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  • Question 1 - Where do the portal hypophysial vessels arise? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where do the portal hypophysial vessels arise?

      Your Answer: Medial mamillary nucleus

      Correct Answer: Median eminence

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamic-hypophysial portal system connects the brain to the anterior pituitary. It is made up of two capillary beds, one in the median eminence and the other in the anterior pituitary. Blood from the plexus of the median eminence is carried by portal veins, draining into the cavernous and posterior intercavernous sinuses. This system delivers hypothalamic hormones to their target cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria? ...

    Correct

    • In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria?

      Your Answer: Carbamoyl phosphate

      Explanation:

      Before the urea cycle begins ammonia is converted to carbamoyl phosphate in the mitochondria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Impulse conduction through the AV node is slow and depends on the action...

    Correct

    • Impulse conduction through the AV node is slow and depends on the action potential produced by which of the following.

      Your Answer: Calcium flux

      Explanation:

      The action potentials in the SA and AV nodes are largely due to Ca2+, with no contribution by Na+ influx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old female known with schizophrenia is being reviewed in the emergency department....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female known with schizophrenia is being reviewed in the emergency department. Her mother claims that she has been 'staring' for the past few hours but has now developed abnormal head movements and has gone 'cross-eyed'. On examination, the patient's neck is extended and positioned to the right. Her eyes are deviated upwards and are slightly converged. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Procyclidine

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is an oculogyric crisis, that is most appropriately managed with procyclidine or benztropine (antimuscarinic). An oculogyric crisis is a dystonic reaction to certain drugs or medical conditions.Features include:Restlessness, agitationInvoluntary upward deviation of the eyesCauses:PhenothiazinesHaloperidolMetoclopramidePostencephalitic Parkinson’s diseaseManagement:Intravenous antimuscarinic agents like benztropine or procyclidine, alternatively diphenhydramine or ethopropazine maybe used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      65.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Hydroxyl radicals are broken down by which of the following substance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hydroxyl radicals are broken down by which of the following substance?

      Your Answer: Hydroxyl reductase

      Correct Answer: Antioxidants

      Explanation:

      Unlike superoxide, which can be detoxified by superoxide dismutase, the hydroxyl radical cannot be eliminated by an enzymatic reaction but it is believed can be counteracted by antioxidants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following is not secreted by cells in the antrum of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not secreted by cells in the antrum of the stomach?

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Correct Answer: Hydrochloric acid

      Explanation:

      Cells in the body of the stomach secrete mucus, HCl and pepsinogen. Cells in the antrum secrete pepsinogen, gastrin and mucus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Calcium induced calcium release occurs in the sarcoplasmic reticulum by activation of which...

    Correct

    • Calcium induced calcium release occurs in the sarcoplasmic reticulum by activation of which receptors

      Your Answer: Ryanodine receptors

      Explanation:

      Calcium-induced calcium release (CICR) describes a biological process whereby calcium is able to activate calcium release from intracellular Ca2+ stores (e.g., endoplasmic reticulum or sarcoplasmic reticulum). CICR occurs when the resulting Ca2+ influx activates ryanodine receptors on the SR membrane, which causes more Ca2+ to be released into the cytosol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Ventricular depolarization plus ventricular repolarization is shown by the _____ interval ...

    Correct

    • Ventricular depolarization plus ventricular repolarization is shown by the _____ interval

      Your Answer: QT

      Explanation:

      The QT interval represents ventricular depolarization as well as ventricular repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The following determines the strength of contraction ...

    Correct

    • The following determines the strength of contraction

      Your Answer: Plateau phase

      Explanation:

      The plateau phase which follows is unique to myocytes and results from a small, but sustained inward calcium current through L-type calcium channels lasting 200-400 ms. This calcium influx is caused by a combined increase in permeability of the cell and especially the sarcolemmal membranes to calcium. This plateau (or refractory) phase in myocyte action potential prevents early reactivation of the myocytes and directly determines the strength of contraction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The Afferent neuron that supplies all sensory elements of the muscle spindle is...

    Correct

    • The Afferent neuron that supplies all sensory elements of the muscle spindle is what type of sensory neuron?

