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Question 1
Correct
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A 75-year-old man was brought to the clinic by his wife because lately he has lost interest in activities he previously enjoyed. His wife is worried and claims he's generally withdrawn. What would exclude depression in favour of dementia?
Your Answer: Urinary incontinence
Explanation:Urinary incontinence is not a usual symptom of depression. A depressed patient is usually capable of maintaining control of his body sphincters. In dementia, however, urinary incontinence is an important and late symptom of the disease, non-related to any urinary tract pathology. It is rather related to the cognitive impairment caused by dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male student presents to the clinic with swelling of his face, hands and feet along with diffuse abdominal pain. He has a history of similar recurrent episodes since he was 10 years old, with each episode lasting 2-3 days. Examination reveals swelling on face, hands, feet but no sign of urticaria. Family history is significant for similar episodes in the mother who experienced these since childhood, and a brother who passed away following respiratory distress at age of 8 during one such episode. Which of the following tests would be the most helpful in reaching the diagnosis?
Your Answer: IgE levels
Correct Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor
Explanation:Hereditary C1 inhibitor deficiency leads to recurrent angioedema without urticaria or pruritus. Physical triggers include dental work, surgery or intubation. Medical triggers include angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, tamoxifen, oestrogen-containing medications (e.g., hormone replacement therapy and oral contraceptives). It is diagnosed on the basis of low levels of C1 esterase inhibitor or elevated levels of dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor. C4 levels are low between attacks. IgE levels, eosinophils, skin prick tests and RASTs are helpful in other allergic conditions and asthma but not of use in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 75 year male who has been on treatment for joint pain for a long period, presented with vomiting and sudden-onset severe epigastric pain for the past 1 hour. He also complained of shoulder tip pain. On examination his abdomen was rigid. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation to arrive at a diagnosis at this stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erect CXR
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis is perforated peptic ulcer. History of possible NSAID/steroid use for joint pain, sudden-onset severe epigastric pain, vomiting and shoulder tip pain, support the diagnosis. Erect CXR will show the air under the diaphragm which is diagnostic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin, has the greatest effect on which of the following components of the coagulation cascade?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factor Xa
Explanation:Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH):
It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot.LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation.
Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.
Dosage and uses:
LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.Adverse effects:
The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.
Less commonly it can cause:
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Osteoporosis and spontaneous fractures
Hypoaldosteronism
Hypersensitivity reactions -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman was investigated following an osteoporotic hip fracture. The following results are obtained:
TSH < 0.05 mu/l
Free T4 29 pmol/l
Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be present?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies
Explanation:The patient has hyperthyroidism and its most common cause is Grave’s Disease.
Grave’s Disease is an autoimmune disease due to circulating autoantibodies known as TSH receptor stimulating autoantibodies or Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSIs) that bind to and activate thyrotropin receptors, causing the thyroid gland to grow and the thyroid follicles to increase the synthesis of thyroid hormone. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old patient with epilepsy, presented with fits. Investigations revealed profound hyponatremia. Which of the following drugs will cause this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Carbamazepine and oxcarbazepine are the most common antiepileptics which induce hyponatremia in patients with epilepsy. Other antiepileptics such as eslicarbazepine, sodium valproate, lamotrigine, levetiracetam and gabapentin have also been reported to cause hyponatremia. So the most suitable answer is Carbamazepine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man was hit on the lateral aspect of his head by a high velocity cricket ball and lost consciousness immediately. Paramedics found him to have a Glasgow coma score of 15 but take him to the A&E for further investigation. His Glasgow coma score on examination in the A&E is 13 (M5, V4, E4) and he has anterograde and retrograde amnesia to recent events. The doctors arrange an urgent CT scan. Which clinical sign would be most concerning if present?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Intracranial pressure (ICP) is a complex brain modality that determines cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), which is the difference between arterial blood pressure (ABP), and ICP. Raised ICP reduces CPP and blood delivery to the brain. This jeopardizes cerebral function and organismal survival in many species. A massive rise in ICP is also known to produce an increase in ABP, bradycardia and respiratory irregularities termed Cushing response. This mechanism is generally considered to be an agonal and terminal event occurring in extreme condition of brainstem ischaemia leading to a sympatho-adrenal response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency & Critical Care
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which area in the body controls the hypoxic drive to breathe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carotid body
