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  • Question 1 - A 25 year-old male patient was brought to the hospital due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old male patient was brought to the hospital due to a vehicular accident. A skull x-ray was done which revealed a fracture along the base of the middle cranial fossa. The patient has no sense of touch over the skin over his cheek and chin. Injury to the maxillary and the mandibular nerves is suspected. In which foramina do these two affected sensory branches leave the cranial cavity.

      Your Answer: Foramen ovale and foramen spinosum

      Correct Answer: Foramen rotundum and foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      The patient’s clinical manifestations suggests an injury to the maxillary and mandibular nerves. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum. At the base of the skull the foramen ovale (Latin: oval window) is one of the larger of the several holes (the foramina) that transmit nerves through the skull. The foramen ovale is situated in the posterior part of the sphenoid bone, posterolateral to the foramen rotundum. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery (small meningeal or paradural branch, sometimes derived from the middle meningeal artery), lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve and an emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins. Occasionally it will also carry the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      45.4
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organelles have the capacity to regenerate and spontaneously replicate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitochondrion

      Explanation:

      A mitochondria is a membrane bound organelle found in eukaryotic cells. They are called the powerhouse of the cell and are the place where ATP is formed from energy generated through metabolism. They are capable of replication as well as repair and regeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningococcaemia

      Explanation:

      Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of...

    Incorrect

    • A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of the mouth. Which structure will experience decreased blood flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The sublingual gland

      Explanation:

      The paired sublingual glands are major salivary glands in the mouth. They are the smallest, most diffuse, and the only unencapsulated major salivary glands. They provide only 3-5% of the total salivary volume. The gland receives its blood supply from the sublingual and submental arteries. The sublingual artery is a branch of the lingual artery, thus damage to the lingual artery will decrease the blood flow to the sublingual gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A surgeon ligates the left superior suprarenal artery whilst preforming a left adrenalectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon ligates the left superior suprarenal artery whilst preforming a left adrenalectomy. Where does the left superior suprarenal artery originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left inferior phrenic artery

      Explanation:

      The superior suprarenal arteries arises from the inferior phrenic artery on either side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure? ...

    Incorrect

    • During a normal respiratory exhalation, what is the recoil alveolar pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: +10 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      To determine compliance of the respiratory system, changes in transmural pressures (in and out) immediately across the lung or chest cage (or both) are measured simultaneously with changes in lung or thoracic cavity volume. Changes in lung or thoracic cage volume are determined using a spirometer with transmural pressures measured by pressure transducers. For the lung alone, transmural pressure is calculated as the difference between alveolar (pA; inside) and intrapleural (ppl; outside) pressure. To calculate chest cage compliance, transmural pressure is ppl (inside) minus atmospheric pressure (pB; outside). For the combined lung–chest cage, transmural pressure or transpulmonary pressure is computed as pA – pB. pA pressure is determined by having the subject deeply inhale a measured volume of air from a spirometer. Under physiological conditions the transpulmonary or recoil pressure is always positive; intrapleural pressure is always negative and relatively large, while alveolar pressure moves from slightly negative to slightly positive as a person breathes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Atrial septal defect (ASD) is most likely to be due to incomplete closure...

    Incorrect

    • Atrial septal defect (ASD) is most likely to be due to incomplete closure of which one of the following structures:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defect is a congenital heart defect that results in a communication between the right and left atria of the heart and may involve the interatrial septum. It results from incomplete closure of the foramen ovale which is normally open during fetal life and closes just after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old female was alarmed when she started to experience hair loss and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female was alarmed when she started to experience hair loss and balding, however, she also noted increased hair on her face and body and developed an acne breakout. Deepening of her voice also became prominent. She was referred to an oncologist and was diagnosed with a hormone-producing tumour. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrhenoblastoma

      Explanation:

      Arrhenoblastoma, known as ‘Sertoli–Leydig tumour’ is a rare ovarian stromal neoplasm that secretes testosterone. It is mostly seen in women in the reproductive years. The key clinical features of this tumour is due to excessive production of testosterone which leads to progressive masculinisation in a woman who was typical normal beforehand. The lesion tends to grow slowly and rarely metastasises. Treatment is surgical removal of the tumour and the prognosis is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles? ...

    Incorrect

    • The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obturator externus

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve supplies both gemellae, quadratus femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, both heads of the biceps femoris, the hamstring half of abductor magnus and obturator internus. Obturator externus is supplied by the obturator nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - What is the normal duration of PR interval on an electrocardiogram of a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the normal duration of PR interval on an electrocardiogram of a healthy individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.12–0.20 s

      Explanation:

      PR interval extends from the beginning of the P-wave until the beginning of the QRS complex. The normal duration of the PR interval is 0.12-0.20 s. It can be prolonged in first degree heart block, and reduced in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve, innervates which one of the following muscles...