      Your Answer: Ia

      Explanation:

      Muscle spindle is supplied by both sensory and motor nerves. Sensory supply is Type Ia fibers whereas motor supply is gamma motor neurone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The cell membrane: ...

    Incorrect

    • The cell membrane:

      Your Answer: Is an impermeable membrane

      Correct Answer: Is a bilayer of amphipathic lipids

      Explanation:

      The cell membrane consists of a bilayer of amphipathic lipids with embedded proteins. The basic function of the cell membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings. It is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules. The entire membrane is held together via non-covalent interaction of hydrophobic tails, however the structure is quite fluid and not fixed rigidly in place. Membranes are typically 7.5–10 nm in thickness and typically have a large content of proteins, around 50% of membrane volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the function of the macula densa, located in the wall of...

    Correct

    • What is the function of the macula densa, located in the wall of the thick ascending limb?

      Your Answer: Tubuloglomerular feedback.

      Explanation:

      Macula densa cells sense changes in sodium chloride level, and will trigger an autoregulatory response to increase or decrease reabsorption of ions and water to the blood (as needed) in order to alter blood volume and return blood pressure to normal. Tubuloglomerular feedback is one of several mechanisms the kidney uses to regulate glomerular filtration rate (GFR). It involves the concept of purinergic signalling, in which an increased distal tubular sodium chloride concentration causes a basolateral release of adenosine from the macula densa cells. This initiates a cascade of events that ultimately brings GFR to an appropriate level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the most abundant cell type in the central nervous system called?...

    Correct

    • What is the most abundant cell type in the central nervous system called?

      Your Answer: Astrocyte

      Explanation:

      Astrocytes are the supporting cells of the central nervous system. There are two types; the fibrous type is found in the white matter and the protoplasmic type in the grey matter. They are the most abundant cell type in the CNS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which neurotransmitter is found in the postganglionic parasympathetic synaptic cleft? ...

    Correct

    • Which neurotransmitter is found in the postganglionic parasympathetic synaptic cleft?

      Your Answer: Acetylcholine

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released from the postganglionic parasympathetic neuron into the synaptic cleft and also by some postganglionic sympathetic neurons as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - In the malaria life cycle , parasites which remain dormant in the liver...

    Incorrect

    • In the malaria life cycle , parasites which remain dormant in the liver are known as :

      Your Answer: Merozoites

      Correct Answer: Hypnozoites

      Explanation:

      The life-cycles of Plasmodium species involve several different stages both in the insect and the vertebrate host. These stages include sporozoites, which are injected by the insect vector into the vertebrate host’s blood. Sporozoites infect the host liver, giving rise to merozoites and (in some species) hypnozoites. These move into the blood where they infect red blood cells. In the red blood cells, the parasites can either form more merozoites to infect more red blood cells, or produce gametocytes which are taken up by insects which feed on the vertebrate host. In the insect host, gametocytes merge to sexually reproduce. After sexual reproduction, parasites grow into new sporozoites, which move to the insect’s salivary glands, from which they can infect a vertebrate host bitten by the insect

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the structure of DNA?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the structure of DNA?

      Your Answer: A nucleotide is a base joined to a sugar phosphate unit.

      Correct Answer: The two strands of DNA are held together by cysteine bonds.

      Explanation:

