-
Question 1
Correct
-
What is the most likely cause for bloody diarrhoea of 3 days duration in a 10-year-old child?
Your Answer: Campylobacter
Explanation:The most common cause for acute bloody diarrhoea in a 10-year-old child is Campylobacter.Note:Campylobacter is the most common bacterial cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It typically presents with bloody diarrhoea, fever, abdominal pain and vomiting. The primary source of Campylobacter is uncooked poultry. Treatment is generally supportive unless the child is immunosuppressed or the symptoms are persistent.Other options:- E. coli 0157:H7: It causes acute haemorrhagic diarrhoea, usually afebrile. It can lead to haemolytic uremic syndrome (haemolytic anaemia, acute renal failure and thrombocytopenia), which is the commonest cause of acute renal failure in children.- Rotavirus: It rarely causes bloody diarrhoea.- Salmonella and Yersinia: While they can cause bloody diarrhoea, they are much less common compared to Campylobacter.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old boy was admitted by the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) team. He was brought to the hospital with symptoms of psychosis. He now complains of abdominal pain with abdominal examination revealing hepatomegaly. Which of the following investigations will most likely confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ultrasound scan (USS) of the abdomen
Correct Answer: Serum ceruloplasmin
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis is Wilson’s disease. Elevated serum ceruloplasmin levels can confirm the diagnosis.Serum ceruloplasminWilson’s disease causes reduced binding of copper to ceruloplasmin, which is the body’s primary copper carrying protein. As a result, copper cannot be excreted into the bile. Copper, therefore, builds up in the liver, causing toxicity and is secreted into the bloodstream unbound to ceruloplasmin. This free copper is deposited around the body, especially the brain, eyes and kidneys. The genetic defect means that ceruloplasmin is not released into the bloodstream| therefore, ceruloplasmin is low in Wilson’s disease.Other options:- Microscopic evaluation of the hair is performed in Menke’s disease, which is a disease of copper absorption leading to copper deficiency. This causes kinky hair, failure to thrive and neurological symptoms (such as hypotonia).- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the brain: An MRI brain may show features of Wilson’s disease (especially in the basal ganglia), but it is not diagnostic.- Serum ferritin: Serum ferritin becomes high in haemochromatosis. This classically causes cirrhosis, bronzing of the skin, cardiomyopathy and diabetes.- Ultrasound scan of the abdomen: While it is useful in any case of hepatomegaly| it is not going to provide the diagnosis in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right iliac fossa. Doctors suspect appendicitis. The appendix derives from which of the following embryological structures:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Midgut
Explanation:From the midgut derives most of the small intestine as well as some parts of the large intestine, including the appendix. The appendix is at the base of caecum, up to 10cm long and mainly comprised of lymphoid tissue (Hence mesenteric adenitis may mimic appendicitis).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 5 week old boy is vomiting excessively, suggesting a pyloric stenosis. Which of the following risk factors might be present?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal smoking
Explanation:Maternal smoking is one of the most significant risk factors for pyloric stenosis.Remember the three Ps for Pyloric Stenosis:P – palpable massP – peristalsisP – projectile vomiting
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Pellagra occurs as a result of niacin (vitamin B-3) deficiency. Niacin is required for most cellular processes. Since tryptophan in the diet can be converted to niacin in the body, both of these need to be deficient for pellagra to develop.The classical triad of symptoms is diarrhoea, dermatitis and dementia.The first sign is reddened skin with superficial scaling in areas exposed to sunlight, heat and friction. This may resemble severe sunburn then gradually subsides leaving a dusky brown-red colouration. The rash is usually symmetrical with a clear edge between affected and unaffected skin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
The father of a 3 month old baby presents to the child health clinic complaining that his child passes only one hard stool a day. He has tried to bicycle his legs and massage his abdomen but has not been successful. The baby seems to be growing well, and nothing of concern was found on clinical examination. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise extra water in between feeds
Explanation:According to the NICE guidelines, the frequency of stool passage is considered constipation when two or more of the following findings are present: Fewer than 3 stools a week, large hard stools, stools that resemble rabbit droppings| symptoms associated with defecation including distress, bleeding or straining| a history of previous episodes of a precious/current anal fissure. The child in the scenario fails to meet the criteria, and has no evidence of impacted faeces on examination. The best course of action is to encourage the parents to give the child more water to prevent dehydration, and feed the child a fibre rich diet including fruits, vegetables and high fibre bread.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
In patients diagnosed with bulimia nervosa, which of the following laboratory parameters is decreased?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin (CCK)
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder that involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate purging behaviour. The underlying reason for this behaviour is distorted self-image. Bulimia leads to several medical issues, including various laboratory derangements. Among these deranged laboratory parameters are the hormone cholecystokinin, which is found to be decreased in women having bulimia. It is hypothesized that the bingeing episodes observed in patients with bulimia are due to lower levels of CCK since normal levels of CCK are involved in maintaining satiety and controlling the urge to binge eat.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old boy presents with a two-week history of malaise, sore throat, odynophagia, and dysphagia. On examination, patchy white spots were noted in his oropharynx. An upper GI endoscopy revealed similar lesions in the oesophagus. Which of the following is most likely to identify the underlying pathology in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viral serology
Explanation:Based on the given scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Thus, the most appropriate investigation to confirm the underlying pathology in this patient would be viral serology. Rationale:The presence of oesophageal candidiasis is highly suggestive of severe immunosuppression. The causes of immunosuppression can be chemotherapy, with haematological malignancy, HIV or inhaled steroids. In patients with HIV, oesophageal candidiasis is part of the spectrum of AIDS-defining illnesses and usually occurs when the CD4 count is < 200 cells/microL. Other AIDS-defining illnesses include PCP pneumonia and CMV infections.Oesophageal Candidiasis:It is characterised by white spots in the oropharynx with extension into the oesophagus. It seldom occurs without an associated underlying risk factor like broad-spectrum antibiotic usage, immunosuppression and immunological disorders.Patients may present with oropharyngeal symptoms, odynophagia and dysphagia.Treatment is directed both at the underlying cause (which should be investigated for) and with oral antifungal agents.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy, known case of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with jaundice. His labs reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level. AST, ALT, albumin and clotting are in normal range. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody level is positive. Radiological examination shows multi-focal strictures and irregularity of both intra and extra hepatic bile ducts which has resulted in a 'beads on a string' appearance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a long-term progressive disease of the liver and gallbladder characterized by inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts which normally allow bile to drain from the gallbladder. Early cholangiographic changes can include fine or deep ulcerations of the common bile duct. As PSC progresses, segmental fibrosis develops within the bile ducts, with saccular dilatation of the normal areas between them, leading to the typical beads-on-a-string appearance seen on cholangiography. Although these strictures can be found anywhere on the biliary tree, the intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts are simultaneously involved in the vast majority of cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 5 week old baby presents to the ward with a history of projectile, non-bilious vomiting which takes place after feeding. The baby seems to have a normal appetite but hasn’t gained weight. You suspect pyloric stenosis. What initial test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Capillary blood gas