    Incorrect

    • Cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve, innervates which one of the following muscles in the list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyoglossus

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerve XII, hypoglossal nerve, innervates all the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossus. The muscles of the tongue innervated by this nerve include the extrinsic muscles; hyoglossus, styloglossus, genioglossus and the intrinsic muscles; superior longitudinal, inferior longitudinal, vertical and transverse muscles. The salpingopharyngeus, palatoglossus and the palatopharyngeus muscles are innervated by the vagus nerve. The stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX). The mylohyoid muscle is innervated by the inferior alveolar nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve. Finally, the geniohyoid muscle is innervated by the olfactory nerve (CN I) via the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon performing a thymectomy to remove a malignant thymoma is careful to avoid damaging an important nerve lying around the arch of the aorta. Which nerve is the surgeon trying to preserve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left Vagus

      Explanation:

      The left vagus nerve lies on the lateral surface of the aortic arch. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus and loops around the arch of the aorta. This nerve is at risk of injury during surgery.

      The right and left phrenic nerves, being lateral to the vagus, do not loop around the arch of the aorta.

      The sympathetic trunks, both right and left, are located in the posterior chest; not near the aortic arch.

      The right vagus: not involved with the aortic arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - A brain tumour causing blockage of the hypophyseal portal system is likely to...

    Incorrect

    • A brain tumour causing blockage of the hypophyseal portal system is likely to result in an increased secretion of which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The hypophyseal portal system links the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary. With the help of this system, the anterior pituitary receives releasing and inhibitory hormones from the hypothalamus and regulates the action of other endocrine glands. One of the inhibitory hormones carried by this system is the prolactin-inhibitory hormone. In the absence of this hormone which might occur in case of a blockage of the system, prolactin secretion increases to about three times normal levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - A lad involved in a road traffic accident is rushed to casualty where...

    Incorrect

    • A lad involved in a road traffic accident is rushed to casualty where physical examination reveals that he has limited extension of his right humerus. Which of the following nerves is most likely to have been injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal nerve

      Explanation:

      Extension of the humerus is a function of the latissimus dorsi. This muscle is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve which is a branch of the posterior cord of the plexus whose fibres are derived from cranial nerves V, VI and VII.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A 23 year old woman is Rh -ve and she delivered a baby...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old woman is Rh -ve and she delivered a baby with a Rh+ blood group. What measure can be performed to prevent Rh incompatibility in the next pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin D

      Explanation:

      Rh disease is also known as erythroblastosis fetalis and is a disease of the new-born. In mild states it can cause anaemia with reticulocytosis and in severe forms causes severe anaemia, morbus hemolytcus new-born and hydrops fetalis. RBCs of the Rh+ baby can cross the placenta and enter into the maternal blood. As she is Rh- her body will form antibodies against the D antigen which will pass through the placenta in subsequent pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caecum

      Explanation:

      The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the...

    Incorrect

    • During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the posterior vagal trunk is injured. This damage would affect muscular movements as well as some secretory activities of the gastrointestinal tract. Which gastrointestinal segment is LEAST likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibres to the abdominal structures that are receive arterial supply from the coeliac trunk or superior mesenteric artery i.e. up to the transverse colon. The end of the transverse colon and the gastrointestinal structures distal to this point receive parasympathetic innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and blood from the inferior mesenteric artery(IMA). The ascending colon, caecum, jejunum and ileum would all, thus, be affected by this damage. Sigmoid colon would not be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of...

    Incorrect

    • Gram positive bacteria differ from gram negative bacteria due to the presence of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Outer membrane

      Explanation:

      The reason bacteria are either Gram-positive or Gram-negative is due to the structure of their cell envelope (the cell envelope is defined as the cell membrane and cell wall plus an outer membrane, if one is present.) Gram-positive bacteria, for example, retain the crystal violet due to the amount of peptidoglycan in the cell wall. It can be said therefore that the Gram-stain procedure separates bacteria into two broad categories based on structural differences in the cell envelope.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - The thyroid gland is a large ductless gland located in which part of...

    Incorrect

    • The thyroid gland is a large ductless gland located in which part of the neck?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visceral space

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine gland in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is situated at the front and sides of the neck in the visceral space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Blood investigations of a patient with vitamin K deficiency revealed a prolonged prothrombin...

    Incorrect

    • Blood investigations of a patient with vitamin K deficiency revealed a prolonged prothrombin time. This coagulation abnormality is most probably due to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor VII deficiency

      Explanation:

      Factor VII deficiency is a bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency or reduced activity of clotting factor VII. It may be inherited or acquired at some point during life. Inherited factor VII deficiency is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutations of the F7 gene. Factor VII is vitamin K-dependent, as are Factors II, IX and X and therefore lack of this vitamin can cause the development of acquired factor VII deficiency. Other causes of acquired deficiency of this factor include liver disease, sepsis and warfarin therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who...

