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  • Question 1 - In the emergency room, a nurse was introducing a catheter into the patients...

    Incorrect

    • In the emergency room, a nurse was introducing a catheter into the patients femoral vein for rapid fluid therapy. The femoral vein is situated inside the femoral sheath. Which of the following is true about that sheath?

      Your Answer: The femoral sheath invests the femoral vessels throughout their entire course

      Correct Answer: The medial compartment is called the femoral canal

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath is situated ,4cm below the inguinal ligament. It is a prolongation of the abdominal fascia. The anterior wall is a prolongation of the transversalis fascia and the posterior wall, the iliac fascia. It is divided by two vertical septa into 3 compartments, lateral, intermediate, and medial. The medial compartment is known as the femoral canal and contains some lymphatic vessels. The lateral one contains the femoral artery and the intermediate one contains the femoral vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A diabetic 58-year-old man, after the injection of radiographic contrast, has a decreased...

    Correct

    • A diabetic 58-year-old man, after the injection of radiographic contrast, has a decreased urine output and decreased level of consciousness. Which of the following conditions has he most likely developed

      Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) involves damage to the tubule cells of the kidneys and is the most common cause of acute kidney injury. ATN in the majority of the cases is caused by ischaemia of the kidneys due to lack of perfusion and oxygenation but it may also occur due to poison or harmful substance. Contrast used for radiology may cause ATN in patients with several risk factors e.g. diabetic nephropathy. Symptoms may include oliguria, nausea, fluid retention, fatigue and decreased consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      215.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 76 year old man who presented with lower back pain is diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 76 year old man who presented with lower back pain is diagnosed with prostatic carcinoma that has metastasized to his lumber spine. Which of the following markers is characteristically elevated?

      Your Answer: CA 19-9

      Correct Answer: PSA

      Explanation:

      Spread of prostatic carcinoma is common to the lumbar spine and pelvis. This results in osteoblastic metastases that will present as lower back pain with increased alkaline phosphatase, prostatic acid phosphates and PSA. PSA is more specific and a PSA > 10 ng/ml for any age is worrisome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia; Urology
      • Pathology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old-female is suspected to have a pulmonary mass. Supposing that she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old-female is suspected to have a pulmonary mass. Supposing that she has a neoplasm, which of the following are most commonly found to involve the lung:

      Your Answer: Small-cell anaplastic carcinomas in smokers

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary metastases

      Explanation:

      Lung metastases occur when a cancer started in another part of the body (primary site) spreads to the lungs. The lungs are among the most common site where cancer can spread due to its rich systemic venous drainage, almost every type of cancer can spread to the lung. The most common types of cancer that spread to the lung are breast, colorectal, kidney, testicular, bladder, prostate, head and neck cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - During an anatomy revision session, medical students are told that the posterior wall...

    Incorrect

    • During an anatomy revision session, medical students are told that the posterior wall of the rectus sheath ends in a thin curved margin whose concavity is directed downwards. What is the name of this inferior border of the rectus sheath?

      Your Answer: Linea alba

      Correct Answer: Arcuate line

      Explanation:

      The rectus sheath is a tendinous sheath that encloses the rectus abdominis muscle. It covers the entire anterior surface however on the posterior surface of the muscle the sheath is incomplete ending inferiorly at the arcuate line. Below the arcuate line, the rectus abdominis is covered by the transversalis fascia. The linea alba is a band of aponeurosis on the midline of the anterior abdominal wall, which extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis. It is formed by the combined abdominal muscle aponeuroses. This is a useful site for midline incision during abdominal surgery because it does not carry many blood vessels. All of the other answer choices are related to the inguinal canal.

      The falx inguinalis (sometimes called the inguinal falx or conjoint tendon), is the inferomedial attachment of the transversus abdominis with some fibres of the internal abdominal oblique – it contributes to the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      The inguinal ligament is the ligament that connects the anterior superior iliac spine with the pubic tubercle – it makes the floor of the inguinal canal.

