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Question 1
Correct
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You review a 34-year-old man with lower back pain and plan to prescribe him ibuprofen and codeine phosphate. His only past medical history of note is depression, for which he takes fluoxetine.
Which of the following scenarios would prompt you to consider the co-prescription of a PPI for gastro-protection? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: Co-prescription of fluoxetine
Explanation:Patients at risk of gastro-intestinal ulceration (including the elderly) who need NSAID treatment should receive gastroprotective treatment. The current recommendations by NICE suggest that gastro-protection should be considered if patients have ≥1 of the following:
Using maximum recommended dose of an NSAID
Aged 65 or older
History of peptic ulcer or GI bleeding
Concomitant use of medications that increase risk:
Low dose aspirin
Anticoagulants
Corticosteroids
Anti-depressants including SSRIs and SNRIs
Requirements for prolonged NSAID usage:
Patients with OA or RA at any age
Long-term back pain if older than 45
It is suggested that if required, either omeprazole 20 mg daily or lansoprazole 15-30 mg daily should be the PPIs of choice.
This patient is on 400 mg of ibuprofen TDS, but the maximum recommended dose of ibuprofen is 2.4 g daily. Co-prescription of codeine, raised BMI, and a family history of peptic ulceration would also not prompt gastro-protection. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following clinical features is a feature of a chronic extravascular haemolytic anaemia:
Your Answer: Raised serum conjugated bilirubin
Correct Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:Clinical features of haemolytic anaemia include:
Anaemia
Jaundice (caused by unconjugated bilirubin in plasma, bilirubin is absent from urine)
Pigment gallstones
Splenomegaly
Ankle ulcers
Expansion of marrow with, in children, bone expansion e.g. frontal bossing in beta-thalassaemia major
Aplastic crisis caused by parvovirus -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Regarding probability distribution, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: In skewed data the mean is usually equal to the mode.
Correct Answer: In a negative skew, the mass of distribution is concentrated on the right.
Explanation:Distribution of data is usually unimodal (one peak) but may be bimodal (two peaks) or uniform (no peaks, each value equally likely). The normal distribution is a symmetrical bell-shaped curve. The mean, median, and mode of a normal distribution are equal. In a positive skew, the right tail is longer and the mass of distribution is concentrated on the left; mean > median > mode. In a negative skew, the left tail is longer and the mass of distribution is concentrated on the right; mean < median < mode.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The juxtacapillary receptors, or J receptors, are sensory cells that play an important role in the control of respiration.
At which of the following anatomical sites are the J receptors located? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The alveolar walls
Explanation:Juxtacapillary receptors (J receptors) are sensory cells that are located within the alveolar walls in juxtaposition to the pulmonary capillaries of the lung.
The J receptors are innervated by the vagus nerve and are activated by physical engorgement of the pulmonary capillaries or increased pulmonary interstitial volume, for example, in the presence of pulmonary oedema, pulmonary embolus, pneumonia and barotraumas. They may also be stimulated by hyperinflation of the lung.
Stimulation of the J receptors causes a reflex increase in breathing rate and is also thought to be involved in the sensation of dyspnoea. The reflex response that is produced is apnoea, followed by rapid breathing, bradycardia, and hypotension. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old otherwise well woman presents with a history of polydipsia and polyuria. There is a past history of kidney stones, and blood tests done reveal the following:
Na: 147 mmol/L (135-147 mmol/L)
K: 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.5 mmol/L)
Urea: 7.3 mmol/L (2.0-6.6 mmol/L)
Creatinine: 126 mmol/L (75-125 mmol/L)
Fasting blood glucose: 5.0 mmol/L (3.4-5.5 mmol/L)
Corrected calcium: 3.21 mmol/L (2.05-2.60 mmol/L)
Phosphate: 0.70 mmol/L (0.8-1.4 mmol/L)
Parathyroid hormone: 189 ng/L (10-60 ng/L)
The most likely diagnosis is?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Primary hyperparathyroidism the commonest cause of hypercalcaemia. It is commonest in women aged 50 to 60.
The commonest cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is a solitary adenoma of the parathyroid gland (approximately 85% of cases).Primary hyperparathyroidism may present with features of hypercalcaemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, renal stones, bone and joint pain, constipation, and psychiatric disorders.
In primary Hyperparathyroidism:
PTH is elevated
Calcium is elevated
Phosphate is loweredIn secondary Hyperparathyroidism:
PTH is elevated
Calcium is low or low-normal
Phosphate is raised in CRFIn tertiary Hyperparathyroidism:
PTH is elevated
Calcium is elevated
Phosphate is lowered in CRF -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-old woman comes for a follow-up visit after being discharged on medications for her newly diagnosed epilepsy. She now complains of a tremor in her arm when she holds a tray in her hand. You examine the patient and notice she has developed postural tremors.
Which of the following medications for epilepsy is most likely responsible for this tremor?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:A postural tumour is observed when a person maintains a position against gravity, such as holding the arms outstretched. (The patient holding her tray against gravity)
Sodium valproate is the most commonly prescribed medication for epilepsy. It is commonly associated with tremors as valproate-induced tremors occur in around 6-45% of patients. The tremors are commonly postural, but a resting tremor may also occur.
Approximately 25% of patients taking sodium valproate are found to develop a tremor within 3-12 months of initiating therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Regarding protein digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oligopeptides are broken down into small peptides and amino acids by pancreatic carboxypeptidases and aminopeptidases located on the brush border.
Explanation:Digestion of dietary protein begins in the stomach where pepsin hydrolyses protein to polypeptides, and continues in the duodenum where pancreatic proteases (trypsin and chymotrypsin) continue the process of hydrolysis forming oligopeptides. These are further broken down into small peptides and amino acids by pancreatic carboxypeptidases and aminopeptidases located on luminal membrane epithelial cells. Free amino acids are absorbed across the apical membrane by secondary active transport coupled with Na+transport into the cell. Amino acids cross the basal membrane into the capillaries by facilitated diffusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is admitted to the hospital with a persistently high temperature. To help her reduce her fever, you decide to give her paracetamol and ibuprofen.
What are the effects of paracetamol and ibuprofen on fever?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduction in prostaglandin synthesis
Explanation:Interleukin-1, which is released by leukocytes and acts on the thermoregulatory centre of the hypothalamus, causes fever. Because prostaglandins mediate this process, antipyretics such as NSAIDs, paracetamol, and aspirin reduce prostaglandin levels by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes. Malignant disease secretes interleukins, which cause the B-symptoms seen in lymphoma, for example. Bacterial toxins can also cause interleukins to be produced.
Pyrexia of unknown origin (PUO) is defined as a fever of greater than 38.3 degrees Celsius that lasts for more than 2-3 weeks with no clear diagnosis despite extensive investigation.
Investigation necessitates a thorough understanding of the conditions that can cause febrile illness, which may be missed during an initial investigation, as well as a thorough history, examination, and investigation centred on that list.
Pyrexia of unknown origin has a wide differential diagnosis, which includes:
Infection
Bacterial
Pyogenic abscess
Tuberculosis
Infective endocarditis
Brucellosis
Lyme disease
Viral
HIV
Epstein Barr Virus
Cytomegalovirus
Parasite
Toxoplasmosis
Malignancy
Leukaemia
Lymphoma
Renal cell carcinoma
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Vasculitides
Still’s disease
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (formerly Wegener’s)
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Giant cell arteritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Polymyalgia rheumatica
Miscellaneous
Drug induced fevers
Familial Mediterranean fever
Thyrotoxicosis
Inflammatory bowel disease
Sarcoidosis
Factitious fever
Exaggerated normal circadian fluctuationThe patient might need to be admitted to the hospital for observation and further investigation. Because infection is still a possibility, blood cultures should be repeated on a regular basis, and inflammatory markers should be closely monitored. CT, PET, and MRI imaging have largely replaced diagnostic laparotomy as a diagnostic tool.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
- Pathology Of Infections
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Vitamin D is a group of secosteroids that play a role in calcium and phosphate control. Vitamin D's hormonally active metabolite is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
Which enzyme hydroxylates 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1-alpha-hydroxylase
Explanation:The hormone-active metabolite of vitamin D is 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (commonly known as calcitriol). Its activities raise calcium and phosphate levels in the bloodstream.
In the presence of UVB light, 7-dehydrocholesterol is converted to cholecalciferol in the epidermal layer of the skin, resulting in 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
Cholecalciferol is then converted to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the endoplasmic reticulum of liver hepatocytes by 25-hydroxylase (calcifediol).
Finally, 1-alpha-hydroxylase converts 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney. The key regulatory point in the formation of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is 1-alpha-hydroxylase, which is induced by parathyroid hormone or hypophosphatemia.
The following are the primary effects of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol:
Calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine is increased.
Calcium reabsorption in the kidneys is increased.
Increases phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys.
Increases the action of osteoclastic bacteria (increasing calcium and phosphate resorption from bone)
Inhibits the action of 1-alpha-hydroxylase in the kidneys (negative feedback) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Physiology
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through which of the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibody detection
Explanation:Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through detection of HIV antibody and p24 antigen. Viral load (viral PCR) and CD4 count are used to monitor progression of disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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