    Incorrect

    • A chest x ray is ordered for a 39 year old man who presents with a history of a cough and weight loss for over a month. It shows a rounded opacity in the pleural cavity near the cardiac notch. The opacity is most likely to be in the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Explanation:

      The costomediastinal recess is the point where the costal pleura becomes the mediastinal pleura, located right next to the cardiac notch.

      The cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib to the root of the lung.

      Hilum: located on the medial surface of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.

      Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold found below the root of the lung, is a point of continuity between the visceral and mediastinal pleura.

      Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.

      Superior mediastinum: part of the mediastinum that contains the great vessels leaving and entering the heart.

      The cardiac notch is in the inferior mediastinum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Lack of findings in the bladder but presence of atypical epithelial cells in...

    Incorrect

    • Lack of findings in the bladder but presence of atypical epithelial cells in urinalysis is most often associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma of renal pelvis

      Explanation:

      The presence of atypical cells in urinalysis without findings in the bladder suggests a lesion located higher up, most probably in ureters or renal pelvis. Transitional cell cancer of the renal pelvis is a disease in which malignant cells form in the renal pelvis and is characterised by the presence of abnormal cells in urine cytology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Which of the following coagulation factors cross-links fibrin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following coagulation factors cross-links fibrin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor XIII

      Explanation:

      Factor XIII, also known as fibrin stabilizing factor, is an enzyme of the coagulation cascade that crosslinks fibrin. Deficiency of FXIII may cause bleeding tendency but paradoxically, it may also predispose to thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - The patient who is diagnosed with bladder cancer asked his physician, what could...

    Incorrect

    • The patient who is diagnosed with bladder cancer asked his physician, what could have been the contributing factor in the development of his bladder cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Tobacco smoking is the main known contributor to urinary bladder cancer. In most populations, smoking is associated with over half of bladder cancer cases in men and one-third of cases among women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg, with a drop in systolic pressure to 100 mm Hg on inhalation. This is known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Weakening of pulse with inhalation and strengthening with exhalation is known as pulsus paradoxus. This represents an exaggeration of the normal variation of the pulse in relation to respiration. It indicates conditions such as cardiac tamponade and lung disease. The paradox refers to the auscultation of extra cardiac beats on inspiration, as compared to the pulse. Due to a decrease in blood pressure, the radial pulse becomes impalpable along with an increase in jugular venous pressure height (Kussmaul sign). Normal systolic blood pressure variation (with respiration) is considered to be >10 mmHg. It is >100 mmHg in Pulsus paradoxus. It is also predictive of the severity of cardiac tamponade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal...

    Incorrect

    • Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, despite sensation being intact. Which nerve was likely damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior interosseous nerve which causes, what is known as the posterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The nerve is compressed before it bifurcates to form the medial and lateral branches. The compression is beyond the origin of the branches to the radial wrist extensors and the radial sensory nerve. The result of such a case is paralysis of the digital extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris, resulting in dorsoradial deviation of the wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - What class of drugs does buspirone belong to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What class of drugs does buspirone belong to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anxiolytic

      Explanation:

      Buspirone is an anxiolytic agent and a serotonin-receptor agonist that belongs to the azaspirodecanedione class of compounds. It shows no potential for addiction compared with other drugs commonly prescribed for anxiety, especially the benzodiazepines. The development of tolerance has not been noted. It is primarily used to treat generalized anxiety disorders. It is also commonly used to augment antidepressants in the treatment of major depressive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Endometrial hyperplasia is most likely to be associated with which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Endometrial hyperplasia is most likely to be associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibrothecoma

      Explanation:

      A benign tumour arising from the ovarian stroma, fibrothecoma are bilateral in 10% cases. The thecoma component of the tumour can produce oestrogen leading to endometrial hyperplasia. The thecoma is rich in lipid content and is responsible for the yellowish appearance of the tumour. Meig’s syndrome is the presence of fibrothecoma with a right-sided hydrothorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - A pedestrian sustained a left fibula fractured following a hit-and-run. X-rays showed that...