      The two strands of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds formed between the nucleotide bases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, sweating, hyperventilation and breathing difficulty. He also complains of a continuous ringing sensation in both his ears for the past couple of days. He admits to consuming a lot of over the counter painkillers for the past few days. Which of the following drugs is the most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      The presence of tinnitus, fever and hyperventilation are clues for aspirin (salicylate) toxicity. Clinical Presentation of salicylate toxicity can include:• Pulmonary manifestations include: Hyperventilation, hyperpnea, severe dyspnoea due to noncardiogenic pulmonary oedema, fever and dyspnoea due to aspiration pneumonitis• Auditory symptoms caused by the ototoxicity of salicylate poisoning include: Hard of hearing and deafness, and tinnitus (commonly encountered when serum salicylate concentrations exceed 30 mg/dL).• Cardiovascular manifestations include: Tachycardia, hypotension, dysrhythmias – E.g., ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, multiple premature ventricular contractions, asystole – with severe intoxication, Electrocardiogram (ECG) abnormalities – E.g., U waves, flattened T waves, QT prolongation may reflect hypokalaemia.• Neurologic manifestations include: CNS depression, with manifestations ranging from somnolence and lethargy to seizures and coma, tremors, blurring of vision, seizures, cerebral oedema – With severe intoxication, encephalopathy• GI manifestations include: Nausea and vomiting, which are very common with acute toxicity, epigastric pain, GI haemorrhage – More common with chronic intoxication, intestinal perforation, pancreatitis, hepatitis – Generally in chronic toxicity; rare in acute toxicity, Oesophageal strictures – Reported as a very rare delayed complication• Genitourinary manifestations include: Acute kidney injury (NSAID induced Nephropathy) is an uncommon complication of salicylate toxicity, renal failure may be secondary to multisystem organ failure.• Hematologic effects may include prolongation of the prothrombin and bleeding times and decreased platelet adhesiveness. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may be noted with multisystem organ failure in association with chronic salicylate toxicity.• Electrolyte imbalances like: Dehydration, hypocalcaemia, acidaemia, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), hypokalaemiaManagement of these patients should be done in the following manner:• Secure Airway, Breathing, and Circulation• Supportive therapy• GI decontamination• Urinary excretion and alkalization• Haemodialysis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the primary problem of achalasia ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary problem of achalasia

      Your Answer: Neuronal death in lower oesophageal sphincter

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of myenteric plexus at the lower oesophageal sphincter

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder involving the smooth muscle layer of the oesophagus is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) relaxation and aperistalsis, caused primarily by the loss of the inhibitory innervation of the oesophageal myenteric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 24-year-old student is brought to A&E having ingested at least 20 tablets...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old student is brought to A&E having ingested at least 20 tablets of paracetamol 8 hours earlier. She weighs 61kg. What should her immediate management consist of?

      Your Answer: Activated charcoal

      Correct Answer: Intravenous N-acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is useful if given within one hour of the paracetamol overdose. Liver function tests, INR and prothrombin time will be normal, as liver damage may not manifest until 24 hours or more after ingestion. The antidote of choice is intravenous N-acetylcysteine, which provides complete protection against toxicity if given within 10 hours of the overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year...

    Correct

    • Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year old student who has ankylosing spondylitis and complains of worsening back pain and morning stiffness?

      Your Answer: Oral NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs are considered as the first line of treatment for managing pain and stiffness associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Other useful medications include TNF-alpha inhibitors. Other drugs like paracetamol, colchicine, and steroids are not routinely used. Bilateral total hip replacement might be indicated in advanced disease contrary to complicated spinal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The predominant receptors in the hearts conduction system are? ...

    Correct

    • The predominant receptors in the hearts conduction system are?

      Your Answer: Î’1

      Explanation:

      All of the components of the intrinsic conduction system contain autorhythmic cells that spontaneously depolarize. In the absence of extrinsic neural or hormonal influences, the SA node pacing rate would be about 100 beats per minute (bpm). The heart rate and cardiac output, however, must vary in response to the needs of the body’s cells for oxygen and nutrients under varying conditions. In order to respond rapidly to changing requirements of the body’s tissues, the heart rate and contractility are regulated by the autonomic nervous system (ANS), hormones, and other factors. The ANS has two interacting systems: the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.

      Sympathetic receptors: There are two types of adrenergic receptors: β and α. In the cardiovascular system there are β1, β2, α1, and α2 adrenergic receptors. β1 adrenergic receptors are expressed in the heart conduction system (in the SA node, AV node, and on atrial and ventricular cardiomyocytes). The activation of β1 receptors increases heart rate (via the SA node), and contractility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The Cellular Theory of Ageing involves? ...

    Incorrect

    • The Cellular Theory of Ageing involves?

      Your Answer: Somatic mutation

      Correct Answer: Loss of telomeres

      Explanation:

      Cellular theories of aging propose that human aging is the result of cellular aging, whereby an increasing proportion of cells reach senescence, a terminal stage at which cells will cease to divide. This will limit the body’s ability to regenerate and to respond to injury or stress. Telomeres are bits of DNA on the ends of chromosomes that protect chromosomes from sticking to each other or tangling, which could cause DNA to abnormally function. As cells replicate, telomeres shorten at the end of chromosomes, and this process correlates to senescence or cellular aging.

