00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
Retry this test Dashboard

  • Question 1 - A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?

      Your Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - What percentage of blood is supplied to the liver by the portal vein?...

    Correct

    • What percentage of blood is supplied to the liver by the portal vein?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Explanation:

      The portal vein supplies 75% of the blood to the liver and exceeds the arterial supply of the organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility is due to: ...

    Correct

    • The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility is due to:

      Your Answer: Increase in intracellular Ca2+

      Explanation:

      The postextrasystolic potentiation of myocardial contractility Is not due to ventricular filling. It occurs in isolated locations in the heart and is due to increase availability of intracellular calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.8
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A...

    Correct

    • A patient who has recently been diagnosed with SLE undergoes serum testing. A rise in which of the following antibodies would indicate severe systemic involvement?

      Your Answer: Anti double-stranded DNA antibodies

      Explanation:

      Anti ds-DNA antibodies are very specific for SLE and their presence most often indicates systemic spread of the disease. These antibodies are present in about 30 percent of the total cases of SLE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - In which of the following are the enzymatic mechanisms for producing aldosterone found?...

    Correct

    • In which of the following are the enzymatic mechanisms for producing aldosterone found?

      Your Answer: Zona glomerulosa

      Explanation:

      The zona glomerulosa is the outermost layer of the adrenal gland. In it, aldosterone is secreted as a response to an increase in potassium levels, decreased blood flow, or renin. This secretion is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.6
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - The majority of corticospinal tract fibers decussate in the: ...

    Correct

    • The majority of corticospinal tract fibers decussate in the:

      Your Answer: Medulla

      Explanation:

      The corticospinal tract is a descending motor path way that begins in the cerebral cortex and decussates in the pyramids of the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.7
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Alveolar epithelial cells: ...

    Incorrect

    • Alveolar epithelial cells:

      Your Answer: Type 1 covers 50% of the surface

      Correct Answer: Type 2 represent 60% of the cells

      Explanation:

      Type I alveolar cells are squamous (giving more surface area to each cell) and cover approximately 90–95% of the alveolar surface. Type I cells are involved in the process of gas exchange between the alveoli and blood. Type II alveolar cells cover a small fraction of the alveolar surface area. Their function is of major importance in the secretion of pulmonary surfactant, which decreases the surface tension within the alveoli. They are also capable of cellular division, giving rise to more type I alveolar cells when the lung tissue is damaged. These cells are granular and roughly cuboidal. Type II alveolar cells are typically found at the blood-air barrier. Although they only comprise <5% of the alveolar surface, they are relatively numerous (60% of alveolar epithelial cells).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      9.2
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Southern Blotting and DNA probes: ...

    Correct

    • Southern Blotting and DNA probes:

      Your Answer: DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      11.9
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - The actions of dihydrotestosterone in male reproductive physiology include: ...

    Correct

    • The actions of dihydrotestosterone in male reproductive physiology include:

      Your Answer: Development of external genitalia in utero and at puberty

      Explanation:

      Dihydrotestosterone mediates the differentiation of the urogenital sinus and genital tubercles, leading to the fusion of the urethral and labial folds; thus, it leads to the development of external genitalia in the male.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Which of the following describes a principal action of insulin? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following describes a principal action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of phosphorylase and gluconeogenic enzymes

      Explanation:

      Insulin stimulates glycolysis and lipogenesis, but inhibits gluconeogenesis. Insulin promotes the dephosphorylating of glycogen phosphorylase, therefore suppressing glycogenolysis. Insulin also inhibits FOX3, FOX4, and FOX6 and their ability to promote hepatic gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6.6
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - von Willebrand factor stabilises which clotting factor? ...

    Correct

    • von Willebrand factor stabilises which clotting factor?

      Your Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand factor’s primary function is binding to other proteins, in particular factor VIII, and it is important in platelet adhesion to wound sites. It is not an enzyme and, thus, has no catalytic activity. Factor VIII degrades rapidly when not bound to vWF. Factor VIII is released from vWF by the action of thrombin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.7
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old electrical technician presents following an overdose. Anticholinergic syndrome is suspected. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia is common

      Correct Answer: Mydriasis occurs

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic syndrome occurs following overdose with drugs that have prominent anticholinergic activity including tricyclic antidepressants, antihistamines and atropine. Features include dry, warm, flushed skin, urinary retention, tachycardia, mydriasis (dilated pupils) and agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      10.2
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old male presents to the emergency department with confusion and agitation for the past four hours. He is a known alcoholic who has abstained from drinking for the past three days.On examination, he is sweating, agitated and disorientated. His temperature is 37.7°C, pulse 112 bpm regular and blood pressure is 150/76 mmHg. Blood investigations performed in the emergency department reveal:FBC: NormalU&E: NormalPlasma glucose: 4.6 mmol/l (3.6-6)Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this man?

      Your Answer: Oral lorazepam

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is delirium tremens due to alcohol withdrawal, which should be treated as a medical emergency. Delirium tremens is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnoea, tremor, and mydriasis.Treatment:- The most common and validated treatment for alcohol withdrawal is benzodiazepine: first-line treatment includes oral lorazepam. – If the symptoms persist, or the medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol or olanzapine should be given.- Central-acting, alpha-2 agonists such as clonidine and dexmedetomidine should not be used alone for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal.- It is also recommended to avoid using alcohol, antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, and baclofen for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal as there are not enough studies to support the safety of these.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      27.3
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of the Natriuretic hormones?

      Your Answer: They are released in response to hypervolemia

      Explanation:

      Natriuretic hormones are vasodilators released in response to hypervolemia.

      Natriuretic hormones (NH) include three groups of compounds: the natriuretic peptides NPs (ANP, BNP and CNP), the gastrointestinal peptides (guanylin and uroguanylin), and endogenous cardiac steroids. These substances induce the kidney to excrete sodium and therefore participate in the regulation of sodium and water homeostasis, blood volume, and blood pressure (BP). In addition to their peripheral functions, these hormones act as neurotransmitters or neuromodulators in the brain.

      Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) plays a crucial role in blood pressure regulation by inducing natriuresis and diuresis in the kidney, inhibiting renin secretion, aldosterone production, and promoting vasorelaxation.  Two paracrine factors derived from endothelial cells play important roles in modulating ANP secretion. Endothelin, a potent vasoconstrictor, stimulates ANP secretion and augments stretch induced ANP secretion. The dramatic increase in ANP release produced by cardiac ischemia appears to be mediated in part by endothelin. Nitric oxide (NO), an important vasodilator, is also produced by endothelial cells and inhibits ANP secretion.

      Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) shares ANP’s receptor but is primarily associated with antifibrotic effects in ventricular remodeling, serving as a biomarker for heart failure and myocardial infarction.

      C-type natriuretic peptide (CNP) acts locally in an autocrine/paracrine manner, exerting potent cardiovascular effects, including vasorelaxation and vascular remodeling post-injury. NPs also demonstrate diverse effects beyond cardiovascular and renal systems, such as bronchodilation, anti-inflammatory actions, and metabolic effects on adipose tissue and long bones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.4
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - The haustral pattern seen in the normal colon is produced by ...

    Incorrect

    • The haustral pattern seen in the normal colon is produced by

      Your Answer: Valvulae conniventes

      Correct Answer: Taenia coli

      Explanation:

      The haustra (singular haustrum) of the colon are the small pouches caused by sacculation (sac formation), which give the colon its segmented appearance. The teniae coli run the length of the large intestine. Because the taeniae coli are shorter than the intestine, the colon becomes sacculated between the taeniae coli, forming the haustra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      3
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?...

    Correct

    • Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?

      Your Answer: Peripheral asymmetric oligoarthropathy

      Explanation:

      Most patients with psoriatic arthritis present with monoarthritis or asymmetric oligoarthritis. The most common form of the disease is the one involving a few joints of the peripheral skeleton with a distinct asymmetry of symptoms. Involvement of the smaller joints of the hands and feet, especially distal interphalangeal joints, seems to be a characteristic feature. Arthritis mutilans is a rare and severe complication of psoriatic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      10.6
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Portal vein receives its blood from all the following except: ...

    Correct

    • Portal vein receives its blood from all the following except:

      Your Answer: Kidney

      Explanation:

      The portal vein receives blood from the intestines via the superior and inferior mesenteric veins, from stomach via the gastric veins and from the spleen and pancreas via splenic vein. The kidney is supplied by the renal artery and drains into the renal vein into the inferior venacava.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.9
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - Which of the following factors is most likely to lead to an increase...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors is most likely to lead to an increase in serum cortisol levels?

      Your Answer: Severe emotional stress

      Explanation:

      Cortisol is widely known as the stress hormone. Alterations in cortisol levels have been found in relation to mood disorders, illness, trauma, pain, fear, exertion, and anxiety, amongst other stimuli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.7
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - The V wave in the jugular pulse is caused by: ...

    Correct

    • The V wave in the jugular pulse is caused by:

      Your Answer: Atrial filling

      Explanation:

      The v wave reflects the passive increase in pressure and volume of the right atrium as it fills in late systole and early diastole.

      The jugular vein pulsations usually have two elevations and two troughs. The first elevation (a wave) corresponds to the slight rise in atrial pressure resulting from atrial contraction. The first descent (x descent) reflects a fall in atrial pressure that starts with atrial relaxation. The second elevation (v wave) corresponds to ventricular systole when blood is entering the right atrium from the vena cavae while the tricuspid valve is closed. Finally, the second descent (y descent) reflects falling right atrial pressure as the tricuspid valve opens and blood drains from the atrium into the ventricle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - Which of the following affects the magnitude of the action potential? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following affects the magnitude of the action potential?

      Your Answer: Changes in the external Na+ concentration

      Explanation:

      The magnitude of the action potential is determined by the sodium current. Increase in external sodium will result in increased influx of sodium and hence generation of a stronger action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.2
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which cell secretes parathyroid hormone? ...

    Correct

    • Which cell secretes parathyroid hormone?