    Incorrect

    • A pedestrian sustained a left fibula fractured following a hit-and-run. X-rays showed that there was a transverse fracture of the upper end of the fibula. It was manifested clinically by inability to flex his foot at the ankle joint plus weak extension of the phalanges. What nerve is suspected to be injured in such a case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve supplies the muscles allowing for flexion of the foot at the ankle joint, namely the tibialis anterior and peroneus tertius muscles. The peroneus tertius, peroneus brevis, and peroneus longus evert the foot, whereas the tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior invert the foot. Fibres of the deep peroneal nerve originate from L4, L5, and S1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 31 - Which of the following structures is derived from the dorsal mesogastrium of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures is derived from the dorsal mesogastrium of the stomach during the development of the gut?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Greater omentum

      Explanation:

      In a developing foetus, the stomach has two mesogastria from which most of the abdominal ligaments develop. These two mesogastria are the; ventral mesogastrium and the dorsal mesogastrium. During the embryological development of the gut, different organs develop in each mesogastrium; the spleen and pancreas in the dorsal mesogastrium while the liver in the ventral mesogastrium (with their associated ligaments). In the dorsal mesogastrium the following structures develop; the greater omentum (containing the gastrophrenic ligament and the gastrocolic ligament), gastrosplenic ligament, mesentery, splenorenal ligament and phrenicocolic ligament. The structures that develop from the ventral mesogastrium include the; lesser omentum (containing the hepatoduodenal ligament and the hepatogastric ligament) in association with the liver; the coronary ligament (left triangular ligament, right triangular ligament and hepatorenal ligament) and the falciform ligament (round ligament of liver and ligamentum venosum within).

      There are also folds that develop from the dorsal mesogastrium which include; umbilical folds, supravesical fossa, medial inguinal fossa, lateral umbilical fold, lateral inguinal fossa and Ileocecal fold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 32 - Langhans giant cells are characteristically seen in which type of inflammation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Langhans giant cells are characteristically seen in which type of inflammation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granulomatous inflammation

      Explanation:

      Langhans giant cells are characteristically seen in granulomatous inflammation. They form when epithelioid cells fuse together. They usually contain a nuclei with a horseshoe-shaped pattern in the periphery of the cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 33 - The bronchial circulation is a part of the circulatory system that supplies nutrients and oxygen to the pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • The bronchial circulation is a part of the circulatory system that supplies nutrients and oxygen to the pulmonary parenchyma. What percentage of cardiac output is received by bronchial circulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      The bronchial circulation is part of the systemic circulation and receives about 2% of the cardiac output from the left heart. Bronchial arteries arise from branches of the aorta, intercostal, subclavian or internal mammary arteries. The bronchial arteries supply the tracheobronchial tree with both nutrients and O2. It is complementary to the pulmonary circulation that brings deoxygenated blood to the lungs and carries oxygenated blood away from them in order to oxygenate the rest of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 34 - A lesion involving the suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus is likely to affect: ...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion involving the suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus is likely to affect:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regulation of circadian rhythm

      Explanation:

      The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the hypothalamus is responsible for controlling endogenous circadian rhythms and destruction of the SCN leads to a loss of circadian rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 35 - A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit. A MRI reveals a large, poorly defined mass with central necrosis in his left temporal lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glioblastoma multiforme

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme, or grade 4 astrocytoma, is the most common and aggressive primary brain tumour. They are formed by small areas of necrotising tissue surrounded by highly anaplastic cells. Most of them arise from the deep white matter of the brain and quickly infiltrate it, becoming very large before they are symptomatic. The most common symptom is progressive memory, personality or neurological deficit due to temporal and frontal lobe involvement. It is most common in men, and risk factors include: neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, Von Hippel-Lindau disease, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and Turcot syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 36 - Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is known to be a carcinogen for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is known to be a carcinogen for:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B-cell lymphoma

      Explanation:

      EBV is known to be carcinogenic for B-cell lymphoma, nasopharyngel carcinoma and Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology; Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 37 - A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior to the upper edge of the clavicle. She had difficulty in breathing which is interpreted by the A&E physician as a likely indicator of a collapsed lung. If that is the case, what portion of the pleura is most likely to have been punctured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      The cupola is part of the pleura that extends above the first rib into the root of the lung. Most likely to injured in a stab above the level of the clavicle.

      Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural sac.

      Pulmonary ligament: is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.

      Mediastinal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the mediastinal cavity.

      Hilar reflection is the part of the pleura where the visceral pleura of the lung reflects to become continuous with the parietal pleura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
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      Seconds

  • Question 38 - Carbachol is a cholinergic agonist. In which of these cases should carbachol be...