      The internal (deep) inguinal ring is the entrance to the inguinal canal, where the transversalis fascia pouches out and creates an opening through which structures can leave the abdominal cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      80.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors...

    Incorrect

    • A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors is deficient in this form of haemophilia?

      Your Answer: Factor VII

      Correct Answer: Factor XI

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia C, also known as plasma thromboplastin antecedent (PTA) deficiency or Rosenthal syndrome, is a condition caused by the deficiency of the coagulation factor XI. The condition is rare and it is usually found in Ashkenazi Jews.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following organs is an ectoderm derivative?

      Your Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      Ectoderm derivatives include the adrenal medulla, posterior pituitary, the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair, sweat glands, mammary glands, sebaceous glands, the central nervous system, the peripheral nervous system, the retina and lens of eye, the pupillary muscle of the iris, melanocytes, Schwann cells and odontoblasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - If the blood flow is constant, oxygen extraction by tissues will show the...

    Correct

    • If the blood flow is constant, oxygen extraction by tissues will show the greatest decrease due to which of the following interventions?

      Your Answer: Tissue cooling

      Explanation:

      With a constant blood flow to a given tissue bed, there will be an increase in oxygen extraction by the tissue with the following; an increase in tissue metabolism and oxygen requirements: warming (or fever), exercise, catecholamines and thyroxine. With cooling, the demand for oxygen decreases, leading to decreased oxygen extraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      86
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The lateral thoracic artery: ...

    Incorrect

    • The lateral thoracic artery:

      Your Answer: Accompanies the thoracodorsal nerve to the serratus anterior muscle

      Correct Answer: Accompanies the long thoracic nerve to the serratus anterior muscle

      Explanation:

      The thoracic nerve, along with the lateral thoracic artery, follow the pectoralis minor to the side of the chest which supplies the serratus anterior and the pectoralis. It then sends branches across the axilla to the axillary glands and subscapularis. The pectoral branch of the thoraco-acromial anastomoses with the internal mammary, subscapular and intercostal arteries, which in women, supply an external mammary branch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Breast
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During an operation to repair an aortic coarctation in a neonate, a surgeon...

    Incorrect

    • During an operation to repair an aortic coarctation in a neonate, a surgeon accidentally cuts the first aortic intercostal arteries as he mobilised the descending aorta. Which one of the following structure might be deprived of its primary source of blood supply following this injury?

      Your Answer: First posterior intercostal space

      Correct Answer: Right bronchus

      Explanation:

      The right bronchus is supplied by one right bronchial artery that may branch from one of the left bronchial arteries or from the right 3rd posterior intercostal artery (this is the first intercostal artery that arises from the aorta). Damage to this artery might stop blood supply to the main bronchus. Intercostal arteries that go to the first and the second interspaces originate from the highest intercostal artery such that blood supply to either of these spaces would not be interfered with.

      The left bronchus receives blood from 2 left bronchial arteries which are direct branches from the descending aorta.

      Fibrous pericardium is the sac that contains the heart. Its blood supply is not a major concern.

      Visceral pericardium receives its blood supply from the coronary vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      57.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is solely contained in the anterior triangle of the neck and divides the anterior triangle into three smaller triangles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digastric

      Explanation:

      The digastric muscle is a small muscle located under the jaw. It lies below the body of the mandible, and extends, in a curved form, from the mastoid process to the symphysis menti. The digastric divides the anterior triangle of the neck into three smaller triangles:

      – The submaxillary triangle, bounded above by the lower border of the body of the mandible and a line drawn from its angle to the sternocleidomastoid, below by the posterior belly of the digastric and the stylohyoid and in front by the anterior belly of the digastric

      – The carotid triangle, bounded above by the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid, behind by the sternocleidomastoid and below by the omohyoid

      – The suprahyoid or submental triangle, bounded laterally by the anterior belly of the digastric, medially by the midline of the neck from the hyoid bone to the symphysis menti and inferiorly by the body of the hyoid bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the...