Explanation:One of the features of pyloric stenosis is hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. In emergency settings, capillary blood gas is the easiest and fastest way to establish a sustainable suspicion of pyloric stenosis. However, all tests are useful for the diagnosis of the condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea and loose stools. He looks shorter than his age and does not seem to have undergone a growth spurt. After a series of investigations, he is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which of the following treatment strategies should initially be employed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Elemental diet for 6 weeks
Explanation:The elemental diet is a medically supervised, sole nutrition dietary management given to individuals with moderate to severe impaired gastrointestinal function for 14-21 days.The diet consists of macronutrients broken down into their elemental form requiring little to no digestive functionality allowing time for the gut to rest. Elemental formulations are believed to be entirely absorbed within the first few feet of small intestine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splitting urea to release nitrogen decreases the pH in the stomach
Explanation:H. pylori release the enzyme urease that has the ability to split urea releasing nitrogen. This process increases the pH in the gastric antrum making the gastric pH less acidic.Helicobacter pylori:It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium. It is one of the most common causes of antral gastritis in children. Ulcers are less common in children compared with adults| however, when they occur, they are more common in the duodenum.The presence of H.pylori can be confirmed by:- Stool antigen test (preferred)- Serology- Endoscopy with biopsy and culture- Rapid urease testsH.pylori gastritis may be associated with:- Iron deficiency anaemia- Gastric malignancy Management:The treatment is with triple therapy- two antibiotics, and an antacid.Treatment failure is often attributed to a possible worldwide increase in macrolide resistance. Interestingly, children have higher antibiotic resistance compared with adults.Note:Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) causes gastrin-secreting tumours and can present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)- an autosomal dominant disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 8 year old child presents with fresh rectal bleeding. Which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intestinal hamartomatous polyps are seen in Cowden syndrome
Explanation:Colonic Polyposis and neoplasia are often seen in Cowden Syndrome which is a hamartomatous polyposis syndrome. Patients with Cowden syndrome have an increased risk for colorectal cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 4 year old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints of generalized pallor, loss of weight and loose stools. The baby's stools were frothy in nature and difficult to flush. Which investigation can help in diagnosing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-endomysial antibodies
Explanation:The presence of anti-endomysial antibodies confirms the diagnosis of Celiac disease, which is the primary cause of illness in this patient. The sweat chloride test is performed with cystic fibrosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy with iron-deficiency anaemia is found to have numerous polyps in his jejunum. On examination, he is also noted to have pigmented lesions on his palms and soles. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable diagnosis is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterised by numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract. It is also associated with pigmented freckles on the lips, face, palms and soles.Genetic basis: It follows an autosomal dominant inheritance, and the gene responsible encodes serine-threonine kinase LKB1 or STK11.Classical features of PJS include:- Hamartomatous polyps in the GI tract (mainly small bowel)- Pigmented lesions on lips, oral mucosa, face, palms and soles- Intestinal obstruction, e.g. intussusception- Gastrointestinal bleedingThe treatment is mainly conservative unless complications develop.Note:Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia can also be associated with mucocutaneous lesions and iron-deficiency anaemia, but intestinal polyps are not a feature.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions can be present in a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with coeliac disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA deficiency
Explanation:Coeliac disease is associated with the following conditions:- Dermatitis herpetiformis- Autoimmune disorders (e.g. thyroid disease, pernicious anaemia, diabetes)- IgA deficiency- Small-bowel malignancy, particularly lymphoma, if the gluten-free diet is not followed.Serology testing: The IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody is the most sensitive and specific, compared with the anti-endomysial antibody. However, false negatives will occur in children who are IgA-deficient, and IgA levels should be taken at the same time. Other options:Distal obstruction syndrome, meconium ileus, pancreatitis and rectal prolapse are all gastrointestinal manifestations of cystic fibrosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent, intense nausea and vomiting. His mum reveals he hasn’t passed urine the whole day. Upon inspection, he looks lethargic and his eyes are sunken. What would be the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests that the child is severely dehydrated. IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids is the correct option.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes place in which part of the body?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Large intestine
Explanation:Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin passes into the enterohepatic circulation and the bilirubin which evades this system is metabolised by bacteria, primarily in the large intestine, to urobilinogen, then stercobilinogen and eventually oxidised to stercobilin. Stercobilin gives faeces its brown colour.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 19-year-old girl has presented with symptoms suggestive of anorexia nervosa. Following a consult with a dietician, a decision was made to supplement her nutrition through total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line. Which of the following is a common complication associated with TPN?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deranged liver function tests
Explanation:Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) frequently causes derangement of liver function in children. Other options:- While line sepsis and thromboembolism are recognised complications of TPN, they do not occur frequently. – A child who is on TPN will require regular blood tests because of the potential for the development of electrolyte abnormalities. Need to observe their liver function, in order to provide TPN more accurately.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
What is the most common position of the appendix?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retrocecal
Explanation:The most common position of the appendix is the retrocecal position.Note: If a retrocecal appendix is difficult to remove, then mobilisation of the right colon significantly improves access.Other options:The various positions of the appendix are:- Retrocecal (74%)- Pelvic (21%)- Postileal- Subcaecal- Paracaecal- Preileal
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Which of the following does the inferior mesenteric artery supply?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: From the splenic flexure to the first third of the rectum