      Other theories include:

      1. The Free Radical Theory: Implicates the gradual accumulation of oxidative cellular damage as a fundamental driver of cellular aging. This theory has evolved over time to emphasize the role of free radical induced mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) mutations and the accumulation of mtDNA deletions. Given the proximity of mtDNA to the electron transport chain, a primary producer of free radicals, it postulates that the mutations would promote mitochondrial dysfunction and concomitantly increase free radical production in a positive feedback loop. It is known that diet, lifestyle, drugs (e.g. tobacco and alcohol) and radiation etc., are all accelerators of free radical production within the body.
      2. Error theory: based on the idea that errors can occur in the transcription of the synthesis of DNA. These errors are perpetuated and eventually lead to systems that do not function at the optimum level. The organism’s aging and death are attributable to these events (Sonneborn, 1979).
      3. The Cross-Linking Theory: also referred to as the Glycosylation Theory of Aging. In this theory it is the binding of glucose (simple sugars) to protein, (a process that occurs under the presence of oxygen) that causes various problems. Once this binding has occurred the protein becomes impaired and is unable to perform as efficiently. Living a longer life is going to lead to the increased possibility of oxygen meeting glucose and protein and known cross-linking disorders include senile cataract and the appearance of tough, leathery and yellow skin.
      4. The Neuroendocrine Theory First proposed by Professor Vladimir Dilman and Ward Dean MD, this theory elaborates on wear and tear by focusing on the neuroendocrine system. This system is a complicated network of biochemicals that govern the release of hormones which are altered by the walnut sized gland called the hypothalamus located in the brain. The hypothalamus controls various chain-reactions to instruct other organs and glands to release their hormones etc. The hypothalamus also responds to the body hormone levels as a guide to the overall hormonal activity. But as we grow older the hypothalamus loses it precision regulatory ability and the receptors which uptake individual hormones become less sensitive to them. Accordingly, as we age the secretion of many hormones declines and their effectiveness (compared unit to unit) is also reduced due to the receptors down-grading
      5. The Membrane Theory of Aging: According to this theory it is the age-related changes of the cell’s ability to transfer chemicals, heat and electrical processes that impair it. As we grow older the cell membrane becomes less lipid (less watery and more solid). This impedes its efficiency to conduct normal function and in particular there is a toxic accumulation
      6. The Decline Theory: The mitochondria are the power producing organelles found in every cell of every organ. Their primary job is to create Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) and they do so in the various energy cycles that involve nutrients such as Acetyl-L-Carnitine, CoQ10 (Idebenone), NADH and some B vitamins etc. Enhancement and protection of the mitochondria is an essential part of preventing and slowing aging. Enhancement can be achieved with the above mention nutrients, as well as ATP supplements themselves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - As assessed by immunocytochemistry and electron microscopy, the anterior pituitary gland contains how...

    Incorrect

    • As assessed by immunocytochemistry and electron microscopy, the anterior pituitary gland contains how many different types of cells?

      Your Answer: 8

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      The pituitary is divided into three sections

      -the anterior lobe which constitute the majority of the pituitary mass and is composed primarily of five hormone-producing cell types (thyrotropes, lactotropes, corticotropes, somatotropes and gonadotropes) each secreting thyrotropin, prolactin, ACTH, growth hormone and gonadotropins (FSH and LH) respectively.

      There is also a sixth cell type in the anterior lobe -the non-endocrine, agranular, folliculostellate cells.

      The intermediate lobe produces melanocyte-stimulating hormone and endorphins, whereas the posterior lobe secretes anti-diuretic hormone (vasopressin) and oxytocin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Normal parents have a child with a recessive condition, Tay Sachs. The chance...

