tendinous ring (the annulus of Zinn) and extend anteriorly to insert beyond the equator of the globe. Bands of connective tissue are present between the rectus muscles forming a conical structure and hinder the passage of local anaesthetic.
The superior oblique muscle is situated outside this ring and is the most difficult muscle to anaesthetise completely, particularly with a single inferotemporal peribulbar injection. An additional medial injection may help to prevent this.
The cranial nerve supply to the extraocular muscles are:
3rd (inferior oblique, inferior recti, medial and superior)
4th (superior oblique), and
6th (lateral rectus).The long and short ciliary nerves provide the sensory supply to the globe and these are branches of the nasociliary nerve, (which is itself a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve).
To achieve anaesthesia for the eye, these nerves which enter the fibrotendinous ring need to be fully blocked to anaesthetise the eye for surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
Among the following options which one compares variance within the group and variance between groups?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ANOVA
Explanation:ANOVA is based upon within group variance (i.e. the variance of the mean of a sample) and between group variance (i.e. the variance between means of different samples). The test works by finding out the ratio of the two variances mentioned above. (Commonly known as F statistic).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
Which of the following closely estimates the interstitial oncotic pressure acting on a pulmonary capillary?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 17 mmHg
Explanation:The starling forces operate to maintain a homeostatic flow across the pulmonary capillary bed.
The outward driving force comprises of the capillary hydrostatic pressure (13 mmHg), negative interstitial fluid pressure (zero to slightly negative), and interstitial colloid osmotic pressure (17 mmHg). The inward driving force is controlled by the plasma colloid osmotic pressure (25 mmHg).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
A current flows through a simple electric circuit.
Which of the following electrical component configurations has the greatest potential difference?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Two 5 ohm resistors in series with a passing current of 10 ampere
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
Comparing pressure-volume curves in patients during an asthma attack with that of healthy subjects.
The increased resistive work of breathing in the patients with asthma is best indicated by?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Larger hysteresis loop
Explanation:A major source of caloric expenditure and oxygen consumption in the body is work of breathing (WOB) and 70% of this is to overcome elastic forces. The remaining 30% is for flow-resistive work
In a normal patient breathing normally, the total area of hysteresis pressure volume curve represents the flow-resistive WOB.
The area of the expiratory resistive work increases during an asthma attack making the compliance curve larger in area. The larger the area the greater the work required to breathe.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man has a swelling in his left groin with moderate pain and discomfort complaints. Diagnosed with an inguinal hernia, he is scheduled for elective surgery to repair the defect.
Of the following, which nerve runs in the inguinal canal and is at risk of being damaged during surgery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve
Explanation:The inguinal canal is a passage in the lower anterior abdominal wall just above the inguinal ligament. It transmits the following structures:
1. genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
2. ilioinguinal nerve
3. spermatic cord (males only)
4. round ligament of the uterus (females only)The ilioinguinal is a direct branch of the first lumbar nerve. The ilioinguinal nerve enters the inguinal canal via the abdominal musculature (and not through the deep (internal) inguinal ring) and exits through the superficial (or external) inguinal ring.
The openings for the other nerves in the answer options are:
Sciatic nerve – exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen
Obturator nerve – descends into pelvis via the obturator foramen
Femoral nerve – descends from the abdomen through the pelvis behind the inguinal canalThe Iliohypogastric nerve also arises from the first lumbar root with the ilioinguinal nerve but pierces the transversus abdominis muscle posteriorly, just above the iliac crest, and continues anteriorly between the transversus abdominis and the internal abdominal oblique muscles.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following lies above the cephalic vein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of the above
Explanation:The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. It overlies most of the fascial planes as it is located in the superficial fascia along the anterolateral surface of the biceps.
It originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the superficial venous network of the dorsum of the hand. It travels laterally up the arm to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.
Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
During 2015 it was reported in the New England Journal of Medicine that the usage of empagliflozin(a sodium-glucose-co-transporter 2 inhibitor) caused a decrease in the cardiovascular deaths, non fatal heart attacks and strokes in patients suffering from type 2 diabetes. The results were published per 1000 patient years. With the above mentioned drug, the event rate turned out to be 37.3/1000 patient years whereas the placebo had an event rate of 43.9/1000 patient years.
How many further patients need to be treated with empagliflozin to avoid any further incidence of cardiovascular death or non fatal myocardial infraction and non fatal stroke?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 150
Explanation:Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.
