00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which best describes the sartorius muscle? ...

    Correct

    • Which best describes the sartorius muscle?

      Your Answer: Will flex the leg at the knee joint

      Explanation:

      The sartorius muscle arises from tendinous fibres from the superior iliac spine. It passes obliquely across the thigh from lateral to medial and is inserted into the upper part of the medial side of the tibia. When the sartorius muscle contracts it will flex the leg at the knee joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a major source of fuel being oxidised by the skeletal muscles...

    Correct

    • What is a major source of fuel being oxidised by the skeletal muscles of a man who has undergone starvation for 7 days?

      Your Answer: Serum fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Starvation is the most extreme form of malnutrition. Prolonged starvation can lead to permanent organ damage and can be fatal. Starved individuals eventually lose significant fat and muscle mass as the body uses these for energy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma do NOT include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma do NOT include:

      Your Answer: Anabolic steroids

      Correct Answer: Heptitis E

      Explanation:

      Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma include hepatitis B and C, aflatoxin, anabolic steroids, alcohol cirrhosis and primary liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Lack of findings in the bladder but presence of atypical epithelial cells in...

    Incorrect

    • Lack of findings in the bladder but presence of atypical epithelial cells in urinalysis is most often associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of penis

      Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma of renal pelvis

      Explanation:

      The presence of atypical cells in urinalysis without findings in the bladder suggests a lesion located higher up, most probably in ureters or renal pelvis. Transitional cell cancer of the renal pelvis is a disease in which malignant cells form in the renal pelvis and is characterised by the presence of abnormal cells in urine cytology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      140.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant...

    Correct

    • A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant sign is a dark brown mole located on left his arm which has grown in size over the years and is itchy and painful. A MRI of the brain revealed a solitary lesion at the grey-white junction in the right frontal lobe, without ring enhancement. This lesion is most likely to be:

      Your Answer: Metastatic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The location of the mass at the grey–white junction is typical of a metastasis. The most frequent types of metastatic brain tumours originate in the lung, skin, kidney, breast and colon. These tumour cells reach the brain via the bloodstream. This patient is likely to have skin cancer, which caused the metastatic brain tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Where would you insert the needle when drawing blood from a patient's median...

    Correct

    • Where would you insert the needle when drawing blood from a patient's median cubital vein?

      Your Answer: Anterior aspect of the elbow

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is to insert it into the anterior aspect of the elbow. If you look at the venous drainage of the upper limb, you will find that there are two main veins, the basilic and the cephalic vein; the connecting branch between these two veins is the median cubital vein. and this vein passes via the cubital fossa which is on the anterior aspect of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis...

    Correct

    • A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis revealed the presence of epithelioid cells. What are these cells formed from?

      Your Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Granulomas formed in tuberculosis are called tubercles and are made up polynuclear phagocytes, Langhans cells and epithelioid cells. Macrophages when enlarged, consist of abundant cytoplasm and have a tendency of arranging themselves very closely to each other representing epithelial cells. These enlarged macrophages are therefore termed as epithelioid cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following brings about a reduction in gastric blood flow? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following brings about a reduction in gastric blood flow?

      Your Answer: Vasopressin

      Explanation:

      Gastric blood flow is increased by vagal stimulation, gastrin, histamine and acetylcholine as they stimulate gastric section and the production of vasodilator metabolites. Acetylcholine and histamine also have a direct action on the gastric arterioles. Similarly, gastric blood flow is reduced by inhibitors of secretion – catecholamines, secretin and vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During thyroidectomy, the recurrent laryngeal nerves are vulnerable to injury. Which of the...

    Correct

    • During thyroidectomy, the recurrent laryngeal nerves are vulnerable to injury. Which of the following muscles will not be affected in cases where the recurrent laryngeal nerve is severed?

      Your Answer: Cricothyroid

      Explanation:

      All muscles of the larynx are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve except for the cricothyroid which is supplied by the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered...

    Correct

    • In a neurological exam on a robbery with violence victim, it was discovered that the victim had lost sense of touch to the skin over her cheek and chin (maxilla and mandible region). Where are the cell bodies of the nerve that is responsible for touch sensations of this region located?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve V ganglion

      Explanation:

      The skin over the cheek and the maxilla are innervated by the trigeminal nerve (CN V). The trigeminal nerve has three major branches and it is the largest cranial nerve. The three branches of the trigeminal nerve are; the ophthalmic nerve, the maxillary nerve and the mandibular nerve. The trigeminal nerves ganglion is a sensory nerve ganglion know as the trigeminal ganglion (also referred to as the Gasser’s ganglion or the semilunar ganglion). It is contained in the dura matter in a cavity known as the Meckel’s cave, which covers the trigeminal impression near the apex of the petrous part of the temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot...

    Correct

    • An explorative laparotomy is done on a 23 year old following a gunshot abdominal injury through the right iliac fossa. It is found that the ileocolic artery is severed and the bullet had perforated the caecum. From which branch does the ileocolic artery originate?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Ileocolic artery branches off from the superior mesenteric artery. It then divides to give a superior and inferior branch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The collaborative effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles produces which action on the...