    Incorrect

    • This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The iris

      Explanation:

      The iris divides the space between the lens and the cornea into an anterior and a posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with watery aqueous fluid, and the posterior cavity with a gel-like vitreous fluid. The anterior chamber of the eye is bounded in front by the posterior surface of the cornea; behind by the front of the iris and the central part of the lens. The posterior chamber is a narrow gap behind the peripheral part of the iris and in front of the suspensory ligament of the lens and the ciliary processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to this nerve may result in loss of sensation of the mandibular teeth and bone:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior alveolar nerve (sometimes called the inferior dental nerve) is a branch of the mandibular nerve, which is itself the third branch of the trigeminal nerve. The inferior alveolar nerves supply sensation to the lower teeth of the mandible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 30 year old lawyer presented with a history of pleural effusions, pericarditis,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old lawyer presented with a history of pleural effusions, pericarditis, arthralgia without joint deformity and episodes of myalgia for the past 12 months. Blood tests reveal a normocytic anaemia. Which of the following tests should be performed to investigate this condition further?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibody test

      Explanation:

      These non specific findings are suggestive of autoimmune disease. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) is the first test that should be performed when autoimmune diseases are suspected and later on more specific tests should be performed. This tests aids in the diagnosis of SLE, scleroderma, Sjogren’s syndrome, Raynaud’s disease, juvenile chronic arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis and antiphospholipid antibody syndrome etc. To confirm the disease a history, physical examination along with specific tests are required.

      CPK is more specific for acute conditions.

      ESR is a non specific test for inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect: ...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Initiation of abduction of the humerus

      Explanation:

      This muscle arises from the medial two-thirds of the supraspinatus fossa and from the supraspinatus fascia. It is inserted into the highest impression on the greater tubercle of the humerus after passing over the upper part of the shoulder joint. It works with the deltoid to raise the arm from the side of the trunk and initiate abduction. It also assists in fixation of the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered...

    Incorrect

    • In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered that the victim had lost sense of touch to the skin over her cheek and chin (maxilla and mandible region). Where are the cell bodies of the nerve that is responsible for touch sensations of this region located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerve V ganglion

      Explanation:

      The skin over the cheek and the maxilla are innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V). The trigeminal nerve has three major branches and it is the largest cranial nerve. The three branches of the trigeminal nerve are; the ophthalmic nerve, the maxillary nerve and the mandibular nerve. The trigeminal nerves ganglion is a sensory nerve ganglion know as the trigeminal ganglion (also referred to as the Gasser’s ganglion or the semilunar ganglion). It is contained in the dura matter in a cavity known as the Meckel’s cave, which covers the trigeminal impression near the apex of the petrous part of the temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old male who was admitted due to cerebrovascular disease on his 5th...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male who was admitted due to cerebrovascular disease on his 5th hospital stay developed pneumonia. The most likely organism that causes hospital acquired pneumonia is pseudomonas aeruginosa. What is the most likely mechanism for the pathogenesis on pseudomonas infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exotoxin

      Explanation:

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium that can cause disease in plants and animals, including humans. It is citrate, catalase, and oxidase positive. P. aeruginosa uses the virulence factor exotoxin A to inactivate eukaryotic elongation factor 2 via ADP-ribosylation in the host cell, much the same as the diphtheria toxin does. Without elongation factor 2, eukaryotic cells cannot synthesize proteins and necrotise. The release of intracellular contents induces an immunologic response in immunocompetent patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A histopathological analysis of a specimen showed loss of individual cell structure with...

    Incorrect

    • A histopathological analysis of a specimen showed loss of individual cell structure with karyorrhexis and fragmentation. The overall integrity of the tissue structure is preserved. This is typical of which of the following pathologies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Viral infections will cause necrosis of the hepatocytes with characteristic changes of karyorrhexis and cell fragmentation.

      Brown atrophy of the heart is due to accumulation of lipofuscin in the myocardium.

      Tissue destruction associated with transplant rejection leads to widespread loss of structural integrity.

      Single cell necrosis is not characteristically seen in chronic alcoholic liver.