Explanation:The carotid body consists of chemosensitive cells at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery that respond to changes in oxygen tension and, to a lesser extent, pH. In contrast to central chemoreceptors (which primarily respond to PaCO2) and the aortic bodies (which primarily have circulatory effects: bradycardia, hypertension, adrenal stimulation, and also bronchoconstriction), carotid bodies are most sensitive to PaO2. At a PaO2 of approximately 55-60 mmHg, they send their impulses via CN IX to the medulla, increasing ventilatory drive (increased respiratory rate, tidal volume, and minute ventilation). Thus, patients who rely on hypoxic respiratory drive will typically have a resting PaO2 around 60 mm Hg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is not linked to hyperuricemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteoarthritis
Explanation:Hyperuricemia is an elevated uric acid level in the blood. The normal upper limit is 6.8mg/dL, and anything over 7 mg/dL is considered saturated, and symptoms can occur. Causes of hyperuricemia can be classified into three functional types:
1. Increased production of uric acid – Purine rich diet, Tumour lysis syndrome, HGPRT deficiency (Lesch-Nyhan and Kelley-Seegmiller syndromes), Increased PRPP synthetase activity and Polycythaemia
2. Decreased excretion of uric acid – Renal impairment, Metabolic syndrome, Drugs (diuretics, low-dose aspirin, cyclosporin, tacrolimus, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, levodopa, nicotinic acid), Acidosis, Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia, Hypothyroidism and hyperparathyroidism, Sarcoidosis, Familial juvenile gouty nephropathy, Chronic lead intoxication, Trisomy 21
3. Idiopathic and mixed type – Alcohol, Exercise, Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency, Aldolase B deficiency -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old smoker was recently diagnosed with non small cell lung carcinoma. Investigations show presence of a 3 x 3 x 2 cm tumour on the left side of the lower lung lobe. the mass has invaded the parietal pleura. Ipsilateral hilar node is also involved but there is no metastatic spread.
What is the stage of this cancer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T2 N1 M0
Explanation:The tumour has only invaded the visceral pleura and measures 3cm in the greatest dimension. Hence it is designated at T2. Ipsilateral peribronchial and/or hilar lymph node involvement would make it N1. There is no distal metastasis so M would be 0.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding the clinical effects of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is the most accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced sympathetic outflow
Explanation:Studies have shown that benefits of Long-tern oxygen therapy (LTOT) include improved exercise tolerance, with improved walking distance, and ability to perform daily activities, reduction of secondary polycythaemia, improved sleep quality and reduced sympathetic outflow, with increased sodium and water excretion, leading to improvement in renal function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman with contralateral hemisensory loss presents with severe burning pain in this area. In which of the following areas has arterial occlusion most probably occurred?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thalamogeniculate artery
Explanation:The woman’s clinical evolution suggests that there was a thalamic stroke in the contralateral hemisphere. The artery most likely affected is the thalamogeniculate artery. Sensory loss is usually unilateral and presents at the opposite side of the brain lesion. This kind of stroke can result in severe burning pain which is responsive to tricyclics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old previously well male was admitted with a suspected pulmonary embolism. On examination his BP was 130/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 88 bpm. His CXR was normal. He was treated with low molecular weight heparin. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial lung investigation for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography
Explanation:Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is the standard investigative tool, used for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary angiography is indicated if CTPA is not available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: B2-microglobulin
Explanation:B2-microglobulin is a useful marker of prognosis in multiple myeloma (MM). Raised levels imply a poorer prognosis. Low levels of albumin are also associated with a poor prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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All of the following are true regarding the management of thyroid diseases during pregnancy, except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Block-and-replace is preferable in pregnancy compared to antithyroid drug titration
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System & Metabolism
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man visits the clinic because he has been experiencing increasing breathlessness for the past five months while doing daily tasks. His exercise tolerance is now limited to 75 metres while on a flat surface and walking up the stairs makes him breathless. He sleeps on four pillows and has swollen ankles in the morning. He occasionally coughs up phlegm.
Past Medical history of importance:
36 pack year smoking history
Hypertension
Ischaemic heart disease
Coronary artery stenting done 10 months ago
Pulmonary function testing revealed:
FEV1 0.90 L (1.80 - 3.02 predicted)
FVC 1.87 L (2.16 - 3.58 predicted)
Diffusion capacity 3.0 mmol/min/kPa (5.91 - 9.65 predicted)
Total lung capacity 4.50 L (4.25 - 6.22 predicted)
Residual volume 2.70 L (1.46 - 2.48 predicted)
Â
Which condition does he have?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation:Whilst asthma and COPD are different diseases they cause similar symptoms, which can present a challenge in identifying which of the two diseases a patient is suffering from. COPD causes chronic symptoms and narrowed airways which do not respond to treatment to open them up. In the case of asthma the constriction of the airways through inflammation tends to come and go and treatment to reduce inflammation and to open up the airways usually works well.