It can be found as:
NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).
where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)
So,
ARR= (43.9-37.3)
ARR= 6.6
NNT= 1000/6.6
NNT=151.5
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 71
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements best describes adenosine receptors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Adenosine receptors are expressed on the surface of most cells.
Four subtypes are known to exist which are A1, A2A, A2B and A3.Of these, the A1 and A2 receptors are present peripherally and centrally. There are agonists at the A1 receptors which are antinociceptive, which reduce the sensitivity to a painful stimuli for the individual. There are also agonists at the A2 receptors which are algogenic and activation of these results in pain.
The role of adenosine and other A1 receptor agonists is currently under investigation for use in acute and chronic pain states.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the coronary care unit. She has been diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and has gone into a cardiogenic shock. As part of her treatment, she is prescribed a dobutamine infusion and placed on full haemodynamic monitoring.
Over the next four days, her measurement are:
Day1 Day2 Day3 Day4
Infusion rate of dobutamine (mcg/kg/min): 5 10 15 25
Cardiac output (L/min): 3.4 3.2 3.1 3.2
Pulse rate (beats/min): 110 112 105 100
Blood pressure (mmHg): 80/60 75/61 83/60 81/56
Haemodynamic changes are noted as a result of response to treatment. What is the most probable cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tolerance by down-regulation of beta1 receptors
Explanation:Tachyphylaxis is the swiftly declining response to successive drug doses which vastly reduces its effectiveness in a short space of time, mostly as a result of an acute consumption of neurotransmitters.
Tolerance or desensitisation is the slow decline in a person’s reaction to a drug due to continued use. It requires a longer time span than tachyphylaxis, usually over days or weeks.
Down- regulation is a reduction in the amount of receptors available on target cells which decreases the affinity of the agent to the cells. For this to occur, the down-regulation of receptors must occur at a rate faster than receptor synthesis. This down-regulation often occurs with beta1 receptors due to:
1) The transportation or receptors from the cell surface to the interior of the cell
2) Degradation of receptors occurring over time.
In this case, dobutamine is prescribed to treat cardiogenic shock. It is able to function by binding to beta1-adrenergic receptors to increase the contraction of the heart, thereby improving cardiac output. It also binds to beta2- and alpha1-adrenergic receptors to balance out the effects produced by binding to beta1 receptors and reduce the risk of system vasculature responses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play a role in determining the gas's identity within a cylinder.
Which of the following options best describes a cylinder containing analgesics for obstetrics?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blue body, blue/white shoulder, full cylinder; 13700 KPa, gas mixture, requires a dual stage pressure regulator
Explanation:The body of the Entonox cylinder is usually blue (occasionally white), with blue and white shoulders. Entonox contains a 50:50 mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with a full cylinder pressure of 13700 KPa (137 bar). The cylinder is equipped with a two-stage pressure regulator for safe operation.
The cylinder body and shoulder of nitrous oxide are (French) blue.
In today’s anaesthetic workstations, carbon dioxide cylinders are no longer used.
The body of an oxygen cylinder is black, with a white shoulder.
The white Heliox (21 percent oxygen and 79 percent helium) cylinder has a brown and white shoulder. The administration of this gas mixture, which is less dense than air, is used to reduce turbulence (stridor) of inspiratory flow in patients with upper airway obstruction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
At what site would you palpate to assess the posterior tibial pulse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behind and below the medial ankle
Explanation:The posterior tibial artery originates from the popliteal artery in the popliteal fossa. It passes posterior to the popliteus muscle to pierce the soleus muscle. It descends between the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles.
The posterior tibial artery supplies blood to the posterior compartment of the lower limb. The artery can be palpated posterior to the medial malleolus.
There are 4 main pulse points for the lower limb:
1. Femoral pulse 2-3 cm below the mid-inguinal point
2. Popliteal partially flexed knee to loosen the popliteal fascia
3. Posterior tibial behind and below the medial ankle
4. Dorsal pedis dorsum of the foot over the navicular bone -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
After a bariatric surgery, average weight loss observed in patients is 18 kg. The standard deviation was found to be 3 kg. What is the percentage of patients that lie between 9 and 27 kg?
Note: Assume that the curve is normally distributed.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 99.70%
Explanation:9 & 27 can be obtained by subtracting and adding 9 from the mean. 9 is three times the standard deviation and we know that 99.7% values lie within 3 standard deviations from the mean. We can find the interval for 99.7% to verify in the following way:
For 99.7% confidence interval, you can find the range as follows:
1. Multiply the standard error by 3.
2. Subtract the answer from mean value to get the lower limit.
3. Add the answer obtained in step 1 from the mean value to get the upper limit.
4. The range turns out to be 9-27 kg.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
Which of the following may indicate an inadequate reversal of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post tetanic count of 5
Explanation:A post-tetanic count of 5 denotes a deep neuromuscular blockade.