      Barbiturate overdose will result in hypertrophy of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

      Carcinoma insitu will cause dysplastic cells without the overall structural integrity being disrupted.

      Atrophy is due to apoptosis with ordered cellular fragmentation and phagocytosis and will not induce an inflammatory process unlike necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following compensatory parameters is responsible for causing an increase in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following compensatory parameters is responsible for causing an increase in the blood pressure in a 30 year old patient with a BP of 40 mmHg?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Baroreceptor reflex

      Explanation:

      The baroreflex or baroreceptor reflex is one of the body’s homeostatic mechanisms for regulating blood pressure. It provides a negative feedback response in which an elevated blood pressure will causes blood pressure to decrease; similarly, decreased blood pressure depresses the baroreflex, causing blood pressure to rise. The system relies on specialised neurones (baroreceptors) in the aortic arch, carotid sinuses and elsewhere to monitor changes in blood pressure and relay them to the brainstem. Subsequent changes in blood pressure are mediated by the autonomic nervous system. Baroreceptors include those in the auricles of the heart and vena cava, but the most sensitive baroreceptors are in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch. The carotid sinus baroreceptors are innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX); the aortic arch baroreceptors are innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An excised lesion is found to be a premalignant during examination by the...

    Incorrect

    • An excised lesion is found to be a premalignant during examination by the pathologist. What is the most likely histopathology report of this lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Solar keratosis

      Explanation:

      Premalignant condition is a state of disordered morphology of cells that is associated with an increased risk of cancer. If this condition is left untreated, it may lead to the development of cancer. The following are examples of pre-malignant lesions: actinic keratosis, Barret’s oesophagitis, atrophic gastritis, ductal carcinoma in situ, dyskeratosis congenita, sideropenic dysphagia, lichen planus, oral submucous fibrosis, solar elastosis, cervical dysplasia, leucoplakia and erythroplakia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A neurotransmitter of the nigrostriatal pathway is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A neurotransmitter of the nigrostriatal pathway is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Dopamine acts as a neurotransmitter in the brain, activating dopamine receptors. It is also a neurohormone released from the hypothalamus. It plays an important role in the reward system. It is believed that dopamine provides a teaching signal to parts of the brain responsible for acquiring new motor sequences (behaviours), by activation of dopamine neurons when an unexpected reward is presented. Loss of dopamine neurones in the nigrostriatal pathway causes Parkinson’s disease. In the frontal lobes, dopamine controls the flow of information from other areas of the brain, and thus, dopamine disorders in this region can cause a decline in neurocognitive functions, especially memory, attention and problem solving. Reduced dopamine concentrations in the prefrontal cortex are thought to contribute to attention-deficit disorder and some symptoms of schizophrenia. Dopamine is also the primary neuroendocrine regulator of the secretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland. Dopamine is also commonly associated with the pleasure system of the brain. This plays a key role in understanding the mechanism of action of drugs (such as cocaine and the amphetamines), which seem to be directly or indirectly related to the increase of dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65 year old man with a history of diabetes and hypertension presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man with a history of diabetes and hypertension presented with a stroke a few months ago severely affecting his speech and movement in the right arm and leg. A cerebral angiogram revealed a middle cerebral artery occlusion. A recent CT scan was done which revealed a 5 cm cystic space in his left parietal lobe. This lesion is a result of which of the following forms of resolution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      Characteristically, the brain will undergo liquefactive necrosis following ischaemic injury. This leaves a cystic space in that region which would show up on a CT scan. Atrophy would result in a generalized decrease in the brain size. Coagulative necrosis typically occurs in parenchymal organs e.g. the spleen or kidney which have a lower lipid content. Caseous necrosis is typical in granulomatous tuberculosis infection. Apoptosis will not form a cystic area as it is programmed cell death involving a individual cells. Gangrenous necrosis is characteristic of ischaemic injury of the lower limb and GI tract. Fibrinous necrosis results from necrotic damage to the blood vessels with the leaking of proteins into the vessel, appearing bright pink on H & E staining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - There are several mechanisms involved in the transport of sodium ions from blood...

