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  • Question 1 - A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease.
      Cholesterol testing reveals triglyceride levels of 4.2 mmol/l and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 0.8 mmol/l.
      You advise him to start fibrate therapy.
      Which of the following best describes the mode of action for fibrates?

      Your Answer: They competitively inhibit hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) activity

      Correct Answer: They are inhibitors of lipoprotein lipase activity and increase HDL synthesis

      Explanation:

      Treatment with fibrates, a widely used class of lipid-modifying agents, results in a substantial decrease in plasma triglycerides and is usually associated with a moderate decrease in LDL cholesterol and an increase in HDL cholesterol concentrations.
      Evidence from studies is available to implicate 5 major mechanisms underlying the above-mentioned modulation of lipoprotein phenotypes by fibrates:
      1. Induction of lipoprotein lipolysis.
      2. Induction of hepatic fatty acid (FA) uptake and reduction of hepatic triglyceride production.
      3. Increased removal of LDL particles. Fibrate treatment results in the formation of LDL with a higher affinity for the LDL receptor, which is thus catabolized more rapidly.
      4. Reduction in neutral lipid (cholesteryl ester and triglyceride) exchange between VLDL and HDL may result from decreased plasma levels of TRL.
      5. Increase in HDL production and stimulation of reverse cholesterol transport. Fibrates increase the production of apoA-I and apoA-II in the liver, which may contribute to the increase of plasma HDL concentrations and a more efficient reverse cholesterol transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred due to weight loss, lethargy, and a significantly elevated IgM level.

      His recent blood results show:
      Hb: 13.8 g/dL
      Plts: 127 x 10^9/L
      ESR: 45 mm/hr
      IgM: 2150 mg/dL (50-330 mg/dL)

      Given the probable diagnosis, which one of the following complications is he most likely to develop?

      Your Answer: Hyperviscosity syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia in which IgM paraproteinemia is found. Hyperviscosity syndrome can occur in the patients accounting for 10-15% of the cases.

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old female with a history of osteoarthritis of the knee, obesity and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female with a history of osteoarthritis of the knee, obesity and depression, presents with neck and right arm pain. She claims that the pain is present for two months and is triggered by flexing her neck. Clinical examination reveals sensory loss over the middle finger and palm of the hand without any obvious muscle atrophy or weakness. Which nerve root is most probably affected?

      Your Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of cervical radiculopathy is degenerative disease in the cervical spine. In 80-90% of patients with cervical radiculopathy, the C5/C6 or C6/C7 motion segments are affected by degenerative disease and the nearby C6 and/or C7 nerve roots are producing the symptoms. Patients with cervical radiculopathy complain of neck pain and radiating pain in the arm sometimes combined with sensory and motor disturbances in the arm and/or hand. These symptoms are accepted as being caused by the nerve root compression. Middle finger and palm of the hand are mostly rising the suspicion for C7 nerve root and median nerve involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      75.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old previously well female, in her 10th week of pregnancy presented with...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old previously well female, in her 10th week of pregnancy presented with a left sided painful calf swelling. An ultrasound scan revealed deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of her left leg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Initiate and then continue treatment with heparin until delivery

      Explanation:

      Warfarin is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. She should be given heparin throughout her pregnancy. It can be converted to warfarin if necessary after the delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      96.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did...

    Correct

    • A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did not have jaundice at birth. On clinical investigations, direct Coombs test is positive. Mother's blood group is A negative. Baby's blood group is O positive. What is the most probable cause of the condition of this new-born?

      Your Answer: Rhesus incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Jaundice in a new-born on the day of delivery is most likely due to Rh incompatibility. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. Antibodies in the mother against the Rh factor in the baby will destroy the red blood cells in the baby, increasing the bilirubin in the blood. Breast milk jaundice and Galactosemia do not occur immediately after birth, and congenital rubella syndrome and formula feeding does not cause jaundice in babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immune System
      202.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 23-year-old man visited the OPD with a complaint of pain in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man visited the OPD with a complaint of pain in the abdomen and dark urine. His blood pressure was found to be elevated. Which of the following should be done next to reach a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urine microscopy

      Correct Answer: US

      Explanation:

      Hypertension along with haematuria give an indication of cystic kidneys which can be diagnosed with an ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman is investigated for weight loss and anaemia. Clinical examination reveals...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman is investigated for weight loss and anaemia. Clinical examination reveals splenomegaly associated with pale conjunctivae.