Explanation:The coeliac axis supplies the liver and stomach and from the oesophagus to the first half of the duodenum. The second half of the duodenum to the first two thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. The inferior mesenteric supplies the last third of the transverse colon (approximately from the splenic flexure) to the first third of the rectum. The last two thirds of the rectum are supplied by the middle rectal artery. The greater curvature of the stomach is supplied by branches of the splenic artery, which itself comes from the coeliac axis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl was brought to the emergency department following profuse vomiting. Further investigations revealed a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. About a month ago, she was admitted after she took an overdose of her mother's medication. Which of the following drugs can lead to her current presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron
Explanation:Based on the history and clinical presentation, she most likely has iron toxicity.Iron can cause scarring of the gut mucosa. This explains her pyloric stenosis. This typically occurs at the pylorus as this is where iron tablets tend to pool and cause maximal tissue damage.Other options:- Citalopram: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) ingestion rarely causes serious consequences. It can rarely lead to serotonin syndrome (autonomic instability, mental status change, and increased neuromuscular tone).- Ibuprofen: While it may cause gastritis, ibuprofen does not cause pyloric/intestinal stenosis.- Thyroxine: An overdose of thyroxine will cause features of hyperthyroidism which are not present in the patient in question.- Zinc: High doses of zinc can cause abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 5 week old baby presents with failure to thrive, falling from the 50th to the 9th percentile on the growth chart for weight. History reveals the baby vomits after each meal. Gestation and delivery were normal without any perinatal or postnatal complications. The baby was healthy at the new-born examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Pyloric stenosis affects infants, typically in the second to fourth weeks of life and is caused most commonly by hypertrophy and thickening of the pylorus. It usually presents with projectile vomiting and failure to thrive. The infant usually has a normal appetite. Features include: ‘projectile’ vomiting, typically 30 minutes after a feed, constipation and dehydration may also be present and a palpable mass may be present in the upper abdomen.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A child defecates a few minutes after being fed by the mother. This is most likely due to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastrocolic reflex
Explanation:The gastrocolic reflex is a physiological reflex that involves increase in colonic motility in response to stretch in the stomach and by-products of digestion in the small intestine. It is shown to be uneven in its distribution throughout the colon, with the sigmoid colon affected more than the right side of the colon in terms of a phasic response. Various neuropeptides have been proposed as mediators of this reflex, such as serotonin, neurotensin, cholecystokinin and gastrin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did not have jaundice at birth. On clinical investigations, direct Coombs test is positive. Mother's blood group is A negative. Baby's blood group is O positive. What is the most probable cause of the condition of this new-born?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rhesus incompatibility
Explanation:Jaundice in a new-born on the day of delivery is most likely due to Rh incompatibility. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. Antibodies in the mother against the Rh factor in the baby will destroy the red blood cells in the baby, increasing the bilirubin in the blood. Breast milk jaundice and Galactosemia do not occur immediately after birth, and congenital rubella syndrome and formula feeding does not cause jaundice in babies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he used the restroom, he noticed fresh blood after wiping. Doctors suspect an intussusception. What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal polyp
Explanation:Gastrointestinal polyps are common in children and may result in intussusception due to polyp traction. Treatment is usually surgical with enterotomy and removal of the polyp or of a segment of the bowel.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which of the following dermatological conditions is not recognised to be associated with Crohn's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Xanthomas
Explanation:CUTANEOUS DISORDERS OR DERMATOSIS ASSOCIATED WITH IBD- Psoriasis- Secondary amyloidosis- Vitiligo- Acquired epidermolysis bullosaIn some cases, non-granulomatous skin disorders occur as a reaction to the intestinal disease. These include:- Pyoderma gangrenosum- Neutrophilic dermatosis / Sweet syndrome, typically with pustules- Pyodermatitis-pyostomatitis vegetans, a purulent erosive dermatosis characterised by snail-track ulcers- Erythema multiforme- Erythema nodosum- Acneiform eruptions including nodulocystic acne, hidradenitis suppurativa and folliculitis- Palisaded neutrophilic and granulomatous dermatitis- Necrotizing and granulomatous small vessel vasculitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 7-month-old baby boy was brought by his parents due to frequently regurgitating his milk. On examination, he was pale and lethargic. FBC showed a microcytic anaemia. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hiatus hernia
Explanation:Frequent regurgitation of milk and microcytic anaemia is suggestive of a hiatus hernia. The reflux causes regurgitation of milk and frequent ulceration of the lower oesophageal mucosa potentially resulting in blood loss and anaemia. Duodenal atresia usually presents with bilious vomiting and pyloric stenosis presents with projectile vomiting. Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency and cystic fibrosis usually do not present with vomiting.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic hepatitis B. The mothers latest results are as follows:HBsAg PositiveHBeAg PositiveWhat is the most appropriate strategy for reducing the vertical transmission rate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin
Explanation:The Green Book guidelines report in an active infection (HBeAg+ and HBsAg+) to give the vaccine as well as immunoglobulin. If antibodies are present it is not active infection (anti-Hbe) and then in that case only the vaccine, and no immunoglobulin, would be given. The presence of HBeAg means a person is infectious and can transmit to other people.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A 6 week old girl presents with back arching and crying. She regurgitates milk after a feed, especially when laying on her back. Doctors suspect gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR). What is the next most appropriate step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the parents
Explanation:Most experts suggest that parents reassurance in case of infantile gastro-oesophageal reflux (GOR) is a sufficient initial measure that involves education about regurgitation and lifestyle changes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old Caucasian woman presents with lethargy and chronic nausea. Her mother is worried she may be depressed. On examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease and a gold-yellow ring at the periphery of the iris in both eyes. Her serum copper level is low. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:This patient has Wilson’s disease. They Kayser-Fleischer ring (ring that encircles the iris) is diagnostic of this. Low serum copper is seen in Wilson’s disease. With the Kayser-Fleischer ring, this makes all of the other answer choices incorrect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
An 8 year old male child presents with pallor and patches of hyperpigmentation found on his hands, feet, and mouth. He also saw fresh blood mixed with his stools. Although it has happened before, he doesn't know exactly when it began. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
Explanation:Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant genetic disease. It presents with hyperpigmentation patches on the oral mucosa, lips, palm and soles, and nasal alae. It also presents with hamartomatous polyps in the gut, hence the fresh blood in this particular case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy presents with a bloating sensation with crampy abdominal pain and diarrhoea, passing stools for up to 5 times a day. Following his return from a recent holiday in Egypt, he had been to the local pool a few days ago. He recalls that the stool floats in the toilet water and that he has not passed any blood in his stools. What is the most likely cause for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia
Explanation:The most likely causative organism for the symptoms of this child is Giardia lamblia.Giardiasis results in fat malabsorption thus giving rise to greasy stools. It is resistant to chlorination, hence has a risk of transfer in swimming pools.World Health Organisation definitions- Diarrhoea: > 3 loose or watery stool per day- Acute diarrhoea < 14 days- Chronic diarrhoea > 14 daysConditions that usually present as acute diarrhoea:- Gastroenteritis: It may be accompanied by abdominal pain or nausea/vomiting.- Antibiotic therapy: Can occur following antibiotic therapy, especially common with broad spectrum antibiotics.Conditions that usually present as chronic diarrhoea:- Irritable bowel syndrome: It is a very common disease.The most consistent features are abdominal pain, bloating and change in bowel habit. Patients may be divided into those with diarrhoea predominant IBS and those with constipation-predominant IBS.Features such as lethargy, nausea, backache and bladder symptoms may also be present in these patients.- Ulcerative colitis: It presents as bloody diarrhoea. Patients can also present with crampy abdominal pain and weight loss. Faecal urgency and tenesmus may be seen.- Crohn’s disease: It is also associated with crampy abdominal pains and diarrhoea. Bloody diarrhoea less common than in ulcerative colitis. Other features include malabsorption, mouth ulcers perianal disease and intestinal obstruction – Colorectal cancer: It is very rare in children. The symptoms depend on the site of the lesion but include diarrhoea, rectal bleeding, anaemia and constitutional symptoms like weight loss and anorexia.- Coeliac disease: In children, it may present with failure to thrive, diarrhoea and abdominal distension.Other conditions associated with diarrhoea include thyrotoxicosis, laxative abuse, appendicitis, and radiation enteritis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl experienced nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps 4 h after eating a hamburger in a local restaurant. Watery diarrhoea began a few hours later.The most likely organism causing her disease is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Food poisoning is defined as an illness caused by the consumption of food or water contaminated with bacteria and/or their toxins, or with parasites, viruses, or chemicals. The most common pathogens are Norovirus, Escherichia coli, Salmonella, Clostridium perfringens, Campylobacter, and Staphylococcus aureus.The following are some of the salient features of food poisoning:Acute diarrhoea in food poisoning usually lasts less than 2 weeks. Diarrhoea lasting 2-4 weeks is classified as persistent. Chronic diarrhoea is defined by duration of more than 4 weeks.The presence of fever suggests an invasive disease. However, sometimes fever and diarrhoea may result from infection outside the GI tract, as in malaria.A stool with blood or mucus indicates invasion of the intestinal or colonic mucosa.Reactive arthritis can be seen with Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, and Yersinia infections.A profuse rice-water stool suggests cholera or a similar process.Abdominal pain is most severe in inflammatory processes. Painful abdominal cramps suggest underlying electrolyte loss, as in severe cholera.A history of bloating should raise the suspicion of giardiasis.Yersinia enterocolitis may mimic the symptoms of appendicitis.Proctitis syndrome, seen with shigellosis, is characterized by frequent painful bowel movements containing blood, pus, and mucus. Tenesmus and rectal discomfort are prominent features.Consumption of undercooked meat/poultry is suspicious for Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and C perfringens.Consumption of raw seafood is suspicious for Norwalk-like virus, Vibrioorganism, or hepatitis A.Consumption of homemade canned foods is associated with C botulinum.Consumption of unpasteurized soft cheeses is associated with Listeria, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.Consumption of deli meats notoriously is responsible for listeriosis.Consumption of unpasteurized milk or juice is suspicious for Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.Salmonella has been associated with consumption of raw eggs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy is on the operating table undergoing an appendicectomy.Having incised the external oblique aponeurosis and spilt the underlying muscle along the line of its fibres, the surgeon encounters a tough fibrous structure at the medial edge of the wound.Which of the following will the surgeon encounter on entry into this structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectus abdominis
Explanation:The structure in question is the rectus sheath. This sheath encloses the rectus abdominis muscle and thus, will be encountered by the surgeon.Note:- Midline incision: It is the most common approach to the abdomen. The structures divided during this incision are linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum ( with care taken to avoid the falciform ligament above the umbilicus).The bladder can be accessed via an extraperitoneal approach through the space of Retzius.- Paramedian incision: It is an incision that is made parallel to the midline. The structures divided or retracted are anterior rectus sheath, rectus (retracted), posterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum.- Battle incision: It is similar to a paramedian but the rectus is displaced medially (and thus denervated).- Kocher’s incision: It is an incision made under the right subcostal margin, e.g. cholecystectomy (open).- Lanz incision: It is an incision in the right iliac fossa, e.g. appendicectomy.Gridiron incision: It is an oblique incision centred over the McBurney’s point – usually used for appendicectomy (less cosmetically acceptable than LanzPfannenstiel’s incision: It is a transverse suprapubic incision, primarily used to access pelvic organs.McEvedy’s incision: It is a groin incision used for emergency repair strangulated femoral hernia.Rutherford Morrison incision: It provides an extraperitoneal approach to left or right lower quadrants. It provides excellent access to iliac vessels and is the approach of choice for first-time renal transplantation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
A previously well 7-week-old infant was admitted complaining of projectile vomiting following each feed. He was dehydrated on admission and IV fluids were started. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Projectile vomiting is the hallmark symptom of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. It is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in infancy, which has a male-to-female predominance of 4-5:1. Current management recommendations include ultrasonography for diagnosis, correction of electrolytes, and surgical intervention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 9 year old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started two days ago with profound diarrhoea and emesis. Blood exams show the following: Sodium=148mmol/l, Potassium=2.2mmol/l, Urea=20mmol/l, Glucose=4.3mmol/l. What would be the best management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: V normal saline and potassium supplement
Explanation:The boy needs re-hydration and hydro-electrolytic re-balancing due to fluid losses from the gastroenteritis and subsequent dehydration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 5-month-old baby presents with symptoms of irritability, blood in the stools and vomiting. Examination reveals a rigid abdomen and drawing of knees upon palpation. Which is the most appropriate action you should take for this baby?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to paediatric surgeons
Explanation:Intussusception is the most suggested case here based on the child’s symptoms. The urgent course of treatment is to bring the child to a paediatric surgical unit. If air reduction attempts fail, surgery will have to be done. Risk factors for intussusception include viral infection and intestinal lymphadenopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 12 year old girl presented with pallor and a rash over her lower limbs after 4 days of bloody diarrhoea. Lab investigations showed proteinuria and deranged renal function. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)