    Incorrect

    • There are several mechanisms involved in the transport of sodium ions from blood to interstitial fluid of the muscle cells. Which of the following mechanisms best describes this phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diffusion through channels between endothelial cells

      Explanation:

      Capillaries are the smallest of the body’s blood vessels, measuring 5–10 μm and they help to enable the exchange of water, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and many other nutrients and waste substances between the blood and the tissues surrounding them. The walls of capillaries are composed of only a single layer of cells, the endothelium. Ion channels are pore-forming proteins that help to establish and control the small voltage gradient that exists across the plasma membrane of all living cells by allowing the flow of ions down their electrochemical gradient. An ion channel is an integral membrane protein or more typically an assembly of several proteins. The archetypal channel pore is just one or two atoms wide at its narrowest point. It conducts a specific ion such as sodium or potassium and conveys them through the membrane in single file.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 20-year-old woman had profuse watery diarrhoea for 2 days. She felt dizzy...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman had profuse watery diarrhoea for 2 days. She felt dizzy and weak, and thus decided to seek medical attention. At the emergency room her BP was 80/60 mmHg with a pulse of 118/min. What is the most appropriate intravenous treatment that should be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isotonic saline

      Explanation:

      Normal saline is typically the first fluid used when hypovolemia is severe enough to threaten the adequacy of blood circulation. It is isotonic and has long been believed to be the safest fluid to give quickly in large volumes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Raised alkaline phosphatase and positive antimitochondrial antibody indicates which of the following conditions...

    Incorrect

    • Raised alkaline phosphatase and positive antimitochondrial antibody indicates which of the following conditions presenting with pruritus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      An autoimmune disease, primary biliary cirrhosis results in destruction of intrahepatic bile ducts. This leads to cholestasis, cirrhosis and eventually, hepatic failure. Symptoms includes fatigue, pruritus and steatorrhea. Increased IgM levels, along with antimitochondrial antibodies are seen in the serum. Liver biopsy is diagnostic, and also aids in staging of disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A ‘claw hand’ is usually associated with injury to which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A ‘claw hand’ is usually associated with injury to which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      A ‘claw hand’ is associated with injury to the ulnar nerve at the wrist affecting the interossei, lumbricals and hypothenar muscles of the hand. It is characterized by hypothenar eminence wasting, hyperextended metacarpophalangeal joints and flexed interphalangeal joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood supply to the seminal vesicles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle rectal

      Explanation:

      Ligation of middle rectal artery is most likely to affect the blood supply of seminal vesicles since arteries supplying the seminal vesicles are derived from the middle and inferior vesical and middle rectal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 41 year old women presents with a history of carcinoma involving the...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old women presents with a history of carcinoma involving the right breast with enlarged axillary nodes on the same side. She underwent mastectomy and axillary node clearance. These were sent for histopathological examination. They showed no signs of metastasis. What could be cause of this enlargement in the lymph nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sinus histiocytosis

      Explanation:

      Sinus histiocytosis also referred to as reticular hyperplasia, refers to the enlargement, distention and prominence of the sinusoids of the lymph nodes. This is a non-specific form of hyperplasia characteristically seen in lymph nodes that drain tumours. The endothelial lining of the lymph node becomes markedly hypertrophied, along with an increase in the number of macrophages which results in the distortion, distention and enlargement of the sinus. In this scenario there is no evidence that an infection or another malignancy could account for the enlargement. Paracortical lymphoid hyperplasia is caused by an immune response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology; Female Health
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Where is the foramen ovale located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the foramen ovale located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sphenoid

      Explanation:

      The foramen ovale is an oval shaped opening in the middle cranial fossa located at the posterior base of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, lateral to the lingula. It transmits the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN Vc), accessory meningeal artery, emissary veins between the cavernous sinuses and pterygoid plexus, otic ganglion, and occasionally the nervus spinosus and lesser petrosal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (1/5) 20%
Lower Limb (0/1) 0%
Pathology (1/4) 25%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia; Urology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Breast (0/1) 0%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Passmed