Post tetanic count (PTC) is a well-established method of evaluating neuromuscular recovery during intense neuromuscular blockade. It cam ne used when there is no response to single twitch, tetanic, or train-of-four (TOF) stimulation to assess the intensity of neuromuscular blockade and to estimate the duration after which the first twitch in the TOF (T1) is likely to reappear.
During a nondepolarizing block, the high frequency of tetanic stimulation will induce a transient increase in the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic nerve ending, such that the intensity of subsequent muscle contractions will be increased (potentiated) briefly (period of post-tetanic potentiation, which may last 2 to 5 min. The neuromuscular response to stimulation during post tetanic potentiation can be used to gauge the depth of block when TOF stimulation otherwise evokes no responses. The number of post tetanic responses is inversely proportional to the depth of block: fewer post tetanic contractions denote a deeper block. When the post tetanic count (PTC) is 6 to 8, recovery to TOF count = 1 is likely imminent from an intermediate-duration blocking agent; when the PTC is 0, the depth of block is profound, and no additional NMBA should be administered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypomagnesaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Causes tetany
Explanation:The ECG changes seen in hypomagnesaemia include:
Prolonged PR interval
Prolonged QT interval
Flattening of T waves
ST segment depression
Prominent U wavesThese changes are almost the same as those of hypokalaemia.
There is an increased risk of digoxin toxicity and a risk of atrial and ventricular ectopic and ventricular arrhythmias.
There is impaired synthesis and release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in chronic hypomagnesaemia leading to impaired target organ response to PTH. This produces secondary hypocalcaemia.
The use of potassium ‘wasting’ diuretics (e.g. loop diuretics like furosemide) may lead to Hypomagnesaemia.
A tall T wave is seen in hypermagnesemia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
In the erect position, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli (PAO2) is higher in the apical lung units than in the basal lung units.
What is the most significant reason for this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The V/Q ratio of apical units is greater than that of basal units
Explanation:In any alveolar unit, the V/Q ratio affects alveolar oxygen (PAO2) and carbon dioxide tension (PACO2).
The partial pressure of alveolar carbon dioxide (PACO2) is plotted against the partial pressure of alveolar oxygen in a Ventilation-Perfusion (V/Q) ratio graph (PAO2). Given a set of model assumptions, the curve represents all of the possible values for PACO2 and PAO2 that an individual alveolus could have.
In the case of an infinity V/Q ratio (ventilation but no perfusion or dead space), the PACO2 of the alveolus will equal zero, while the PAO2 will approach that of external air (150mmmHg). At the apex of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 3.3, compared to 0.67 at the base.
PACO2 and PAO2 approach the partial pressures for these gases in the venous blood when the V/Q ratio is zero (no ventilation but perfusion). At the base of the lung, the V/Q ratio is 0.67, whereas at the apex, it is 3.3.
PAO2 at the apex is typically 132mmHg, and PACO2 is typically 28mmHg.
The average PAO2 at the base is 89 mmHg, while the average PACO2 is 42 mmHg.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
Suppose the afterload and myocardial contractility remain unchanged, which of the following factors in the pressure-volume loop indicates an increase in the preload of the left ventricle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased end-diastolic volume
Explanation:If the afterload and myocardiac contractility remains unchanged, an increase in the preload can be attributed to an increase in end-diastolic volume.
Preload can be defined as the initial stretching of the cardiac myocytes prior to contraction. Preload, therefore, is related to muscle sarcomere length. Because sarcomere length cannot be determined in the intact heart, other indices of preload are used such as ventricular end-diastolic volume or pressure. When venous return to the heart is increased, the end-diastolic pressure and volume of the ventricles are increased, which stretches the sarcomeres, thereby increasing their preload.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) can be used to investigate the function of the heart in patients with suspected heart failure. The aim is to measure the ejection fraction, but to do that, the stroke volume must first be measured. How is stroke volume calculated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: End diastolic volume - end systolic volume
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes
Explanation:Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.
Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.
The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.
The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.
The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.
Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic ​in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 82
Incorrect
-
The arterial-venous oxygen (a-vO2) difference is the difference between the oxygen content of arterial blood (CaO2) and mixed-venous blood (CvO2).