Explanation:Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome affects children and is characterised by abdominal pain, a purpuric rash over the body, generalized pallor, haematuria and bloody diarrhoea. There is always a history of preceding diarrhoea caused usually by E.coli and it affects the renal system causing haematuria and deranged renal function tests.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl presents with a history recurrent abdominal pain and intermittent diarrhoea over the past one year. During these episodes, she may pass 3-7 very loose stools with mucus. Recently, over the past two months, she has passed stools mixed with blood. Her mother also complaints although she has not lost weight, she has failed to gain the appropriate weight for age according to her growth chart. The child is yet to attain her menarche, and her mother suffers from vitiligo. Clinical examination was unremarkable.Blood investigations revealed:Hb: 12.3 g/dLESR: 38 mm on the first hourTotal and differential counts were within normal limits, and an autoantibody screen was negative.What is the next most relevant investigation you will order?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:This patient in question is most likely suffering from inflammatory bowel disease, probably ulcerative colitis. The most valuable investigation that can assess the severity and extent of the disease, including the opportunity to obtain biopsies is a colonoscopy.Other options:Barium studies and abdominal x-rays do not give sufficient information. While they can provide indicative evidence, only a colonoscopy-guided biopsy can confirm IBD.Radio-isotope scans will help in identifying a focus such as a Meckel’s diverticulum, and angiography is rarely indicated unless a vascular lesion is suspected of causing the intestinal bleed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 30-day-old female was diagnosed with a case of breast milk jaundice. She has no other symptoms. Which is the most suitable next step of management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue breastfeeding
Explanation:Breast feeding should be continued for babies with breast milk jaundice as this is a benign condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the dorsum of her hand. What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging. This patient has swollen parotid glands. The glands swell in order to increase saliva production so that the saliva lost in the vomiting is compensated. This patient also has thickened calluses on the back of her hand. This is known as Russell’s sign. This occurs because of putting fingers in the mouth again and again to induce the gag reflex and vomit. The knuckles get inflamed in the process after coming in contact with the teeth multiple times.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
A baby born a few days earlier is brought into the emergency with complaints of vomiting, constipation and decreased serum potassium. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis: hypokalaemic hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:In pyloric stenosis a new-born baby presents with a history of vomiting, constipation and deranged electrolytes. Excessive vomiting leads to hypokalaemia. Difficulty in food passing from the stomach to the small intestine causes constipation. Hypokalaemia also causes constipation. None of the other disorders mentioned present with the hypokalaemia, vomiting and constipation triad in a new-born.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
An 11-year-old girl with developmental delay was brought to the clinic with symptoms of abdominal pain, loss of appetite, vomiting and constipation. Her parents notice that she has been eating substances like soil, soap and paper recently. Her blood count and peripheral smear examination reveal a microcytic-hypochromic anaemia with basophilic stippling of RBCs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lead poisoning
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this patient is lead poisoning.Lead poisoning: While it is not common, it can be potentially fatal. One of the key presenting features here is pica, the ingestion of non-nutritive substances such as soil, soap, paper or wood. Pica can also be observed in children in iron-deficiency anaemia, developmental delay and pregnancy. However, in a child who is exposed to lead in their environment (e.g. from lead paint or pipes), lead poisoning is most likely. It is commonly associated with iron deficiency which in turn increases the lead absorption. Treatment is either with oral D-penicillamine or intravenous sodium calcium edetate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
A female 4-week-old baby was admitted with jaundice. Her appetite for breast milk is preserved and she is playing actively and well without any other disturbances. What is the most probable cause of jaundice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast milk Jaundice
Explanation:Breast milk jaundice is thought to be associated with one or more abnormalities in the maternal milk itself. Breast milk jaundice syndrome generally needs no therapy if serum bilirubin concentrations remain below 270 mmol/l in healthy full-term infants. When the serum bilirubin concentration is above 270 mmol/l and rising, temporary interruption of breastfeeding may be indicated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
A 6-month-old baby boy presented to the paediatrician with yellow discolouration of his skin and sclera. His mother says his stools are pale. On examination, he was found to be below average weight. What is a likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Pale stools suggest obstructive jaundice. Initially, the symptoms of biliary atresia are indistinguishable from those of neonatal jaundice, a usually harmless condition commonly seen in infants. However, infants with biliary atresia develop progressive conjugated jaundice, pale white stools and dark urine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
A male infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He was born at 34 weeks by spontaneous vaginal delivery and was discharged 4 weeks ago. He is not on any regular medication. Parents said that he brings up small volumes of milk after feeds. This happens approximately twice a day. Observations are all within normal range and examination is unremarkable.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Explanation:Gastroesophageal reflux occurs in almost all infants, manifesting as wet burps after feeding. The spit-ups appear effortless and not particularly forceful.Infants in whom reflux has caused GERD have additional symptoms, such as irritability, feeding refusal, and/or respiratory symptoms such as chronic recurrent coughing or wheezing and sometimes stridor. Much less commonly, infants have intermittent apnoea or episodes of arching the back and turning the head to one side (Sandifer syndrome). Infants may fail to gain weight appropriately or, less often, lose weight.Incidence of gastroesophageal reflux increases between 2 months and 6 months of age (likely due to an increased volume of liquid at each feeding) and then starts to decrease after 7 months. Gastroesophageal reflux resolves in about 85% of infants by 12 months and in 95% by 18 months.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
A 12-year-old child has hypertrophic villi found on biopsy. The most possible diagnosis is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergy
Explanation:Hypertrophic villi is a response to chronic irritation by allergic reactions
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no features of puberty. A lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy shows patches of ulceration in the terminal ileum. What is the first-line treatment for this boy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the patient is probably a case of Crohn’s disease. The first-line treatment of Crohn’s disease is exclusive enteral nutrition.Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)This involves drinking a protein-based formula exclusively for 6–8 weeks. It has been shown to have superior mucosal healing when compared with steroids. Furthermore, it is nutritionally advantageous when compared to steroids and does not have the side-effect profile of steroids.Other options:- Intravenous steroids: This is the first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) or Crohn’s disease if there is rectal disease (which is not the case here). Side-effects include adrenal suppression, behavioural effects, osteopenia and changes in adipose tissue distribution.- Oral steroids: This can be used if EEN is not possible. However, the side-effect profile is less favourable and is not as effective concerning mucosal healing.- Parental nutrition and surgery: They may be occasionally required in severe cases that have failed first-line therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two prior feeds. His mother tells you that the mid-wives were concerned that there was lots of fluid around the baby in the uterus. What is the most likely genetic disorder associated with this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trisomy 21
Explanation:The baby has duodenal atresia.Presenting symptoms and signs are results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
A 19-year-old boy presents to his family physician complaining of a 'flu-like illness.' He has been fasting for the last 48hours. On examination, besides mild jaundice, everything else seems to be normal. Labs reveal an elevated serum bilirubin level (60 ?mol/l), but the other liver function tests are normal. CBC, U&E, and haptoglobins are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gilbert’s disease