      Her full blood count (FBC) report shows:
      Hb: 10.9 g/dL
      Plts: 702 x 10^9/L
      WCC: 56.6 x 10^9/L
      Moreover, all stages of granulocyte maturation are seen on her blood film.

      Given the likely diagnosis, what should be the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Imatinib

      Explanation:

      This patient is a case of chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) and should be started on imatinib as the first-line drug of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months back...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman diagnosed with oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer three months back was started on treatment with tamoxifen. Which of the following is most likely a complaint of this patient during her review today?

      Your Answer: Hot flushes

      Explanation:

      The most likely complaint of this patient would be hot flushes.

      Alopecia and cataracts are listed in the BNF as possible side-effects. They are however not as prevalent as hot flushes, which are very common in pre-menopausal women.

      Tamoxifen is a Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) which acts as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. It is used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer

      Adverse effects:
      Menstrual disturbance: vaginal bleeding, amenorrhoea
      Hot flushes – 3% of patients stop taking tamoxifen due to climacteric side-effects.
      Venous thromboembolism.
      Endometrial cancer
      Tamoxifen is typically used for 5 years following the removal of the tumour.

      Raloxifene is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer.

      Although antagonistic with respects to breast tissue tamoxifen may serve as an agonist at other sites. Therefore the risk of endometrial cancer is increased cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Women's Health
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 59-year-old patient presents with altered bowel habits and bleeding per rectum. Exam...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old patient presents with altered bowel habits and bleeding per rectum. Exam and sigmoidoscopy showed an ulcer. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: UC

      Correct Answer: Colorectal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms along with his age indicates a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Blood test marker CA-19-9 is a prognostic index for colorectal cancer which confirms the suspicion. Celiac disease is not usually associated with bleeding per rectum and it is associated with a reaction to products containing gliadin. Crohn’s disease and UC are inflammatory bowel diseases and on endoscopy, show many other features of inflammation and not just a single ulcer. A patient with IBS will also have bloating and intermittent diarrhoea with constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman presents with intermittent episodes of diarrhoea, constipation, abdominal bloating and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with intermittent episodes of diarrhoea, constipation, abdominal bloating and flatulence. Clinical examination is unremarkable. Faecal occult bloods are negative and haematological and biochemical investigations are unremarkable.

      Which of the following is the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Trial of dairy-free diet

      Explanation:

      The best next step is to try a dairy-free diet, many patients may develop this in their lifetime. IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion, and one would need to rule lactose intolerance out as a potential aetiology first. She is only 28, and without overt bleeding or signs/sxs/labs suggestive of obstruction or inflammation; colonoscopy, flex sig and a barium enema are not indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      69.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 76-year-old man complains of painful microscopic haematuria and urgency. On examination of...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man complains of painful microscopic haematuria and urgency. On examination of the abdomen, there is suprapubic tenderness but no palpable abnormality. He is apyrexial, inflammatory markers and PSA in the blood are normal. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute cystitis

      Correct Answer: Bladder calculi

      Explanation:

      Painful haematuria suggests trauma, infection or calculi, whereas painless haematuria suggests a possible occult malignancy. This man is apyrexial with normal WCC and CRP which should effectively exclude infection as a cause for his symptoms. There is no history of trauma in this scenario (often catheter-associated) which makes this cause unlikely. It is worth noting that haematuria associated with injury tends to be macroscopic. Therefore, bladder calculi are the most likely source of his symptoms. Imaging will help to determine the presence of calculi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      84.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain.
    He underwent pituitary surgery...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain.
      He underwent pituitary surgery for a non-functional pituitary tumour two years ago. Although he recovered from his pituitary surgery well, he has been found to have complete anterior hypopituitarism. Accordingly he is receiving stable replacement therapy with testosterone monthly injections, thyroxine and hydrocortisone.
      On examination, there are no specific abnormalities, his vision is 6/9 in both eyes and he has no visual field defects.
      From his notes, you see that he has gained 8 kg in weight over the last six months and his BMI is 31. His blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg.
      Thyroid function tests and testosterone concentrations have been normal. A postoperative MRI scan report shows that the pituitary tumour has been adequately cleared with no residual tissue.

      Which of the following is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Growth hormone deficiency

      Explanation:

      The somatotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland produce growth hormone (GH).
      GH deficiency in adults usually manifests as reduced physical performance and impaired psychological well-being. It results in alterations in the physiology of different systems of the body, manifesting as altered lipid metabolism, increased subcutaneous and visceral fat, decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, low exercise performance, and reduced quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      138.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which...