    Incorrect

    • Carbachol is a cholinergic agonist. In which of these cases should carbachol be administered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cataract surgery

      Explanation:

      Carbachol (carbamylcholine) is a cholinergic agent, a choline ester and a positively charged quaternary ammonium compound. It is primarily used for various ophthalmic purposes, such as for treating glaucoma, or for use during ophthalmic surgery. It is usually administered topically to the eye or through intraocular injection. It is not well absorbed in the gastro-intestinal tract and does not cross the blood–brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 39 - A 56-year-old woman complains of back pain, muscle spasms, weakness, and a burning...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman complains of back pain, muscle spasms, weakness, and a burning sensation that radiates from her left hip to her toes. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herniated nucleus pulposus

      Explanation:

      A herniated disk will produce sensory disturbances, causing pain that radiates along the course of the sciatic nerve which is typically burning or stabbing, with or without back pain. The herniation is usually caused by age-related degeneration although trauma, injuries, or straining may also trigger it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 40 - What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower subscapular

      Explanation:

      The muscle is the subscapularis muscle which is supplied by the lower subscapular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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      Seconds

  • Question 41 - Electrophoresis is used to detect antibodies (immunoglobulins) in a blood sample from the...

    Incorrect

    • Electrophoresis is used to detect antibodies (immunoglobulins) in a blood sample from the umbilical artery of a new born. Which antibodies have the highest percentage in a new-born?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      IgG is a monomeric immunoglobulin. It is formed by two heavy chains and two light chains and has two binding sites. Its is the most abundant antibody that is equally distributed in the blood and the tissues. It is the only antibody that can pass through the placenta and thus the only antibody present in the baby after it is born. There are four subclasses: IgG1 (66%), IgG2 (23%), IgG3 (7%) and IgG4 (4%). IgG1, IgG3 and IgG4 cross the placenta easily

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
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  • Question 42 - A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a...

    Incorrect

    • A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a cystic swelling in the left chest. The radiologist inserted the biopsy needle into the 9th intercostal space along the mid axillary line to aspirate the swelling and obtain tissue for histological diagnosis. In which space is the swelling most likely to be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.

      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.

      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.

      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.

      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
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  • Question 43 - After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is...

    Incorrect

    • After severe injury of the upper limb following an accident. The humerus is injured as well as the nerve which innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm. Which nerve is injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Explanation:

      The musculoskeletal nerve supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm including the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii and the greater part of the brachialis. This nerve derives its fibres from the fifth, sixth and seventh cervical nerves and arises from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. It also provides a branch to the elbow joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 44 - A 36-year-old female was advised to undergo genetic testing of BRCA1 and BRCA2....

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old female was advised to undergo genetic testing of BRCA1 and BRCA2. BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumour markers specifically for which organ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast

      Explanation:

      Women with harmful mutations in either BRCA1 or BRCA2 have a risk of breast cancer that is about five times the normal risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 45 - Which is the correct superficial to deep order of structures that would be...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the correct superficial to deep order of structures that would be affected following a knife wound to the lateral aspect of the knee?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: skin, fibular collateral ligament, popliteus muscle tendon, lateral meniscus

      Explanation:

      Skin, fibular collateral ligament, popliteus muscle tendon and lateral meniscus is the correct order of structures covering the lateral aspect of the knee joint from a superficial to deep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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      Seconds

  • Question 46 - During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It...

    Incorrect

    • During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It was a deep cut that led to profuse bleeding from an artery situated on the supinator muscle immediately below the elbow. The vessel most likely to have been injured is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial recurrent artery

      Explanation:

      The radial recurrent artery is situated on the supinator muscle then passing between the brachialis and the brachioradialis muscles. It originates from the radial artery and ends by anastomosing with the terminal part of the Profunda brachii.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 47 - Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trapezius

      Explanation:

      The latissimus dorsi receives blood from the thoracodorsal artery, the supraspinatus receives its blood from the suprascapular artery, the levator scapulae and the rhomboids are supplied by the dorsal scapular artery and the transverse cervical artery supplies blood to the trapezius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 48 - A 68-year-old man underwent sigmoid resection with diverting colostomy for a ruptured sigmoid...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man underwent sigmoid resection with diverting colostomy for a ruptured sigmoid diverticulum 10 days ago. He received gentamicin and ampicillin post-op. 2 days after he was discharged from the hospital, he was readmitted because of high grade fever and chills. His blood culture grew Gram-negative bacilli. Which organism is most likely responsible for the patient's infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacteroides fragilis

      Explanation:

      Bacteroides fragilis is an anaerobic, Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium. It is part of the normal flora of the human colon and is generally a commensal, but can cause infection if displaced into the bloodstream or surrounding tissue following surgery, disease, or trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 49 - A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old gym coach presented to the surgical out patient clinic with a lump in the inguinal region. He was booked for surgery, during which, the surgeon opened the inguinal region and found a hernial sac with a small segment of intestine projecting through the abdominal wall. It was located just above the inguinal ligament and lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. What type of hernia was this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An indirect inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      An indirect inguinal hernia exits the abdominal cavity lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels and enters the inguinal canal through the deep inguinal ring. These are the most common types of hernias often caused by heavy weigh lifting. Direct inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through weak fascia.

      Congenital inguinal hernias are indirect hernias that occur due to persistence of the processus vaginalis.