COPD is more likely than asthma to cause a chronic cough with phlegm and is rare before the age of 35 whilst asthma is common in under-35s. Disturbed sleep caused by breathlessness and wheeze is more likely in cases of asthma, as is a history of allergies, eczema and hay fever. Differentiating between COPD and asthma requires a history of both symptoms and spirometry. The spirometry history should include post bronchodilator measurements, the degree of reversibility and, ideally, home monitoring which gives a history of diurnal variation.
Airflow Obstruction: Both asthma and COPD are characterised by airflow obstruction. Airflow obstruction is defined as a reduced FEV1 and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio, such that FEV1 is less than 80% of that predicted, and FEV1/FVC is less than 0.7.
These episodes are usually associated with widespread, but variable, airflow obstruction within the lung that is often reversible either spontaneously or with treatment.
COPD: COPD is a chronic, slowly progressive disorder characterised by airflow obstruction (reduced FEV1 and FEV1/VC ratio) that does not change markedly over several months. The airflow obstruction is not fully reversible.
Spirometry COPD Asthma
VC Reduced Nearly normal
FEV1 Reduced Reduced in attack
FVC (or FEV6) Reduced Nearly normal
FEV1 Ratio
(of VC/FVC/FEV6) Reduced in attackThis man has a low FEV1 and FVC. His diffusions capacity is also low despite having a normal total lung capacity. These values confirm a diagnosis of COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old woman presents to the emergency department due to right sided weakness. Past history reveals a DVT following the birth of her daughter, and two miscarriages. Head CT confirms an ischaemic stroke in the territory of left middle cerebral artery. What would be the most likely finding on echocardiography?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal
Explanation:The patient most likely suffers from antiphospholipid syndrome. The clinical criteria consist of vascular thrombosis and pregnancy morbidity. Vascular thrombosis is defined as one or more clinical episodes of arterial, venous, or small-vessel thrombosis in any tissue or organ confirmed by findings from imaging studies, Doppler studies, or histopathology. ASD, VSDs would cause paradoxical emboli and stroke, however the recurrent pregnancy loss in this case is strongly suggestive of antiphospholipid syndrome. The ECG would be normal in most cases associated with anti phospholipid syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells
Explanation:Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease characterized by patches of skin typically red, dry, itchy, and scaly. Psoriasis can affect the nails and produces a variety of changes in the appearance of finger and toe nails including pitting and onycholysis. Nail psoriasis occurs in 40-45% of people with psoriasis affecting the skin and has a lifetime incidence of 80-90% in those with psoriatic arthritis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- The Skin
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the emergency department with icterus. Although she's had a good appetite, and breast-feeding well, she hasn't gained any weight. Her mother noticed that her stools are pale while her urine is noticeably dark. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Biliary atresia is a rare condition that usually becomes symptomatic 2 to 8 weeks after birth. It can be congenital or acquired. Typical symptoms include jaundice, weight loss, dark urine and pale stools.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Hepatobiliary System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21-year-old student who has ankylosing spondylitis and complains of worsening back pain and morning stiffness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral NSAIDs
Explanation:NSAIDs are considered as the first line of treatment for managing pain and stiffness associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Other useful medications include TNF-alpha inhibitors. Other drugs like paracetamol, colchicine, and steroids are not routinely used. Bilateral total hip replacement might be indicated in advanced disease contrary to complicated spinal surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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The chorda tympani of the facial nerve (CN VII) carries:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: parasympathetic fibres to the submandibular and sublingual glands and taste fibres from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Explanation:In the petrous temporal bone the facial nerve produces three branches:
1. The greater petrosal nerve, which transmits preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to the sphenopalatine ganglion. These postganglionic fibres supply the lacrimal gland and the glands in the nasal cavity;
2. The nerve to stapedius;
3. Parasympathetic fibres to the submandibular and sublingual glands and taste fibres from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nervous System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female with type 1 diabetes who has undergone a renal transplant is being reviewed. She is taking azathioprine and tacrolimus for immunosuppression.
Which among the following is correct regarding the given immunosuppressive agents?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor
Explanation:Tacrolimus is a calcineurin inhibitor used as an immunosuppressive agent used for prophylaxis of organ rejection post-transplant.
Pharmacology: Calcineurin inhibition leads to reduced T-lymphocyte signal transduction and IL-2 expression. It has a half-life of 12 hours (average).
Other off-label indications for the use of tacrolimus include Crohn disease, graft-versus-host disease (GVHD), myasthenia gravis, rheumatoid arthritis.
Adverse effects of tacrolimus includes:
Cardiovascular: Angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmias, hypertension
Central nervous system: Abnormal dreams, headaches, insomnia, tremors.