    Correct

    • The collaborative effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles produces which action on the jaw?

      Your Answer: Protrude the mandible

      Explanation:

      The combined effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles results in the protrusion of the mandible. The lateral pterygoid muscle is a muscle of mastication located superiorly to the medial pterygoid muscle and has two heads. The superior head originates on the infratemporal surface and infratemporal crest of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone, and the inferior head on the lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate. The insertion of this muscle is on the front margin of the articular disc of the temporomandibular joint. The unilateral contraction of the pterygoid muscle results in the laterotrusion of the mandible. It is important to note that the lateral pterygoid muscle is the only muscle of mastication that can open the jaw.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 49-year-old woman with acute renal failure has a total plasma [Ca2+] =...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman with acute renal failure has a total plasma [Ca2+] = 2. 5 mmol/l and a glomerular filtration rate of 160 l/day. What is the estimated daily filtered load of calcium?

      Your Answer: 64 mmol/day

      Correct Answer: 240 mmol/day

      Explanation:

      Calcium is the most abundant mineral in the human body. The average adult body contains in total approximately 1 kg of calcium of which 99% is in the skeleton in the form of calcium phosphate salts. The extracellular fluid (ECF) contains approximately 22 mmol, of which about 9 mmol is in the plasma. About 40% of total plasma Ca2+ is bound to proteins and not filtered at the glomerular basement membrane. Therefore, the estimated daily filtered load is 1.5 mmol/l × 160 l/day = 240 mmol/day. The exact amount of free versus total Ca2+ depends on the blood pH: free Ca2+ increases during acidosis and decreases during alkalosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      146.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Diuretics that act on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle produce:...

    Correct

    • Diuretics that act on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle produce:

      Your Answer: Reduced active transport of sodium

      Explanation:

      The loop of Henlé leads from the proximal convoluted tubule to the distal convoluted tubule. Its primary function uses a counter current multiplier mechanism in the medulla to reabsorb water and ions from the urine. It can be divided into four parts:

      1. Descending limb of loop of Henlé – low permeability to ions and urea, while being highly permeable to water

      2. Thin ascending limb of loop of Henlé – not permeable to water, but it is permeable to ions

      3. Medullary thick ascending limb of loop of Henlé – sodium (Na+), potassium (K+) and chloride (Cl–) ions are reabsorbed by active transport. K+ is passively transported along its concentration gradient through a K+ channel in the basolateral aspect of the cells, back into the lumen of the ascending limb.

      4. The cortical thick ascending limb – the site of action where loop diuretics such as furosemide block the K+/Na+/2Cl− co-transporters = reduced active transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to indicate the position of the deep inguinal ring. You indicate this as being:

      Your Answer: Above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is near the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, below the anterior superior iliac spine. It is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery. The superficial ring, however, is found above the pubic tubercle. The supravesical fossa is the space between the median and medial umbilical folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage: ...

    Correct

    • Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage:

      Your Answer: The left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein

      Explanation:

      Spermatic or testicular veins arise from the posterior aspect of the testis and receive tributaries from the epididymis. Upon uniting, they form the pampiniform plexus that makes up the greater mass of the spermatic cord. The vessels that make up this plexus rise up the spermatic cord in front of the ductus deferens. They then unite, below the superficial ring, to form three or four veins that traverse the inguinal canal and enter the abdomen through the deep inguinal ring. They further unite to form 2 veins that ascend up the psoas major muscle behind the peritoneum each lying on either side of the testicular artery. These further unite to form one vein that empties on the right side of the inferior vena cava at an acute angle and on the left side into the renal vein, at a right angle. The left testicular vein courses behind the iliac colon and is thus exposed to pressure from the contents of this part of the bowel. The ovarian vein is the equivalent of the testicular vein in women. They form a plexus in the broad ligament near the ovary and uterine tube and communicate with the uterine plexus. They drain into similar vessels as in a man.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the: ...

    Correct

    • The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the:

      Your Answer: Pectoralis minor

      Explanation:

      Situated at the upper part of the thorax beneath the pectoralis major, is a thin pectoralis minor, triangular muscle. It originates from the third, fourth and fifth ribs, near the cartilage and from the aponeurosis which covers the intercostals. These fibres move upwards and laterally to join and form a flat tendon. This is inserted into the medial border and upper surface of the coracoid process of the scapula. Through this medial anterior thoracic nerve, fibres from the pectoralis minor are received from the eighth cervical and first thoracic nerves. This pectoralis minor pushes down on the point of the shoulder (glenoid fossa), drawing the scapula downward and medially towards the thorax which throws the inferior angle backwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Lung compliance is increased by: ...

    Correct

    • Lung compliance is increased by:

      Your Answer: Emphysema

      Explanation:

      Lung compliance is increased by emphysema, acute asthma and increasing age and decreased by alveolar oedema, pulmonary hypertension, atelectasis and pulmonary fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Where does the ejaculatory duct open into? ...