Explanation:People with Gilbert syndrome have a build-up of unconjugated bilirubin in their blood (unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia). In affected individuals, bilirubin levels fluctuate and very rarely increase to levels that cause jaundice. Gilbert syndrome is usually recognized in adolescence. If people with this condition have episodes of hyperbilirubinemia, these episodes are generally mild and typically occur when the body is under stress, for instance because of dehydration, prolonged periods without food (fasting), illness, vigorous exercise, or menstruation. Some people with Gilbert syndrome also experience abdominal discomfort or tiredness. However, approximately 30 percent of people with Gilbert syndrome have no signs or symptoms of the condition and are discovered only when routine blood tests reveal elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
A male term infant was admitted to the neonatal unit on day 4 for severe jaundice. The bilirubin at that time was 320 mmol/l, which decreased with phototherapy. At day 30, the baby still required phototherapy to keep the bilirubin below the treatment line. On examination, the skin had a tanned appearance and his sclerae were icteric. Mother’s blood group was A+, the baby's blood group was A+, direct Coombs test (DCT) was negative. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crigler-Najjar syndrome
Explanation:Crigler-Najjar syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterized by an inability to properly convert and clear bilirubin from the body.The hallmark finding of Crigler-Najjar syndrome is a persistent yellowing of the skin, mucous membranes and whites of the eyes (jaundice).There are two forms of this disorder: Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I, characterized by a nearly complete lack of enzyme activity and severe, even life-threatening symptoms| and Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II, characterized by partial enzyme activity and milder symptoms. Both forms are inherited as autosomal recessive traits and are caused by errors or disruptions (mutations) of the UGT1A1 gene.The symptoms of Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I become apparent shortly after birth. Affected infants develop severe, persistent yellowing of the skin, mucous membranes and whites of the eyes (jaundice). These symptoms persist after the first three weeks of life.Infants are at risk for developing kernicterus, also known as bilirubin encephalopathy, within the first month of life.Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II is a milder disorder than type I. Affected infants develop jaundice, which increases during times when an infant is sick (concurrent illness), has not eaten for an extended period (prolonged fasting) or is under general anaesthesia. Some people have not been diagnosed until they are adults. Kernicterus is rare in Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II, but can occur especially when an affected individual is sick, not eating or under anaesthesia
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
Among the gastrointestinal system pathologies mentioned below, which one does NOT frequently occur in anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatosplenomegaly
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is a serious, psychiatric eating disorder characterized by distorted self-image due to which abnormal eating behaviours are adopted. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the gastrointestinal system. The GI manifestations of anorexia are enlarged salivary glands due to purging behaviour, gastritis, gastroparesis, acute gastric dilatation, superior mesenteric artery syndrome, elevated liver transaminases, which cause hepatocyte apoptosis leading to cirrhosis, and steatosis leading to fatty liver. Hepatosplenomegaly is not a recognized complication of anorexia nervosa.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old male arrives at the clinic complaining of fever and pigmented spots around his mouth, palms and soles. He had a reduction of an intussusception at 12 years of age. Which of the following lesions are most likely to be observed on a colonoscopy examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hamartomas
Explanation:Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (PJS) is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by intestinal hamartomatous polyps in association with a distinct pattern of skin and mucosal macular melanin deposition (freckles on the lips, face, palms and soles). Patients with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an estimated 15-fold increased risk of developing intestinal cancer compared to the general population.Management: conservative unless complications develop.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old female presents with a two day history of right iliac fossa pain, nausea and loss of appetite. You suspect that she has acute appendicitis. Which scoring system could you use to lend support to your diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alvarado score
Explanation:The prompt is suggestive of acute appendicitis. The Alvarado score is a clinical scoring system used to determine the likelihood of appendicitis, so this is the correct answer. A score greater than 6 is generally considered at risk for having acute appendicitis. It has 8 different criteria included (symptoms, signs, and lab results) and divides patients into appendicitis unlikely, possible, probable, and definite. The Center Score is a score to access the likelihood that pharyngitis is due to Strep. The Child-Pugh score predicts prognosis in liver cirrhosis. The Glasgow score is two different scores– the Glasgow coma score in trauma, which estimates level of consciousness, essentially, and The Glasgow Imrie Criteria which determines the severity of acute pancreatitis based on 8 lab values. The MELD score predicts the severity of end-stage liver disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
A baby boy born 5 weeks ago with a birth weight of 3.5kg presents to the clinic with jaundice. He is being breastfed and his current weight is 4.5kg. Which of the following is most likely responsible for the baby's jaundice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast Milk Jaundice
Explanation:Breast milk jaundice is associated with breast-feeding. It typically occurs one week after birth and can sometimes last up to 12 weeks, but it rarely causes complications in healthy, breast-fed infants. The exact cause of breast milk jaundice isn’t known. However, it may be linked to a substance in the breast milk that prevents certain proteins in the infant’s liver from breaking down bilirubin. The condition may also run in families. Breast milk jaundice is rare, affecting less than 3 percent of infants. When it does occur, it usually doesn’t cause any problems and eventually goes away on its own. It is safe to continue breast-feeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old boy presents with a 2 day history of colicky abdominal pain, vomiting and diarrhoea. He has been passing blood mixed with diarrhoea. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medication. On examination he is pyrexial and clinically dehydrated. Cardiorespiratory and abdominal examinations are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Campylobacter infection
Explanation:The patient has bloody diarrhoea that sounds like a food poisoning in the clinical scenario. Campylobacter is the most common cause of this in the United Kingdom. This is then followed by Salmonella and Shigella. The symptoms are usually self limiting. This is more likely to be bacterial from the food than a viral gastroenteritis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents to the clinic with a history of swelling of both wrists. He has been complaining of painful legs and his parents are concerned about his bandy legs. The child was breastfed until 6 months of age, with solids being introduced in the diet later. At 12 months of age the child suffered from a non-stick fracture of the radius after falling at the nursery. Which condition is the child most likely suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D-deficient rickets
Explanation:The signs and symptoms of vitamin D-dependent rickets begin within months after birth, and most are the same for all types of the condition. The weak bones often cause bone pain and delayed growth and have a tendency to fracture. When affected children begin to walk, they may develop abnormally curved (bowed) legs because the bones are too weak to bear weight. Impaired bone development also results in widening of the metaphysis, especially in the knees, wrists, and ribs. Some people with vitamin D-dependent rickets have dental abnormalities such as thin tooth enamel and frequent cavities. Poor muscle tone (hypotonia) and muscle weakness are also common in this condition, and some affected individuals develop seizures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
A child presents to the clinic with the complaints of pale stools and jaundice. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: US abdomen
Explanation:The patient is most likely suffering from obstructive jaundice. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the superior diagnostic tool in detecting and assessing biliary system obstruction, because it is easy, available, accurate and non-invasive.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of weight loss, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Her food intake has drastically reduced but she is drinking normally. She also complains that she feels tired all the time.On examination, the presence of aphthous ulcers and generalized abdominal tenderness was noted. Considering the clinical presentation, what could be the most probable underlying disorder causing the child's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohn’s disease
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be Crohn’s disease.Crohn’s disease:An inflammatory bowel disease which can affect any part of the bowel from the mouth to the anus. Symptoms include abdominal pain, diarrhoea, pyrexia and weight loss. Extra-intestinal manifestations include arthritis, uveitis, fatigue, anaemia and rashes including pyoderma gangrenosum and erythema nodosum.Other options:- Anorexia nervosa is an important diagnosis to consider. There are no indicators in the description that she has a fear of gaining weight or a strong desire to be thin.- Diabetic ketoacidosis is incorrect because there is no polydipsia or polyuria. A patient in DKA is more likely to present with vomiting and not diarrhoea.- Recurrent aphthous stomatitis is not a correct answer because it does not explain all of the symptoms described, only the mouth ulcers.- Ulcerative colitis (UC) is also incorrect. UC is a form of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the colon. The main symptom is bloody stools, which is not mentioned as a feature in history.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
A 7-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She complains that the child is having episodes of non-bilious vomiting for the past 10 days. She observed that the episodes typically occur directly after feeding and notes that the volume brought up varies, but that her baby does seem to be very hungry and has not gained much weight. What is the most probable diagnosis for this infant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (CHPS):Pyloric stenosis should be ruled out in any baby who presents with a long-term history of vomiting and failure to thrive. Infants typically present with projectile, non-bilious vomiting and are said to be hungry and wanting to feed despite poor weight gain. A blood gas would be helpful in this instance, although the diagnosis can be made more accurately by observing the stenosis during ultrasound. Many infants have symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease, although only a small minority are unable to gain weight adequately. A UTI in infants can present with non-specific symptoms, but they might have a fever and can show poor feeding. Malrotation will present with bilious vomiting.The definitive surgical management is the Ramsteadt’s pyloromyotomy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
A 15 year old girl is diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years
Explanation:Answer: Surveillance annual flexible sigmoidoscopy from age 13 years until age 30 years. Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is the most common adenomatous polyposis syndrome. It is an autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by the early onset of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps throughout the colon. If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. In addition, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.Most patients with FAP are asymptomatic until they develop cancer. As a result, diagnosing presymptomatic patients is essential.Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.Nonspecific symptoms, such as unexplained rectal bleeding (haematochezia), diarrhoea, or abdominal pain, in young patients may be suggestive of FAP.In a minority of FAP families a mutation cannot be identified and so annual flexible sigmoidoscopy should be offered to at risk family members from age 13–15 years until age 30, and at three to five year intervals thereafter until age 60 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy is identified as having a Meckel's diverticulum. Which of the following embryological structures gives rise to the Meckel's diverticulum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitello-intestinal duct
Explanation:Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine. It is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct (also called the vitellointestinal duct) and contains ectopic ileal, gastric or pancreatic mucosa.Rule of 2’s- occurs in 2% of the population- it is located 2 feet proximal to the ileocaecal valve- it is 2 inches long- it is 2 times more common in men- there are 2 tissue types involvedIt is typically asymptomatic. Symptomatic presentation indicates inflammation of the diverticulum. The symptoms include:- Abdominal pain mimicking appendicitis- Rectal bleeding- Intestinal obstruction: secondary to an omphalomesenteric band (most commonly), volvulus and intussusceptionManagement:Surgical removal if the neck of the diverticulum is narrow or symptomatic. Surgical options are excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
A 2-year-old presented with symptoms of gastroenteritis. Which of the following signs is the strongest indicator for IV fluid administration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Capillary refilling time > 4secs
Explanation:Children are very prone to dehydration during an episode of gastroenteritis. Dehydration is detected early by increased capillary filling time.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but is afebrile. Clinical examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen, however, the doctor does not detect any palpable masses. Which of the following should you exclude first?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Intussusception is an urgent condition that must be excluded first as it may lead to life-threatening complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. His family is originally from Ghana.An ultrasound shows evidence of gallstones. What is the most likely risk factor for the child to develop gallstones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sickle cell disease
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely risk factor in this child to develop gallstones is sickle cell disease.Note:Haemolysis is the most frequent cause for gallstones in children and the likeliest cause because of his ethnicity would be sickle cell disease. The gallstones are pigmented which form from bilirubin. 70% of patients with sickle cell disease will develop gallstones| the prevalence of gallstones is related to the rate of haemolysis.Other options:- Gilbert’s syndrome: it is a common condition in which bilirubin glucuronidation (i.e. converting bilirubin into a water-soluble form) is affected. During times of stress (viral illness, fasting, etc.) there is an excess bilirubin production, and jaundice may develop. It is a benign condition but there is some evidence of an increased risk of developing gallstones. However, sickle cell disease is a more likely risk factor in this case.- Hereditary spherocytosis: Hereditary spherocytosis is a disease of the white population and is less likely to be the underlying cause in this case.- Male gender: After puberty, the incidence of gallstones is higher in women. Before puberty, the incidence is equal.- Obesity: Obesity is a risk factor for gallstones and is thought to be behind the rising incidence among young adults. Nevertheless, haemolytic states remain the most common reason for gallstones in children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl presents with severe abdominal pain radiating to her back and vomiting. Her vitals are as follows: Heart rate: 200 bpm and BP: 100/45 mmHg. On examination there is tenderness and guarding in the upper abdomen. Blood investigations reveal:Hb: 13.4 g/dLWBC Count: 16,000 cells/mm3Platelet count: 2,53,000 cells/mm3Na+: 140 mEq/LK+: 3.5 mEq/LCreatinine 6.4 mg/dLUrea 90 mg/dLBilirubin 2 mg/dLAlbumin: 4.2 mg/dLAmylase: 800 IU/L AST: 12 IU/L ALT: 16 IU/LWhat is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is pancreatitis.Although rare in childhood, the presence of abdominal pain radiating to the back with shock and tachycardia, and a raised amylase, should raise a suspicion of pancreatitis. Possible causes include trauma, drugs, viral illness, mumps, hyperparathyroidism, hyperlipidaemia and cystic fibrosis. Other options:- Normal LFTs in this patient make hepatitis unlikely. – Gastroenteritis with severe diarrhoea and vomiting may account for the shock and tachycardia, but guarding on abdominal examination and the raised amylase would not be explained by gastroenteritis. – Pregnancy is an important diagnosis to consider in an adolescent with abdominal pain, but the raised amylase and other features point to a diagnosis of pancreatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