      Femoral hernias occur when abdominal viscera push through the femoral ring in the femoral canal.

      Incisional hernia occurs after surgery when the omentum or organ protrudes through a previous site of incision.

      Obturator hernia are a very rare type of hernia where the pelvic or abdominal contents protrude through the obturator foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 50 - A 40-year old gentleman, who is a known with ulcerative colitis, complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old gentleman, who is a known with ulcerative colitis, complains of recent-onset of itching and fatigue. On examination, his serum alkaline phosphatase level was found to be high. Barium radiography of the biliary tract showed a 'beaded' appearance. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis is characterised by patchy inflammation, fibrosis and strictures in intra- and extra-hepatic bile ducts. It is a chronic cholestatic condition with 80% patients having associated inflammatory bowel disease (likely to be ulcerative colitis). Symptoms include pruritus and fatigue. ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography) or MRCP (magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography) are diagnostic. Disease can lead to complete obliteration of ducts, which can result in liver failure. Cholangiocarcinoma is also a recognised complication..

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 51 - A 5-year-old child presents with fever and otalgia. Greenish pustular discharge was seen...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child presents with fever and otalgia. Greenish pustular discharge was seen in his left ear during physical examination. The patient is diagnosed with otitis externa. Which of the following organisms most likely caused the infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      P. aeruginosa is a multidrug resistant pathogen recognised for its ubiquity, its advanced antibiotic resistance mechanisms and its association with serious illnesses – especially hospital-acquired infections such as ventilator-associated pneumonia and various septic syndromes. The species name aeruginosa is a Latin word meaning verdigris (copper rust), referring to the blue-green colour of laboratory cultures of the species. This blue-green pigment is a combination of two metabolites of P. aeruginosa, pyocyanin (blue) and pyoverdine (green), which impart the blue-green characteristic colour of cultures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 52 - Pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen on ingestion of a...

    Incorrect

    • Pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen on ingestion of a fatty meal is seen in a condition which involves which of the following substances?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario described here favours the presence of gallstones. During food ingestion, vagal discharges stimulate gallbladder contraction. Moreover, presence of fat and amino acids in the intestinal lumen stimulates the release of cholecystokinin (CCK) in the duodenum. This causes sustained gallbladder contraction and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. If gallstones are present, there will be inflammation in the gallbladder and CCK will aggravate it due to contractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 53 - A 25-year-old football player suffers severe head trauma during a game. Physical examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old football player suffers severe head trauma during a game. Physical examination reveals a decerebrate posture and bilateral papilledema. A CT scan reveals marked diffuse cerebral oedema. This condition will be most severe in which component of the brain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: White matter

      Explanation:

      The greatest amount of salt and water increase with cerebral oedema occurs within the white matter. Any swelling from oedema, haemorrhage or haematoma increases the intracranial pressure (ICP). As the ICP increases, the cerebral perfusion decreases and brain tissue can become ischaemic, even leading to brain death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 54 - Following a bee sting, a women develops a 2cm red, raised, swollen lesion...

    Incorrect

    • Following a bee sting, a women develops a 2cm red, raised, swollen lesion at the site of the sting . Which of the following findings is likely to be seen in this lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Inflammation is the immediate response of the body towards infections or irritations. The cardinal signs of inflammation are 1. redness/rubor, 2. tumour/swelling, 3.dolar/pain, 4.calor/heat and organ dysfunction (function laesa). Inflammation has 2 components; vascular and cellular. Blood vessels dilate upstream of the inflamed area leading to the rubor and calor and constrict downstream, increasing pressure and causing fluid to leak out of the capillary, resulting in swelling. The cellular component includes infiltration by neutrophils. Leukocyte arrival and functions include; 1. margination: cells marginated from the centre to the periphery of the vessel, 2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls, 3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes resulting in adhesion, 4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product and 5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 55 - A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors...

    Incorrect

    • A Jewish man was diagnosed with haemophilia C. Which of the following factors is deficient in this form of haemophilia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor XI

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia C, also known as plasma thromboplastin antecedent (PTA) deficiency or Rosenthal syndrome, is a condition caused by the deficiency of the coagulation factor XI. The condition is rare and it is usually found in Ashkenazi Jews.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 56 - The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pectoralis minor

      Explanation:

      Situated at the upper part of the thorax beneath the pectoralis major, is a thin pectoralis minor, triangular muscle. It originates from the third, fourth and fifth ribs, near the cartilage and from the aponeurosis which covers the intercostals. These fibres move upwards and laterally to join and form a flat tendon. This is inserted into the medial border and upper surface of the coracoid process of the scapula. Through this medial anterior thoracic nerve, fibres from the pectoralis minor are received from the eighth cervical and first thoracic nerves. This pectoralis minor pushes down on the point of the shoulder (glenoid fossa), drawing the scapula downward and medially towards the thorax which throws the inferior angle backwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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      Seconds

  • Question 57 - Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma do NOT include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma do NOT include:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heptitis E

      Explanation:

      Risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma include hepatitis B and C, aflatoxin, anabolic steroids, alcohol cirrhosis and primary liver disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 58 - After a prolonged coronary artery bypass surgery, a 60-year old gentleman was transfused...

    Incorrect

    • After a prolonged coronary artery bypass surgery, a 60-year old gentleman was transfused 3 units of fresh-frozen plasma and 2 units of packed red cells. Two days later, the nurse noticed that he was tachypnoeic and chest X-ray showed signs consistent with adult respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following variables will be low in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compliance of the lung

      Explanation:

      Acute or adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a reaction to several forms of lung injuries and is commonly associated with sepsis and SIRS (systemic inflammatory response syndrome), severe traumatic injury, severe head injury, narcotics overdose, drowning, pulmonary contusion, and multiple blood transfusions. There is an increase in risk due to pre-existing liver disease or coagulation abnormalities. It results due to indirect toxic effects of neutrophil-derived inflammatory mediators in the lungs. ARDS is defined by the 1994 American–European Consensus Committee as the acute onset of bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray, a partial pressure of arterial oxygen (pa(O2)) to fraction of inspired oxygen Fi(O2) ratio of less than 200 mmHg and a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure of less than 18 or the absence of clinical evidence of left arterial hypertension. ARDS is basically pulmonary oedema in the absence of volume overload or poor left ventricular function. This is different from acute lung injury, which shows a pa(O2)/Fi(O2) ratio of less than 300 mmHg. Pathogenesis of ARDS starts from damage to alveolar epithelium and vascular endothelium, causing increased permeability. Damage to surfactant-producing type II cells disrupts the production and function of pulmonary surfactant, causing micro atelectasis and poor gas exchange. There is a decrease in lung compliance and increase in work of breathing. Eventually, there is resorption of alveolar oedema, regeneration of epithelial cells, proliferation and differentiation of type II alveolar cells and alveolar remodelling. Some show resolution and some progress to fibrosing alveolitis, which involves the deposition of collagen in alveolar, vascular and interstitial spaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
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  • Question 59 - Macrolides are a group of antibiotics commonly used to treat respiratory tract and...

    Incorrect

    • Macrolides are a group of antibiotics commonly used to treat respiratory tract and soft-tissue infections. Which of the following antibiotics is a macrolide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic used in the treatment of several bacterial infections, including respiratory tract infections, skin infections, chlamydia infections, pelvic inflammatory disease, and syphilis. It may also be used during pregnancy to prevent Group B streptococcal infection in the new-born.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 60 - The circle of Willis is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards comprised of the...

    Incorrect

    • The circle of Willis is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards comprised of the left and the right posterior communicating artery. Which of the following arteries in the brain is connected to the posterior cerebral artery by these posterior communicating arteries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis of cerebral arteries that are located at the base of the brain. The Circle of Willis is one of the important safeguards that ensure back up of blood supply to parts of the brain in case of any cerebrovascular accident. The Circle of Willis is made up of an anterior portion of arteries including; the anterior cerebral arteries. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected to the posterior portion of the circle of Willis by the anterior communicating artery. The posterior portion is made up of the posterior cerebral artery which branch off from the basilar artery. The posterior cerebral artery are connected to the anterior portion of the circle of Willis by the posterior communicating artery. The posterior communicating artery connects the posterior cerebral artery to the internal carotid artery. The circle of Willis receives blood supply from the left and right internal carotid arteries that continues as the middle cerebral artery and posteriorly from the two vertebral arteries that join to form the basilar artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 61 - The glossopharyngeal nerve provides the parasympathetic innervation of the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The glossopharyngeal nerve provides the parasympathetic innervation of the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parotid salivary gland

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve provides parasympathetic innervation for the parotid salivary gland via the auriculotemporal nerve. The facial nerve supplies the parasympathetic innervation of the lacrimal, nasal, sublingual and submandibular glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck; Neurology
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  • Question 62 - Which tumour occurs in young adults, affecting the epiphyses of the bones and...

    Incorrect

    • Which tumour occurs in young adults, affecting the epiphyses of the bones and sometimes extending to the soft tissues?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benign giant-cell tumour

      Explanation:

      Benign giant-cell tumours tend to affect adults in their twenties and thirties, occur in the epiphyses and can erode the bone and extend into the soft tissues. These tumours have a strong tendency to recur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
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  • Question 63 - The transverse colon has two curvatures known as the colic flexures on each...

    Incorrect

    • The transverse colon has two curvatures known as the colic flexures on each side of its lateral ends, the right and left. The left colic flexure found on the side of the descending colon is attached to an organ superiorly by a mesenteric ligament. Which organ is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The left colic flexure is the bend of the transverse colon as it continues to form the descending colon on the left upper quadrant. The spleen is located on the superior aspect of the left colic flexure. It is commonly referred to as the splenic flexure because of its relation o the spleen superiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 64 - What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT) ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin therapy

      Explanation:

      The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is an indicator for measuring the efficacy of both the intrinsic and common coagulation pathway. Prolonged aPTT may indicate: use of heparin, antiphospholipid antibody and coagulation factor deficiency (e.g., haemophilia). Deficiencies of factors VIII, IX, XI and XII and rarely von Willebrand factor (if causing a low factor VIII level) may lead to a prolonged aPTT correcting on mixing studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
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  • Question 65 - A 45-year-old man with short bowel syndrome requires parenteral nutrition. The solution of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with short bowel syndrome requires parenteral nutrition. The solution of choice for parenteral nutrition is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crystalline amino acids

      Explanation:

      Total parenteral nutrition (TPN), is the practice of feeding a person intravenously, circumventing the gut. It is normally used in the following situations: surgery, when feeding by mouth is not possible, when a person’s digestive system cannot absorb nutrients due to chronic disease or if a person’s nutrient requirement cannot be met by enteral feeding and supplementation. A sterile bag of nutrient solution, between 500 ml and 4L, is provided. The pump infuses a small amount (0.1–10 ml/h) continuously to keep the vein open. The nutrient solution consists of water, glucose, salts, amino acids, vitamins and sometimes emulsified fats. Ideally each patient is assessed individually before commencing on parenteral nutrition, and a team consisting of doctors, nurses, clinical pharmacists and dietitians evaluate the patient’s individual data and decide what formula to use and at what rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 66 - Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?...

    Incorrect

    • Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Under basal conditions, most of the energy needed by cardiac muscle for metabolism is derived from fats (60%), 35% by carbohydrates, and 5% by ketones and amino acids. However, after intake of large amounts of glucose, lactate and pyruvate are mainly used. During prolonged starvation, fat acts as the primary source. 50% of the used lipids are sourced from circulating fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
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      Seconds

  • Question 67 - A 45 year old women has a 4 cm non tender mass in...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old women has a 4 cm non tender mass in her right breast which is fixed to the chest wall. Another 2cm non-tender mass is palpable in the left axilla. Chest x ray reveals multiple nodules ranging from 0.5 - 0.2 cm in both the lungs. What is the stage of her disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T4 N1 M1

      Explanation:

      This woman has an invasive primary tumour mass with axillary node and lung metastases, making this stage T4 N1 M1. Looking at the other stems, T1 N1 M0 signifies a small primary cancer with nodal metastases but no distant metastases; T1 N0 M1 signifies a small primary cancer with no lymph node metastases but with distant metastases; T2 N1 M0 signifies a larger primary cancer with nodal metastases but no distant metastases; and T3 N0 M0 indicates a larger primary cancer with no metastases to either lymph nodes or to distant sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia; Female Health
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 68 - A CT scan of 65 year old male patient at an outpatient clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A CT scan of 65 year old male patient at an outpatient clinic suggested a bone tumour at the stylomastoid foramen. Which of the following cranial nerves is likely to be affected with this tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: VII

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve VII, the facial nerve, is found in the internal acoustic canal and runs through this canal into the facial canal before exiting through the stylomastoid foramen. In the case of a bone tumour at the stylomastoid process, the facial nerve is the nerve that will most likely be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 69 - A 18-year old girl presents to her doctor with an excessively enlarged left...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year old girl presents to her doctor with an excessively enlarged left breast as compared to the right breast since puberty. The most likely cause for this is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Virginal breast hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Virginal breast hypertrophy’ is the term assigned to excessive growth of breasts during puberty and is a common phenomenon. It is also known as ‘juvenile macromastia’ or ‘ juvenile gigantomastia’. The breast hypertrophy often starts with menarche and occasionally occurs in growth spurts. These spurts can cause physical discomfort, red and itchy skin or pain in the breasts. The breasts can also grow continuously over several years and lead to overdevelopment of a normal breast. Nipples also undergo enlargement along with the breasts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Women's Health
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 70 - Which of the following tumours is very radiosensitive? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tumours is very radiosensitive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seminoma

      Explanation:

      Seminoma is the most radiosensitive tumour and responds well to radiation therapy after unilateral orchidectomy. The ipsilateral inguinal areas are routinely not treated however, depending on the stage, the mediastinum and the left supraclavicular regions may also be irradiated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia; Urology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

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