Dermatologic: Acne vulgaris, alopecia, pruritis, rash
Endocrine and metabolic: Decreased serum bicarbonate, decreased serum iron, new-onset diabetes mellitus after transplant (NODAT), electrolyte disturbances.
Gastrointestinal: Abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
Genitourinary: Urinary tract infection
Hepatic: Abnormal hepatic function tests
Neuromuscular and skeletal: Arthralgia, muscle cramps
Ophthalmic: Blurred vision, visual disturbance
Otic: Otalgia, otitis media, tinnitus
Renal: Acute renal failureOther options:
Sirolimus (a macrolide) is an mTOR inhibitor that blocks the response to IL-2 and has a half-life of 12-15 hours.
Azathioprine inhibits purine synthesis, an essential step in the proliferation of white cells and has a half-life of around 5 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male with a history of type II diabetes mellitus and hypertension presented with exertional dyspnoea and chest pain for 2 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 145/80 mmHg. On auscultation reversed splitting of the second heart sound and bibasal crepitations were detected. What would be the most likely finding on his ECG?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block
Explanation:When closure of the pulmonary valve occurs before the aortic valve, reversed splitting occurs. The causes of reversed splitting are aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, left bundle branch block (LBBB), and a ventricular pacemaker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to be HIV positive and with oesophageal candidiasis. Which of the following regarding HIV virus is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV is an RNA virus
Explanation:The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is grouped to the genus Lentivirus within the family of Retroviridae, subfamily Orthoretrovirinae. The HIV genome consists of two identical single-stranded RNA molecules that are enclosed within the core of the virus particle. The genome of the HIV provirus, also known as proviral DNA, is generated by the reverse transcription of the viral RNA genome into DNA, degradation of the RNA and integration of the double-stranded HIV DNA into the human genome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old female, on warfarin for mitral valve replacement and atrial fibrillation (AF), is due for extensive abdominal surgery.
What is the most appropriate step in regards to her anticoagulation therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop warfarin five days pre-operatively, bridge with LMWH and give vitamin K if INR is still above 3.0 on the evening of operation
Explanation:Patients with a VTE within the previous three months, patients with AF and previous stroke or TIA or multiple other risk factors, and patients with a mitral valve replacement should be considered for bridging therapy.
The most appropriate bridging therapy in this case would be low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), with the last dose given not less than 24 hours prior to the procedure. Warfarin should be discontinued 5 days prior to the procedure. If the INR is still above 3 on the day prior to the procedure, vitamin K should be administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man with a two year history of ulcerative colitis, has been receiving parenteral nutrition for 4 months. He has developed a dermatitis and has noticed some loss of hair. Serum biochemistry shows a marginally raised glucose concentration and a lower alkaline phosphatase activity.
Which of the following is the most likely?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zinc deficiency
Explanation:Zinc deficiency can present with alopecia, dermatitis, poor growth, increased susceptibility to infection, and cognitive deficiency. Magnesium deficiency can cause fatigue, cramping and an irregular EKG. Copper deficiency can present with fatigue and weakness. Chromium deficiency can present with hyperglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 85-year-old male with a history of Alzheimer's dementia was brought into Casualty by family members, who stated that he had episodes of aggression. Which of the following drugs is most suitable as the pharmacological management for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Regarding the pharmacological management, Risperidone is the most suitable drug from the given answers as it is recommended for the treatment of aggression associated with moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease. Quetiapine and Benzodiazepine are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Geriatric Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is investigated for cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular sclerosing Hodgkin lymphoma.
Which one of the following factors is associated with a poor prognosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Night sweats
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is investigated for lethargy. His full blood count (FBC) report shows:
Hb: 8.6 g/dL
Plts: 42 x 10^9/L
WCC: 36.4 x 10^9/L
His blood film report reveals 30% myeloblasts with Auer rods. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following is associated with a good prognosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Translocation between chromosome 15 and 17
Explanation:A translocation between chromosome 15 and 17 is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL), which is known to carry a good prognosis.
Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly. The disease has poor prognosis if:
The disease has poor prognosis if:
1. Age of the patient >60 years
2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.APL is an aggressive form of AML. It is associated with t(15;17) and has a good prognosis. The general age of presentation is less than that in other types of AML (average age is 25 years old). On blood film, abundant Auer rods are seen with myeloperoxidase staining. Thrombocytopaenia or DIC is seen in patients presenting with this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old female presented after an acute overdose of amiodarone. Her blood pressure was 110/70 mmHg and pulse rate was 35 bpm. She was given 500 mcg of atropine but there was no response. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoprenaline
Explanation:Permanent pacing is not indicated as the bradycardia is reversible. Temporary pacing is the definite treatment. Isoprenaline can be used until temporary pacing is available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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