    Incorrect

    • Normal parents have a child with a recessive condition, Tay Sachs. The chance of them having a normal child is?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      The chance for normal parents having a child with a recessive disease is 1:4 or 25%. As both the parents are heterozygous for this condition. They have a 3:4 chance of having a normal child or 75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman under treatment for manic-depressive psychosis presents in an unconscious state after an episode of seizure on the street. Her husband who accompanied her into the ER reported that they argued about 6-7 hours ago. On examination, she is found to be hypertonic with a GCS of 8, BP: 90/60 mmHg and a pulse of 105 bpm. Blood investigations revealed a lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L. She was intubated and ventilated. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management in this case?

      Your Answer: N saline should be started iv

      Explanation:
      1. Normal saline (N saline) should be started IV: Intravenous normal saline is recommended to enhance renal excretion of lithium. Adequate hydration is crucial because lithium is primarily excreted by the kidneys, and maintaining good urine output can help reduce lithium levels.
      2. Dialysis: This is considered the most effective treatment for severe lithium toxicity, especially when serum levels are significantly elevated (typically >2.5 mmol/L) and the patient presents with severe symptoms such as seizures, altered mental status, or renal impairment. Given the patient’s lithium level of 3.2 mmol/L and her critical condition, dialysis is necessary to rapidly reduce lithium levels.

      The other options are less appropriate or ineffective in this context:

      • Gastric lavage should be considered: This is not typically recommended for lithium poisoning because lithium is rapidly absorbed and lavage is unlikely to be effective several hours post-ingestion.
      • Activated charcoal is likely to be effective: Activated charcoal does not effectively bind lithium and is not recommended for lithium poisoning.
      • 5% dextrose should be started IV: While maintaining hydration is important, normal saline is preferred over dextrose solutions in this context to promote renal excretion of lithium.
      • Dialysis is not normally required unless levels are above 5 mmol/L: This statement is incorrect. Dialysis is often required at lower levels, particularly in cases of severe toxicity or if the patient is symptomatic, as seen in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - How many molecules of myosin attach to actin at any given time? ...

    Correct

    • How many molecules of myosin attach to actin at any given time?

      Your Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      1 molecule of myosin binds to actin at any give time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis has recently been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Monitoring of full blood count and LFTs has been carried out. Which of the following parameters should also be monitored in this case?

      Your Answer: QT interval on ECG

      Correct Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Blood pressure should be routinely measured as leflunomide may cause hypertension and thus an increase in BP. It doesn’t cause changes in blood sugar levels, peak expiratory flow rate or haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach is via the:...

    Incorrect

    • The blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach is via the:

      Your Answer: Right and left gastric arteries

      Correct Answer: Right and left gastro-epiploic arteries

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the greater curvature of the stomach is via the left and the right gastro-epiploic arteries branching from the splenic artery near the hilum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Using the Cockcroft-Gault formula, what will the estimated creatinine clearance be of a...

    Correct

    • Using the Cockcroft-Gault formula, what will the estimated creatinine clearance be of a 55 year old male who weighs 75kg and has a serum creatinine of 150mg/dL?

      Your Answer: 0.59ml/min

      Explanation:

      A commonly used surrogate marker for estimate of creatinine clearance is the Cockcroft-Gault (CG) formula, which in turn estimates GFR in ml/min:CCr = [(140-age) x Mass(kg)]/[72 x serum creatinine (mg/dL)](multiply by 0.85 for women)Therefore CCr = (85 x 75)/(72 x 150) = 0.59

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      55.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old male presents with a history of lower back pain for the last one year. Presence of which of the following features most likely points towards ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Presence of HLA-B27 antigen on tissue typing

      Correct Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray

      Explanation:

      Bilateral erosions of the sacroiliac joints on pelvic radiographs of patients with ankylosing spondylitis are an important feature of the modified New York classification criteria. Although HLA-B27 is commonly associated with AS, it can also be found in normal individuals. Back stiffness is worse in the morning and gets better as the day progresses. Tenderness and limited lumbar motion can be associated with other spine problems as well and is not characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      12.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Medicine (16/30) 53%
Metabolism (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (6/6) 100%
Pharmacology (3/4) 75%
Cell Biology (0/3) 0%
Gastrointestinal (0/3) 0%
Neurology (3/3) 100%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Genetics (0/2) 0%
Connective Tissue (1/3) 33%
Passmed