    Correct

    • Where does the ejaculatory duct open into?

      Your Answer: Prostatic urethra

      Explanation:

      There are two ejaculatory ducts, one on either side of the midline. Each ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the duct from the seminal vesicles with the ductus deferens. They start at the base of the prostate and run forward and downward between the middle and lateral lobes and along the side of the prostatic utricle to end in the prostatic urethra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following conditions is characterized by generalised oedema due to effusion...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is characterized by generalised oedema due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space?

      Your Answer: Anasarca

      Explanation:

      Anasarca (or ‘generalised oedema’) is a condition characterised by widespread swelling of the skin due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space. It is usually caused by liver failure (cirrhosis of the liver), renal failure/disease, right-sided heart failure, as well as severe malnutrition/protein deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - 13 year old girl developed sun burnt cheeks after spending the day playing...

    Correct

    • 13 year old girl developed sun burnt cheeks after spending the day playing on the beach. What is the underlying mechanism to her injury?

      Your Answer: Free radical injury

      Explanation:

      Free radicals are a by-product of chemical reactions with an unpaired electron in their outer most shell. They are capable of causing wide spread damage to cells. They can cause autolytic reactions thereby converting the reactants into free radicals. By absorbing sun light, the energy is used to hydrolyse water into hydroxyl (OH) and hydrogen (H) free radicals which can cause injury by lipid peroxidation of membranes, oxidative modification of proteins and damage to the DNA structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Dermatology
      • Pathology
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year old gentleman who was admitted for elective surgery was found to have haemoglobin 9.5 g/dl, white blood cell count of 1.4 × 109/l and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 134 fl. Which of the following is the likely finding on his peripheral blood smear?

      Your Answer: Hypersegmented neutrophils

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis is megaloblastic anaemia, which also shows the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      58.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following has the highest content of triglycerides?

      Your Answer: Chylomicron

      Explanation:

      Created by the small intestinal cells, chylomicrons are large lipoprotein molecules which transport lipids to the liver, adipose, cardiac and skeletal tissue. Chylomicrons are mainly composed of triglycerides (,85%) along with some cholesterol and cholesteryl esters. Apo B-48 is the main apolipoprotein content.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is a true statement regarding secretion of gastric acid?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a true statement regarding secretion of gastric acid?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine increases gastric acid secretion

      Explanation:

      Gastric acid secretion is increased by acetylcholine, histamine and gastrin, with the help of cAMP as a secondary messenger. They increase H+ and Cl- secretion by increasing the number of H+/K+ ATPase molecules and Cl- channels. In contrast, gastric acid secretion is decreased by somatostatin, epidermal growth factor and prostaglandins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed...

    Incorrect

    • During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum. This is:

      Your Answer: Is an abnormal persistence of the urachus

      Correct Answer: Is a site of ectopic pancreatic tissue

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is an outpouching of the small intestine. It usually occurs about 0.6 m (2 feet) before the junction with the caecum. It can be lined with the mucosa of the stomach and may ulcerate. It may also be lined by ectopic pancreatic tissue. It represents the remains of the vitelline duct in early fetal life.

      An abnormal persistence of the urachus is called a urachal fistula.

      Failure of the midgut loop to return to the abdominal cavity is called an omphalocele.

      Polyhydramnios is often caused by anencephaly or oesophageal fistula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?

      Your Answer: Caecum

      Explanation:

      The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is correct regarding the obturator artery? ...

    Correct

    • What is correct regarding the obturator artery?

      Your Answer: It is found in the medial compartment of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The obturator artery is a branch of the internal iliac artery, which passes antero-inferiorly on the lateral wall of the pelvis, to the upper part of the obturator foramen. The posterior branch follows the posterior margin of the foramen and turns forward on the inferior ramus of the ischium. It also supplies an articular branch, which enters the hip joint through the acetabular notch, sending a branch along the ligamentum teres to the head of the femur. It is the main source of arterial supply to the medial compartment of the thigh

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Perforin are present in the granules of which cell? ...

    Correct

    • Perforin are present in the granules of which cell?

      Your Answer: Natural killer cell

      Explanation:

      Perforins are characteristically found In the granules of CD8+ T cells and natural killer cells. They are cytolytic proteins that insert into the target plasma membrane forming a hole and resulting in lysis. They along with granzyme B induce apoptosis in the target cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication would most likely predispose the patient to develop hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The most important potential side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalaemia (high potassium levels), which, in severe cases, can be life-threatening. Hyperkalaemia in these patients can present as a non anion-gap metabolic acidosis. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      8.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (12/14) 86%
Head & Neck (3/4) 75%
Lower Limb (2/2) 100%
Gastroenterology (4/4) 100%
Physiology (7/8) 88%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (0/1) 0%
Pathology (6/8) 75%
Renal (1/3) 33%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Abdomen (4/5) 80%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (2/2) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed