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  • Question 1 - A 47-year-old male with type II diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old male with type II diabetes mellitus presents to your clinic with a history suggestive of erectile dysfunction. You decide to start him on sildenafil citrate. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor used in the treatment of impotence.Contraindications:- Patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil- Hypotension- Recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)Side-effects:Visual disturbances e.g. cyanopsia, non-arthritic anterior ischaemic NeuropathyNasal congestionFlushingGastrointestinal side-effectsHeadache

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which cell type functions as the critical bridge between innate and adaptive immune...

    Correct

    • Which cell type functions as the critical bridge between innate and adaptive immune systems, by activating naïve T lymphocytes?

      Your Answer: Dendritic cells

      Explanation:

      Dendritic cells are antigen presenting cells. They express class II MHC and T cell co-stimulatory molecules. They bind antigens and present them to native T cells and in the process activate the specific T cell against that antigen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the primary problem of achalasia ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary problem of achalasia

      Your Answer: Defective interstitial cells of cajal

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of myenteric plexus at the lower oesophageal sphincter

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal achalasia is an oesophageal motility disorder involving the smooth muscle layer of the oesophagus is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) relaxation and aperistalsis, caused primarily by the loss of the inhibitory innervation of the oesophageal myenteric plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old university student is admitted after taking drugs at a night club. Which of the following features suggest she had taken ecstasy (MDMA)?

      Your Answer: A pyrexia of 40°C

      Explanation:

      MDMA commonly known as ecstasy or molly, is a psychoactive drug primarily used as a recreational drug. The desired effects include altered sensations, increased energy, empathy, and pleasure. Features of MDMA abuse include hyponatraemia, tachycardia, hyperventilation, and hyperthermia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following stimulates glucagon release? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following stimulates glucagon release?

      Your Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      Studies have shown a small increase in glucagon levels during stress tests and exercise. This occurs in response to the reduction of blood glucose levels during physical activity; epinephrine levels are also a stimulus for the release of glucagon during exercise, since it suppresses insulin, which accounts for its stimulatory effects on glucagon. The use of stored fats for energy during exercise also stimulates the release of glucagon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The onset of puberty is triggered by ...

    Incorrect

    • The onset of puberty is triggered by

      Your Answer: Increased conversion of androstenedione to estrone by aromatase (females)

      Correct Answer: Increase in pulsatile GNRH secretion from hypothalamus

      Explanation:

      The onset of puberty is associated with high GNRH pulsing, which precedes the rise in sex hormones. Brain tumours which increase GNRH output may also lead to premature puberty. The cause of the GNRH rise is unknown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following factors is most likely to lead to an increase...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors is most likely to lead to an increase in serum cortisol levels?

      Your Answer: Onset of sleep

      Correct Answer: Severe emotional stress

      Explanation:

      Cortisol is widely known as the stress hormone. Alterations in cortisol levels have been found in relation to mood disorders, illness, trauma, pain, fear, exertion, and anxiety, amongst other stimuli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The following contributes to the rate of depolarization? ...

    Correct

    • The following contributes to the rate of depolarization?

      Your Answer: All of the options given

      Explanation:

      Depolarization occurs due to impulses generated by the SA node. As the heart beats to the rhythm of the SA node, certain factors will effect the rate of depolarization. All the mentioned options effect the rate of depolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before...

    Incorrect

    • Under normal conditions (where n represents the number of chromosome pairs), just before mitosis begins, how many chromosomes are contained in the nucleus of each somatic cell:

      Your Answer: 3n

      Correct Answer: 4n

      Explanation:

      In a normal somatic cell there are 2n chromosome but in a replicating cell just before mitosis the chromosomes duplicate but are still joined via the centrosome. Thus there are 4n chromosomes. After completion of mitosis the number goes back to 2n.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Where does the pituitary gland lie? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the pituitary gland lie?

      Your Answer: Temporal lobe

      Correct Answer: In a pocket of the sphenoid bone at the base of the brain

      Explanation:

      The pituitary lies in a small depression in the sphenoid bone, known as the sella turcica or Turkish saddle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression.Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?

      Your Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes: Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertensionCentral nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rashEndocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoeaGenitourinary: Urinary tract infectionHepatic: Abnormal hepatic function testsNeuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle crampsOphthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbanceOtic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitusRenal: Acute renal failureOther options:Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12–15 hours. Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following predominate in the adrenal medulla? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following predominate in the adrenal medulla?

      Your Answer: ACTH secreting cells

      Correct Answer: Epinephrine secreting cells

      Explanation:

      Chromaffin cells, also known as pheochromocytes, are cells located in the adrenal medulla which specialize in the synthesis, storage, and secretion of catecholamines: 80% epinephrine and 20% norepinephrine is released into the bloodstream. For this reason, they are considered to be neuroendocrine cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The actions of thrombin result directly in the release of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The actions of thrombin result directly in the release of:

      Your Answer: Fibrin dimers

      Correct Answer: Fibrin monomers

      Explanation:

      Thrombin in turn acts as a serine protease that converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble strands of fibrin, as well as catalysing many other coagulation-related reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of number of: ...

    Incorrect

    • The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of number of:

      Your Answer: Histones

      Correct Answer: Base pairs

      Explanation:

      As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams:

      Your Answer: Modifications of the central structure results in the resistance to bacterial penicillinase

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav is more likely to cause obstructive jaundice than amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      β-lactam antibiotics are a class of broad-spectrum antibiotics, consisting of all antibiotic agents that contain a β-lactam ring in their molecular structures. This includes penicillin derivatives (penams), cephalosporins (cephems), monobactams, and carbapenems. Most β-lactam antibiotics work by inhibiting cell wall biosynthesis in the bacterial organism and are the most widely used group of antibiotics. Bacteria often develop resistance to β-lactam antibiotics by synthesizing a β-lactamase, an enzyme that attacks the β-lactam ring. To overcome this resistance, β-lactam antibiotics are often given with β-lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanic acid. Immunologically mediated adverse reactions to any β-lactam antibiotic may occur in up to 10% of patients receiving that agent (a small fraction of which are truly IgE-mediated allergic reactions). Rarely, cholestatic jaundice has been associated with Co-amoxiclav (amoxicillin/clavulanic acid). The reaction may occur up to several weeks after treatment has stopped, and usually takes weeks to resolve. It is more frequent in men, older people, and those who have taken long courses of treatment; the estimated overall incidence is one in 100,000 exposures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Wernicke’s area: ...

    Correct

    • Wernicke’s area:

      Your Answer: Is concerned with comprehension of auditory and visual information

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s area is located in the categorical hemisphere or left hemisphere in about 95% of right handed individuals and 60% of left handed individuals. It is involved in the comprehension or understanding of written and spoken language. In contrast Broca’s area is involved in production of language.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - In the functional unit of the liver (acinus), the oxygenation… ...

    Incorrect

    • In the functional unit of the liver (acinus), the oxygenation…

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Reduces towards the centre

      Explanation:

      Cells located close to the portal triad or peripheral zone which consist of arterioles from the hepatic artery are the most oxygenated cells. Cells in the central zone are least oxygenated and mainly receive blood supply from the central vein which is a branch of the hepatic vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Concerning surface anatomy, where is the mitral valve found? ...

    Correct

    • Concerning surface anatomy, where is the mitral valve found?

      Your Answer: Situated in the 4th intercostal space to the left of the sternum

      Explanation:

      The mitral valve is situated in the left 4th intercostal space just beneath the sternum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Why does arterial blood pressure drop during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Why does arterial blood pressure drop during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Progesterone relaxes vascular smooth muscle

      Explanation:

      Progesterone relaxes vascular smooth muscle thus resulting In a decrease in total peripheral resistance. This accounts for the increase in the cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Neutrophils are attracted to an infected area by:

      Your Answer: Clusters of differentiation

      Correct Answer: Chemokines

      Explanation:

      The major role of chemokines is to act as a chemoattractant to guide the migration of cells like neutrophils to the site of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The extrinsic coagulation pathway is initiated by activation of which clotting factor? ...

    Incorrect

    • The extrinsic coagulation pathway is initiated by activation of which clotting factor?

      Your Answer: Factor VIII

      Correct Answer: Factor VII

      Explanation:

      The tissue factor pathway (extrinsic) begins following damage to the blood vessel. FVII leaves the circulation and comes into contact with tissue factor (TF) expressed on tissue-factor-bearing cells (stromal fibroblasts and leukocytes), forming an activated complex (TF-FVIIa).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Afferent A δ fibers from nociceptors terminate primarily on neurons in which lamina:...

    Incorrect

    • Afferent A δ fibers from nociceptors terminate primarily on neurons in which lamina:

      Your Answer: III, IV, V, VI

      Correct Answer: I and V

      Explanation:

      Nociceptors are receptors of pain sensation. There are 2 primary afferent/sensory pain fibers which transmit impulses from the receptor to the CNS, specifically to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. The two fibers are A δ and C fibers. The dorsal horn of the spinal cord is the relay centre for sensory information converging from the periphery. Grey matter of the dorsal horn is subdivided in to laminae based on cytoarchitecture. C fibers terminate in lamina II the substantia gelatinosa. A δ fibers terminate primarily in lamina I but some project more deeply to terminate in lamina V.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Stem cell characteristics include the following except ...

    Incorrect

    • Stem cell characteristics include the following except

      Your Answer: Ability to proliferate / differentiate outside the bone marrow in an adult during times of stress/disease of the bone marrow

      Correct Answer: Differentiation and proliferation into progenitor cells committed to multiple cell lines

      Explanation:

      The classical definition of a stem cell requires that it possess two properties:Self-renewal: the ability to go through numerous cycles of cell division while maintaining the undifferentiated state.Potency: the capacity to differentiate into specialized cell types. In the strictest sense, this requires stem cells to be either totipotent or pluripotent to be able to give rise to any mature cell type

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following happens when anterograde neurons are stimulated? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following happens when anterograde neurons are stimulated?

      Your Answer: Receptive relaxation of the git musculature

      Correct Answer: Smooth muscle relaxation ahead of the stimulus

      Explanation:

      Nitric oxide is thought to act as an anterograde neurotransmitter. Nitric oxide causes relaxation of smooth muscles ahead of the stimulus. Clinically it is used as a potent vasodilator.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      59.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the most important source of heat production in the body? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most important source of heat production in the body?

      Your Answer: Skeletal muscle contraction

      Explanation:

      Thermogenesis is the process by which organisms produce heat. Through skeletal muscle contraction, or shivering, ATP is converted into kinetic energy, some of which converts into heat. These muscle contractions produce about 70% of total body heat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Compact/cortical bone makes up ...

    Incorrect

    • Compact/cortical bone makes up

      Your Answer: The middle layer of most bones and accounts for 100% of bone in the body

      Correct Answer: The outer layer of most bones and accounts for 80% of bone in the body

      Explanation:

      Cortical, lamellar, or compact bone, is more dense than spongy bone and it forms the rigid, outer layer of bones, also called cortex. It consists of packed osteons, with a central osteonic canal surrounded by concentric rings. Spaces called lacunae are filled with osteocytes, and channels called canaliculi go from the lacunae to the osteonic canal. The strength of cortical bone allows it to support the body and protect organs. It also stores different elements, such as calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The right border of the heart corresponds to which line on the surface...

    Correct

    • The right border of the heart corresponds to which line on the surface of the chest?

      Your Answer: Line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the 6th right costal cartilage

      Explanation:

      The right border corresponds to a line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the 6th right costal cartilage; this border is slightly convex to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in behaviour. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psychotic depression

      Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      The waddling gait and behaviour change are attributes of normal pressure hydrocephalus along with loss of bladder control which commonly happens with elder age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An 18-year-old young lady is brought to the ER by her mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old young lady is brought to the ER by her mother. She was found, lying on the floor having consumed an unidentified quantity of her mother's prescription pills with alcohol. The patient's mother is a known hypertensive under treatment. On examination, the patient was found to be lethargic, hypotensive with a BP of 70/50 mmHg, and bradycardic with a pulse rate of 38 bpm. A finger prick glucose is 3.2 mmol/L. Which TWO among the following are the most appropriate steps for the initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Isoprenaline and atropine

      Correct Answer: Glucagon and isoprenaline

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate steps of initial management include iv glucagon and iv isoprenaline.The most likely diagnosis in the above scenario (decreased conscious level, profound hypertension, and bradycardia) is β-blocker toxicity/overdose. Bronchospasm rarely occurs in an overdose of β-blockers, except where there is a history of asthma.Immediate management is to give iv glucagons (50–150μg/kg) followed by infusion to treat hypotension and isoprenaline or atropine to treat bradycardia. Where patients fail to respond to these measures, temporary pacing may be required. If the patient is seen within the first 4 hours of the overdose, gastric lavage may be of value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - In a newly diagnosed acromegaly patient, which of the following would you not...

    Correct

    • In a newly diagnosed acromegaly patient, which of the following would you not expect to find?

      Your Answer: Hypohidrosis

      Explanation:

      Features of acromegaly may include:

      • Soft tissue swelling visibly resulting in enlargement of the hands, feet, nose, lips and ears, and a general thickening of the skin
      • Soft tissue swelling of internal organs, notably the heart with associated weakening of its muscularity, and the kidneys, vocal cords (resulting in a characteristic thick, deep voice and slowing of speech)
      • Generalized expansion of the skull at the fontanelle, frontal bossing, prognathism with associated macroglossia (enlargement of the tongue) and teeth spacing.
      • Hypertrichosis, hyperpigmentation and hyperhidrosis (not hypohidrosis) may occur in these patients as well as carpal tunnel syndrome and impotence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      9.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (33/39) 85%
Pharmacology (4/4) 100%
Immunology (3/3) 100%
Gastrointestinal (0/2) 0%
Endocrinology (9/11) 82%
Cardiovascular (5/6) 83%
Genetics (3/3) 100%
Haematology (4/4) 100%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Geriatrics (1/1) 100%
Passmed