A 3 year old girl presents with a 2 day history of GI symptoms whenever she eats cauliflower. Her mother is concerned that she may be allergic, and has kept a food diary and a record of her symptoms. Which of these is LEAST likely to be associated with food allergies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycythaemia
Explanation:Polycythaemia is a condition in which there is an increased red cell mass and increasing blood viscosity, which decreases its ability to flow. It is not associated with food allergies, but is fundamentally caused by either an overproduction of red blood cells, or a reduction in the volume of plasma. Abdominal pain, constipation, loose and frequent stools, and pallor are all non IGE mediated symptoms of food allergy according to NICE guidelines in the UK.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 71
Incorrect
-
A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the emergency department with icterus. Although she's had a good appetite, and breast-feeding well, she hasn't gained any weight. Her mother noticed that her stools are pale while her urine is noticeably dark. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Biliary atresia is a rare condition that usually becomes symptomatic 2 to 8 weeks after birth. It can be congenital or acquired. Typical symptoms include jaundice, weight loss, dark urine and pale stools.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
A routine vitamin D screening test reveals low calcium levels in a 3-year-old child.Which of the following could cause low calcium levels due to an artefact?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Albumin
Explanation:The accuracy of the test for calcium levels in the blood is affected by the blood level of albumin. If albumin levels are low, the calcium level can also appear low.This is termed as pseudohypocalcemia.Hypocalcaemia usually presents with muscle spams. These can include spasms of voluntary muscle but also smooth muscle such as in the airways (causing bronchospasm) and in the heart (causing angina).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old female presents with spasmodic abdominal pain for the past two days. It is associated with vomiting and raised rashes on her legs. She also provides a history suggestive of dysentery. Full blood count and inflammatory markers were normal, but a urine dipstick reveals blood and proteins. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura
Explanation:The initial symptoms of spasmodic abdominal pain, rectal bleeding and vomiting might point towards intussusception, but the peak incidence is in children aged 6–9 months. Considering that this child has additional symptoms of haematuria, proteinuria and a purpuric rash, it is more likely that the child has Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP). HSP is an identifiable cause of intussusception. It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints. It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection. A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure. Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old male presented to the OPD with complaints of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. There is a history of pubertal delay. On examination, he has pallor and looks short for his age. Tissue biopsy of the small intestines reveals damaged villi. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Celiac disease has characteristic shortened intestinal villi. When patients with celiac disease eat products containing gluten, they are unable to absorb the nutrients due to flattened or shortened intestinal villi. The blistering rash present on the patient’s elbows strongly suggests celiac disease. This rash is a sign of the condition Dermatitis Herpetiformis which is associate with celiac disease. Therefore, it is also often called ‘gluten rash’.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
An 8-month-old baby was investigated for failure to thrive. On examination, he was irritable with evidence of weight loss. His stools were pale, bulky and malodorous. What is the most appropriate test that can be done to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Jejunal Biopsy
Explanation:Pale, bulky, malodorous stools are evidence of fat malabsorption syndrome. The diagnostic test is jejunal biopsy to rule out other differential diagnoses such as celiac disease, giardiasis or Crohn’s disease etc.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
A 17 year old boy who was previously well and healthy presents to the physician after his teachers complained of his dropping grades. On clinical examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease. The ultrasound reveals cirrhosis and the blood ceruloplasmin levels are low. Wilsons disease is suspected. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present in addition to the above findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kayser–Fleischer rings
Explanation:A minority of affected individuals may experience severe liver failure. This happens most frequently in people with Wilson’s disease during adolescence and more commonly in women. These individuals may rapidly develop signs and symptoms of liver disease, often associated with anaemia due to breakdown of red blood cells (haemolysis) and mental confusion. In some patients, liver disease does not reveal itself, and the patient develops neurologic (brain-related) symptoms. Common neurological symptoms of Wilson disease that may appear and progress with time include tremor, involuntary movements, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking and poor articulation (dysarthria), lack of coordination, spasticity, dystonic postures, and muscle rigidity. Almost all affected individuals with the neurological symptoms of Wilson’s disease have Kayser-Fleischer rings in their eyes that can be identified by a slit lamp examination.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
In the treatment of infants with gastroenteritis, which of the following statements is the most accurate one?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Should be admitted to hospital if they are unable to tolerate fluid orally
Explanation:The main problem with infants having gastroenteritis is dehydration. So they should be admitted to the hospital for IV fluids if they are not tolerating oral fluids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old girl presented with faecal incontinence for 2 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed a mass in right lower quadrant. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this girl?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laxatives
Explanation:Laxatives have been shown to be beneficial in the treatment of chronic childhood constipation. Studies have shown that polyethylene glycol, mineral oil, magnesium hydroxide, and lactulose are effective and can be used for a prolonged periods without risk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
A 12-year-old boy was admitted with profound diarrhoea and low urine output. His mucous membranes seem dry and his skin turgor is low. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluid replacement
Explanation:Fluid replacement therapy should be initiated immediately because the patient is suffering from severe dehydration as shown by the low urine output, the dry mucous membranes and the low skin turgor.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
A 5 year old girl experiences recurrent abdominal pain that has recently localised in the epigastric region. She occasionally vomits as well. Doctors perform an upper endoscopy and a CLO test which turn out positive. A Helicobacter pylori infection is established. What is the initial most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole for 1 week
Explanation:European guidelines suggest that triple therapy for 1 week is acceptable and sufficient for H. pylori eradication. Although triple therapy for 2 weeks might have higher therapeutic rates, it also carries a higher risk of side effects. Triple therapy includes amoxicillin and clarithromycin and a proton-pump inhibitor, usually omeprazole.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)