    Correct

    • Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      Initiation of allopurinol treatment during an attack can exacerbate and prolong the episode. Thus treatment should be delayed until the attack resolves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes...

    Correct

    • Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes place in which part of the body?

      Your Answer: Large intestine

      Explanation:

      Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin passes into the enterohepatic circulation and the bilirubin which evades this system is metabolised by bacteria, primarily in the large intestine, to urobilinogen, then stercobilinogen and eventually oxidised to stercobilin. Stercobilin gives faeces its brown colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 22-year-old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old man is being evaluated for chronic lower backache. Which of the following would most strongly point towards the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis (spondylarthritis) is a chronic inflammatory disease of the axial skeleton that leads to partial or even complete fusion and rigidity of the spine. Males are disproportionately affected and upwards of 90% of patients are positive for the HLA-B27 genotype, which predisposes to the disease. The most characteristic early finding is pain and stiffness in the neck and lower back, caused by inflammation of the vertebral column and the sacroiliac joints. The pain typically improves with activity and is especially prominent at night. Other articular findings include tenderness to percussion and displacement of the sacroiliac joints (Mennell’s sign), as well as limited spine mobility, which can progress to restrictive pulmonary disease.
      The most common extra-articular manifestation is acute, unilateral anterior uveitis. Diagnosis is primarily based on symptoms and x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, with HLA-B27 testing and MRI reserved for inconclusive cases. There is no curative treatment, but regular physiotherapy can slow progression of the disease. Additionally, NSAIDs and/or tumour necrosis factor-? inhibitors may improve symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be considered to improve quality of life. The spine adopts a bamboo shape, not lordosis. The pain usually improves as the day progresses. leg raise test causes pain in cases of meningitis etc not in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old male underwent an urgent appendectomy. 3 hours after the procedure he...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male underwent an urgent appendectomy. 3 hours after the procedure he developed tachycardia and fever. He was also having pain in his abdomen and shoulder area. What is the first step in the management?

      Your Answer: Maintain IV access and give IV fluids

      Explanation:

      The features mentioned in this case indicate an internal haemorrhage. This should be managed initially by passing an IV line and IV fluids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      79
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 48-year-old woman presented to you with a breast mass. On examination, it...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman presented to you with a breast mass. On examination, it is hard, irregular and ill defined. The surface of the breast is slightly bruised however, there is no discharge. The most probable diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis is often a result of a trauma or surgery. In fat necrosis the enzyme lipase releases fatty acids from triglycerides. The fatty acids combine with calcium to form soaps. These soaps appear as white chalky deposits which are firm lumps with no associated discharge. The given case has a bruise which indicates prior trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Women's Health
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - When considering the anatomical location of intracranial meningiomas, which of the following relations...

    Correct

    • When considering the anatomical location of intracranial meningiomas, which of the following relations is well recognised?

      Your Answer: Parasagittal - spastic paraparesis

      Explanation:

      The localisation of intracranial lesions (based on both history and examination) is crucial. Meningiomas are slow in growth, and its subtle effects are very different from the more aggressive, intrinsic lesions. Olfactory groove lesions affect the sense of smell and may produce ipsilateral optic atrophy. Sphenoid ridge lesions will produce exophthalmos. Chiasmal lesions usually produce bitemporal hemianopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with a 2 month history of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with a 2 month history of constant abdominal pain and early satiety. He has hypertension for which he takes enalapril.

      On examination, he has mild tenderness on both flanks. Well-circumscribed masses are palpable in both the left and right flanks. A soft systolic murmur is heard loudest at the apex.

      His observations are heart rate 67/min, blood pressure 152/94 mmHg, temperature 37.2C, respiratory rate 14/min, saturations 97%.

      Which additional feature is most likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hepatomegaly

      Explanation:

      This patient shows classic symptoms of autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). The abdominal pain and early satiety is caused by the enlarged kidneys that were apparent from the physical examination. Additionally, hypertension is a common symptom along with the systolic murmur that was heard, suggesting mitral valve involvement. In ADPKD cases, the most common extra-renal manifestation is the development of liver cysts which are associated with hepatomegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      102.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and...

    Correct

    • An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and night sweats on a few nights per week for the past four months. He is known to smoke 12 cigarettes per day and he had previously undergone treatment for Tuberculosis seven years ago.

      His blood pressure was found to be 143/96 mmHg and he is mildly pyrexial 37.5°C. Evidence of consolidation affecting the right upper lobe was also found.

      Investigations;
       
      Hb 11.9 g/dl
      WCC 11.1 x109/l
      PLT 190 x109/l
      Na+ 138 mmol/l
      K+ 4.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine 105 μmol/l
      CXR Right upper lobe cavitating lesion
      Aspergillus precipitins positive

      Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspergilloma

      Explanation:

      An aspergilloma is a fungus ball (mycetoma) that develops in a pre-existing cavity in the lung parenchyma. Underlying causes of the cavitary disease may include treated tuberculosis or other necrotizing infection, sarcoidosis, cystic fibrosis, and emphysematous bullae. The ball of fungus may move within the cavity but does not invade the cavity wall. Aspergilloma may manifest as an asymptomatic radiographic abnormality in a patient with pre-existing cavitary lung disease due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or other necrotizing pulmonary processes. In patients with HIV disease, aspergilloma may occur in cystic areas resulting from prior Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Of patients with aspergilloma, 40-60% experience haemoptysis, which may be massive and life threatening. Less commonly, aspergilloma may cause cough and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      106.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?

      Your Answer: Nodular sclerosing

      Explanation:

      The most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is nodular sclerosing.

      HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.

      According to the histological classification, there are four types of HL:

      1. Nodular sclerosing: most common (around 70%), more common in women, associated with lacunar cells, good prognosis

      2. Mixed cellularity: Around 20%, associated with a large number of Reed-Sternberg cells, good prognosis

      3. Lymphocyte-predominant: Around 5%, Reed-Sternberg cells with nuclei surrounded by a clear space found, best prognosis

      4. Lymphocyte-depleted: rare, worst prognosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is the mechanism of action of bivalirudin in acute...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the mechanism of action of bivalirudin in acute coronary syndrome?

      Your Answer: Reversible direct thrombin inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Bivalirudin is a competitive, direct thrombin inhibitor. It inhibits both free and clot-bound thrombin and thrombin-induced platelet aggregation. Thrombin enables fibrinogen conversion to fibrin during the coagulation cascade. So inhibition of fibrinogen conversion to fibrin inhibits thrombus development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      40.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 48-year-old man presents with severe retrosternal pain, which was present for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents with severe retrosternal pain, which was present for the past 40 minutes. ECG shows ST elevation and blood tests reveal high troponin levels. He has already been given oxygen, GTN and morphine. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Percutaneous angiography

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction and percutaneous angiography is the next most appropriate step in management. Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), also known as coronary angioplasty, is a nonsurgical technique for treating obstructive coronary artery disease, including unstable angina, acute myocardial infarction (MI), and multivessel coronary artery disease (CAD).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      74180.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - All of the following drugs reduce the tone of the lower oesophageal sphincter...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following drugs reduce the tone of the lower oesophageal sphincter except?

      Your Answer: Swallowing

      Correct Answer: Domperidone

      Explanation:

      Domperidone is a D2 dopaminergic receptor antagonist which works as an anti emetic by increasing the tone of the lower oesophageal sphincter and increasing the gut motility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - An 18-year-old, previously well boy was admitted following a generalized tonic-clonic convulsion for...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old, previously well boy was admitted following a generalized tonic-clonic convulsion for 5 minutes with urinary incontinence and eye rolling. On examination, he was drowsy and had bilateral upgoing plantar reflexes. A short while ago he had been playing rugby and had taken a hit to the head. He was apparently normal for a few minutes before fitting. His blood sugar level was normal. Which of the following is the most probable reason for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Extradural haematoma

      Correct Answer: Post-traumatic seizure

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of a post-traumatic seizure which frequently occurs after moderate or severe traumatic brain injury. Although upgoing plantars can be identified in a post-ictal status, an intracranial bleed has to be excluded. A single seizure cannot be considered epilepsy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      72.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 79-year-old nursing home resident presents to the clinic with an intensely itchy...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old nursing home resident presents to the clinic with an intensely itchy rash. Examination reveals white linear lesions on the wrists and elbows, and red papules on the penile surface. Which of the following will be the most suitable management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical permethrin

      Explanation:

      Scabies is a parasitic skin infestation caused by Sarcoptes scabiei mite, which is primarily transmitted via direct human-to-human contact. The female scabies mite burrows into the superficial skin layer, causing severe pruritus, particularly at night. Primary lesions commonly include erythematous papules, vesicles, or burrows. Treatment involves topical medical therapy (e.g. permethrin) and decontamination of all clothing and textiles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      198.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old male with long history of diabetes is complaining of a red-hot...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male with long history of diabetes is complaining of a red-hot tender lump near his anus. What is the most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abscess

      Explanation:

      A diabetic patient is a patient with depressed immunity. It is not uncommon to develop abscesses. Diabetic patients have a defected cellular innate immunity. On the other hand, bacteria become much more virulent in a high glucose environment in the interstitium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old woman who is being treated for Hodgkin's lymphoma with ABVD chemotherapy...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman who is being treated for Hodgkin's lymphoma with ABVD chemotherapy is reviewed on the haematology ward.

      Six days ago, she was admitted with a fever of 38.9°C and was immediately started on piperacillin + tazobactam (Tazocin). Her blood picture on arrival was as follows:

      Haemoglobin: 10.1 g/dL
      Platelets: 311 x 10^9/L
      White cell count: 0.8 x 10^9/L
      Neutrophils: 0.35 x 10^9/L
      Lymphocytes: 0.35 x 10^9/L

      After 48 hours, she remained febrile and tachycardic. Tazocin was stopped and meropenem in combination with vancomycin was prescribed.

      She still remains unwell today with a temperature of 38.4°C, heart rate of 96 bpm, and blood pressure of 102/66 mmHg. Respiratory examination is consistently unremarkable and blood and urine cultures have failed to show any cause for the fever.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step of management?

      Your Answer: Add amphotericin B

      Explanation:

      This patient meets the diagnostic criteria for neutropenic sepsis, which is a relatively common complication of cancer therapy – usually chemotherapy occurring 7-14 days after. It is defined as a neutrophil count of <0.5 x 10^9/L in a patient undergoing anticancer treatment and who has either a temperature higher than 38°C or has other features consistent with clinically significant sepsis. Management approach is the same as mentioned in this case. However, if the patient still remains unwell, then an antifungal such as amphotericin B is started after risk-stratifying the patient and carrying out investigations (e.g. HRCT and Aspergillus PCR) to determine the likelihood of systemic fungal infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Drugs and their actions are listed below. Which pair is correctly matched? ...

    Correct

    • Drugs and their actions are listed below. Which pair is correctly matched?

      Your Answer: Simvastatin inhibits HMGCoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic agent, and prolongs phase 3 of the cardiac action potential.
      Digoxin increases the force of contraction of the heart muscle by inhibiting the Na-K-ATPase membrane pump, resulting in an increase in intracellular sodium.
      Sotalol blocks beta-adrenoreceptors (Vaughan Williams Class II) and prolongs the cardiac action potential duration (Vaughan Williams Class III).
      Streptokinase creates an active complex which promotes the cleavage of the Arg/Val bond in plasminogen to form the proteolytic enzyme plasmin. Plasmin degrades the fibrin matrix of the thrombus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increases the long-term prognosis in...

    Correct

    • Which treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increases the long-term prognosis in patients?

      Your Answer: Long-term domiciliary oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      COPD is commonly associated with progressive hypoxemia. Oxygen administration reduces mortality rates in patients with advanced COPD because of the favourable effects on pulmonary hemodynamics.

      Long-term oxygen therapy improves survival 2-fold or more in hypoxemic patients with COPD, according to 2 landmark trials, the British Medical Research Council (MRC) study and the US National Heart, Lung and Blood Institute’s Nocturnal Oxygen Therapy Trial (NOTT). Hypoxemia is defined as PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood) of less than 55 mm Hg or oxygen saturation of less than 90%. Oxygen was used for 15-19 hours per day.

      Therefore, specialists recommend long-term oxygen therapy for patients with a PaO2 of less than 55 mm Hg, a PaO2 of less than 59 mm Hg with evidence of polycythaemia, or cor pulmonale. Patients should be evaluated after 1-3 months after initiating therapy, because some patients may not require long-term oxygen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrine System & Metabolism (2/3) 67%
Haematology & Oncology (4/4) 100%
Nervous System (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular System (2/3) 67%
Immune System (1/1) 100%
Renal System (1/3) 33%
Women's Health (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal System (1/1) 100%
Emergency & Critical Care (1/1) 100%
Respiratory System (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Passmed