At rest, which organ has the greatest a-vO2 difference?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heart
Explanation:At rest, the heart has the greatest a-vO2 difference, a high capillary to myocyte ratio, short diffusion distances, and a high mitochondrial density. The flow of blood through the coronary arteries is also tightly controlled. At rest, 70-80 percent of the oxygen available to the cardiac muscle is extracted, increasing to 90 percent during exercise.
The a-vO2 difference indicates the body’s or an individual organ’s ability to extract oxygen from the blood.
CaO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including Hb concentration, PaO2 and pulmonary diffusion capacity.
CvO2 is influenced by a number of factors, including capillary density, regional blood flow, heart, resting skeletal muscle, kidney, intestine and skin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
It was hypothesized that people that had lower socio economic status were more prone to developing gastric cancer. After 30 years of studying people with lower socio economic status, it was found that they did have a greater tendency to develop cancer. As a result of that the authors got to the conclusion that a strong association existed between the two. Later on another study conducted found that people from lower socio economic back grounds also had a tendency to be smokers.
Which form of potential bias can be associated with this particular study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Confounding bias
Explanation:Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved and is often a result of in efficient recruiting method.
Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.
Measurement bias can be characterized by gathering of information in a manner that is distorted.
When the participants of a research study are recruited from the hospitals rather than the general population, its called Berkson Bias.
Confounding bias is the major player here because in this case the effects of smoking can be masked behind and can be read as outcomes of lower socio economic status. This extraneous factor (Smoking), distorts the founding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old girl complained of severe abdominal pain and hematemesis and was rushed into the emergency department. She has an increased heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/65. She has a history of taking Naproxen for her Achilles tendinopathy. On urgent endoscopy, she is diagnosed with a bleeding peptic ulcer.
The immediate treatment is to permanently stop the bleeding by performing embolization of the left gastric artery via an angiogram.
What level of the vertebra will be used as a radiological marker for the origin of the artery that supplies the left gastric artery during the angiogram?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T12
Explanation:The left gastric artery is the smallest branch that originates from the coeliac trunk—the coeliac trunk branches of the abdominal aorta at the vertebral level of T12.
The left gastric artery runs along the superior portion of the lesser curvature of the stomach. A peptic ulcer that is serious enough to erode through the stomach mucosa into a branch of the left gastric artery can cause massive blood loss in the stomach, leading to hematemesis. The patient also takes Naproxen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is a common cause for peptic ulcers in otherwise healthy patients.
The left gastric artery is responsible for 85% of upper GI bleeds. In cases refractory to initial treatment, angiography is sometimes needed to embolise the vessel at its origin and stop bleeding. During an angiogram, the radiologist will enter the aorta via the femoral artery, ascend to the level of the 12th vertebrae and then enter the left gastric artery via the coeliac trunk.
The important landmarks of vessels arising from the abdominal aorta at different levels of vertebrae are:
T12 – Coeliac trunk
L1 – Left renal artery
L2 – Testicular or ovarian arteries
L3 – Inferior mesenteric artery
L4 – Bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
Levels of serum potassium in around 1000 patients that were on ACE inhibitor were measured. The mean value was calculated to be 4.6mmol/L and a standard deviation of 0.3mmol/L was recorded.
Which among the given options is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 68.3% of values lie between 4.3 and 4.9 mmol/l
Explanation:Its known that 68.3% of the total values of a normally distributed variable are found within a range of 1 standard deviation from the mean which makes the range to be 4.3 to 4.9 mmol/L.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 86
Incorrect
-
A controlled retrospective study's level of evidence is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Level 3
Explanation:Level 1 – High-quality randomised controlled trial with statistically significant difference or no statistically significant difference but narrow confidence intervals (prospective controlled)
Level 2 – Prospective comparative study (prospective uncontrolled)
Level 3 – Case-control study, retrospective comparative study (retrospective controlled)
Level 4 – Case series (retrospective uncontrolled)
Level 5 – Expert opinion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
A 61-year-old woman, present to her general practitioner. She complains of a severe lancinating pain in her forehead that only last a few seconds, possibly triggered by washing her face, occurring over the previous six weeks.
On examination, she is normal with no other signs or symptoms.
Which nerve is the most likely cause of her pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sensory branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
Explanation:Her symptoms are suggestive of trigeminal neuralgia which is a short, sudden, severe sharp unilateral pain in the facial region. The pain often follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve (CN V).
The trigeminal nerve gives rise to 3 sensory and 1 motor nuclei. Neuralgia can arise from any of the 3 sensory divisions.
The ophthalmic division gives rise to 3 further sensory branches, which are the frontal, lacrimal and nasociliary.
The frontal branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve is responsible for the innervation of the area in question.
The superior alveolar dental, zygomatic and sphenopalatine nerves are all branches arising from the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve.
The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve provides sensory and motor innervation. The sensory innervation is carried out by the auriculotemporal nerve which supplies the lower third of the face, while the motor fibres are responsible for controlling the muscles of mastication.
The somatic sensory branches of the vagus nerve are responsible for sensory innervation of the external acoustic meatus and tympanic membrane.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 88
Incorrect
-
In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.
Which of the following membrane phospholipid metabolism products is most likely to cause NSAID-induced bronchospasm in asthmatic patients who are predisposed to it?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leukotrienes
Explanation:Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.
The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.
The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:
Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.
TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.
PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.
PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
Which of the following best explains the association between smoking and lower oxygen delivery to tissues?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left shift of the oxygen dissociation curve
Explanation:Smoking is a major risk factor associated with perioperative respiratory and cardiovascular complications. Evidence also suggests that cigarette smoking causes imbalance in the prostaglandins and promotes vasoconstriction and excessive platelet aggregation. Two of the constituents of cigarette smoke, nicotine and carbon monoxide, have adverse cardiovascular effects. Carbon monoxide increases the incidence of arrhythmias and has a negative ionotropic effect both in animals and humans.
Smoking causes an increase in carboxyhaemoglobin levels, resulting in a leftward shift in which appears to represent a risk factor for some of these cardiovascular complications.
There are two mechanisms responsible for the leftward shift of oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve when carbon monoxide is present in the blood. Carbon monoxide has a direct effect on oxyhaemoglobin, causing a leftward shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, and carbon monoxide also reduces the formation of 2,3-DPG by inhibiting glycolysis in the erythrocyte. Nicotine, on the other hand, has a stimulatory effect on the autonomic nervous system. The effects of nicotine on the cardiovascular system last less than 30 min.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
A patient under brachial plexus regional block complains of pain under the cuff after the torniquet is inflated.
Which nerve was most probably 'missed' by the local anaesthetic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intercostobrachial nerve
Explanation:The area described in the question is supplied by the intercostobrachial nerve, which provides sensory innervation to the portions of the axilla, tail of the breast, lateral chest wall and medial side of the arm.
It is a common for it to be ‘missed’ during administration of local anaesthesia because of its very superficial anatomic course. It may be anesthetized by giving an analgesia from the upper border of the biceps at the anterior axillary fold, to the margin of the triceps by the axillary floor.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 91
Incorrect
-
At which of the following location is there no physiological oesophageal constriction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lower oesophageal sphincter
Explanation:The oesophagus is a muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach. It begins at the lower border of the cricoid cartilage and C6 vertebra. It ends at T11.
The oesophagus has physiological constrictions at the following levels:
1. Cervical constriction: Pharyngo-oesophageal junction (15 cm from the incisor teeth) produced by the cricopharyngeal part of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor muscle
2. Thoracic constrictions:
i. where the oesophagus is first crossed by the arch of the aorta (22.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
ii. where the oesophagus is crossed by the left main bronchus (27.5 cm from the incisor teeth)
3. Diaphragmatic constriction: where the oesophagus passes through the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm (40 cm from the incisor teeth)Awareness of these constrictions is important for clinical purposes when it is required to pass instruments through the oesophagus into the stomach or when viewing radiographs of patients’ oesophagus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 92
Incorrect
-
Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best fit its properties?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The cuff should be positioned at the same level as the heart
Explanation:Dinamap continuously measures the systolic, diastolic and mean arterial pressure along with pulse rate, thereby providing a continuous monitoring of the blood pressure using the osscillitonometric principle of measurement.
The device loses accuracy towards the extremes of BP and is more accurate with systolic compared with diastolic pressure. In arrhythmias such as AF, the devices are also inaccurate due to the major fluctuations associated with the individual pulse pressure variations.
The manual BP device is still the gold standard for BP measurement and monitoring.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
-
-
Question 93
Incorrect
-
A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to a fracture on his right leg. Radiographic imaging showed a fractured tibial shaft. Following surgery, you were instructed to prescribe intravenous paracetamol as an analgesic.
If the patient weighs 49 kg, which of the following would be the best regimen for the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15 mg/kg with a maximum daily dose of 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
Explanation:A stock dose of Intravenous paracetamol available in the market is 10mg/ml. There is a recommended dose of IV paracetamol according to the profile of the patient (age, co-morbidities, weight).
Weight Recommended Dose Maximum per day
≤10 kg 7.5 mg/kg 30 mg/kg
>10 kg to ≤33 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 2 g)
>33 kg to ≤50 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
>50 kg with additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 3 g
>50 kg with no additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 4 gSpecial precaution must be observed for patients with hepatocellular insufficiency. The maximum dose per day should not exceed 3g.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 94
Incorrect
-
A 70-year old male has diverticular disease and is undergoing a sigmoid colectomy. His risk of developing a post operative would infection can be minimized by which of the following interventions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administration of single dose of broad spectrum antibiotics prior to the procedure
Explanation:Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.
Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
-Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
-Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
-Tissue hypoxia
-Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
1. Intraoperatively
– Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
-Cover surgical site with dressingIn contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.
2. Post operatively
Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intentionUse of diathermy for skin incisions
In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
-
-
Question 95
Incorrect
-
Heights of 100 individuals(adults) who were administered steroids at any stage during childhood was studied. The mean height was found to be 169cm with the data having a standard deviation of 16cm. What will be the standard error associated with the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.6
Explanation:Standard error can be calculated by the following formula:
Standard Error= (Standard Deviation)/√(Sample Size)
= (16) / √(100)
= 16 / 10
= 1.6 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
-
-
Question 96
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman presents to emergency department. She is experiencing generalised seizures.
She is given emergency management of her symptoms before being referred to the neurologist who diagnoses her with new onset of tonic-clonic epilepsy.
What is the most appropriate first line of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine should be offered as first line of treatment
Explanation:Tonic-clonic (Grand mal) epilepsy is characterised by a general loss of consciousness with violent involuntary muscle contractions.
The NICE guidelines for treatment indicates the use of sodium valproate and lamotrigine, but sodium valproate unsuitable in this case and she is a woman of reproductive age and it is known to have teratogenic effects. Lamotrigine is a more suitable choice, prescribed as 800mg daily.
NICE guidelines also advice an additional prescription of 5mg of folic acid daily for women on anticonvulsant therapy looking to get pregnant. It also warns of the need for extra contraceptive precaution as there is a possibly that the anticonvulsant agent can reduce levels of contraceptive agents.
Stimulation of the vagal nerve stimulation is only necessary in patients who are refractory to medical treatment and not candidates for surgical resection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
-
-
Question 97
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Can be detected in the lymph
Explanation:Insulin is secreted from the ? cells of the pancreas. It consists of 51 amino acids arranged in two chains. It interacts with cell surface receptors (not the nuclear receptors and thus mechanism of action is not similar to steroids).
Since insulin can pass from plasma to interstitium and lymphatics, it can be measured in lymph but the concentrations here can be up to 30% less than that of plasma.It decreases blood glucose by stimulating the entry of glucose in muscle and fat (by increasing the synthesis of Glucose transporters)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 98
Incorrect
-
An arterial pressure transducer is supposedly in direct correlation to change, thus it is dependent on zero gradient drift and zero offset. Which of the following values will best compensate for the gradient drift?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg
Explanation:Since an arterial pressure transducer, and every other measuring apparatus, is prone to errors due to offset and gradient drifts, regular calibration is required to maintain accuracy of the instrument. The two-point calibration pressure values of 0 mmHg and 200 mmHg are within the physiologic range and can best compensate for the gradient drift.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
-
-
Question 99
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true with regards to 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Production is increased in heart failure
Explanation:During glycolysis, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is
created in erythrocytes by the Rapoport-Luebering shunt.The production of 2,3-DPG increases for several conditions
in the presence of decreased peripheral tissue O2 availability.
Some of these conditions include hypoxaemia, chronic lung
disease anaemia, and congestive heart failure. Thus,
2,3-DPG production is likely an important adaptive mechanism.High levels of 2,3-DPG cause a shift of the curve to the right.
Low levels of 2,3-DPG cause a shift of the curve to the left,
as seen in states such as septic shock and hypophosphatemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 100
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the smallest value of pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 14.69 psi
Explanation:The SI unit of pressure is the pascal (Pa) and it is equal to one newton (N) per square meter (m2) or N/m2.
1 atmosphere (atm) is the equivalent of:
101325 Pa760 mmHg
1.01325 bar
1033.23 cmH2O.
14.69 pounds per square inch (psi)
1013.25 millibar (mbar) or hectopascals (hPa), and14.69 psi is equal to one atmosphere. The other values are equal to two atmospheres of pressure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Physics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)