      Your Answer: Chief cells

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid chief cells, also known as parathyroid principal cells or parathyroid cells, are the most prevalent type of cell in the parathyroid gland and the only ones present at birth. They secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - G cells release which of the following substances ...

    Correct

    • G cells release which of the following substances

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      The G cell is a type of cell in the stomach and duodenum that secretes gastrin. It works in conjunction with gastric chief cells and parietal cells. G cells are found deep within the pyloric glands of the stomach antrum, and occasionally in the pancreas and duodenum. Gastrin-releasing peptide, as well as the presence of amino acids in the stomach, stimulates the release of gastrin from the G cells. Gastrin stimulates enterochromaffin-like cells to secrete histamine. Gastrin also targets parietal cells by increasing the amount of histamine and the direct stimulation by gastrin, causing the parietal cells to increase HCl secretion in the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.2
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - Where on the surface of the chest is the normal site of auscultation...

    Correct

    • Where on the surface of the chest is the normal site of auscultation for the mitral area?

      Your Answer: 4th left intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line

      Explanation:

      The mitral valve is situated in the left 4th intercostal space just beneath the sternum, in the mid clavicular line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.4
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of the number of:...

    Correct

    • The length of DNA is generally measured in terms of the number of:

      Your Answer: Base pairs

      Explanation:

      As DNA is made up of nucleotides, its length is measured by the number of base pairs in the DNA molecules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      3.2
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - Absolute refractory period in a cardiac action potential graph occurs during. ...

    Correct

    • Absolute refractory period in a cardiac action potential graph occurs during.

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      Absolute refractory period (ARP): the cell is completely unexcitable to a new stimulus and occurs from phase 0 – 2 i.e. depolarisation, early repolarisation and plateau phase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      10.7
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Which serotonergic receptor is associated with vomiting? ...

    Correct

    • Which serotonergic receptor is associated with vomiting?

      Your Answer: 5ht3

      Explanation:

      5ht3 is a receptor strongly associated with vomiting, present in vagal afferents, the solitary tract nucleus (STN), and the area posterior. For this reason, 5ht3 antagonists are commonly used as antiemetic drugs. They include ondansetron, tropisetron, and granisetron.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      1.6
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - The febrile response to PGE2 will be impaired with the knockout of which...

    Incorrect

    • The febrile response to PGE2 will be impaired with the knockout of which one of the following prostaglandin receptors?

      Your Answer: Ep2

      Correct Answer: Ep3

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin EP3 receptor is a receptor for prostaglandin E2. Fever occurs as a result of the action of prostaglandin E2 and requires EP3 receptors in the preoptic area. Therefore, if there is an absence of EP3 receptors, fever caused by prostaglandin E2 will not occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      5.5
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - Where are the principal cells found in the kidney? ...

    Correct

    • Where are the principal cells found in the kidney?

      Your Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      A kidney collecting duct cell can be of two different cell types:Principal cellsIntercalated cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      4.2
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Inhibition of cell division at the end of G1 occurs through: ...

    Correct

    • Inhibition of cell division at the end of G1 occurs through:

      Your Answer: Unphosphorolated retinoblastoma protein (uRb)

      Explanation:

      A cell’s decision to enter, or re-enter, the cell cycle is made before S-phase in G1 at what is known as the restriction point, and is determined by the combination of promotional and inhibitory extracellular signals that are received and processed. Ultimately unphosphorylated Rb acts as an inhibitor of G1.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - Absorption of fructose is via: ...

    Correct

    • Absorption of fructose is via:

      Your Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Dietary fructose may be ingested as a monosaccharide or as a disaccharide. Sucrose is hydrolysed by sucrase to produce equal amounts of glucose and fructose and in this form, is usually completely absorbed. Fructose is mostly absorbed in the small intestine through GLUT-5 transporter mediated facilitative diffusion. This is an energy independent process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.3
      Seconds

  • Question 31 - In the menstrual cycle, ovulation is triggered by: ...

    Incorrect

    • In the menstrual cycle, ovulation is triggered by:

      Your Answer: A pituitary LH/FSH surge due to the negative feedback effect of oestrogens

      Correct Answer: A pituitary LH surge due to the positive feedback effect of circulating oestrogens

      Explanation:

      FSH and LH are secreted to start the development of a follicle at the start of each menstrual cycle. A surge in oestrogen causes a positive feedback in the LH cells of the pituitary; this causes ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      7.1
      Seconds

  • Question 32 - Regarding taste threshold and intensity discrimination: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding taste threshold and intensity discrimination:

      Your Answer: 30% change in concentration of substance tasted is necessary before an intensity difference can be detected

      Explanation:

      The ability of humans to differentiate differences in intensity of taste is poor. A 30% change in the concentration of the substance being tasted is required before an intensity difference is perceived.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11.6
      Seconds

  • Question 33 - What is the most abundant hormone release by the thyroid? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most abundant hormone release by the thyroid?

      Your Answer: T3

      Correct Answer: T4

      Explanation:

      T3 and T4 are the two tyrosine-based hormones produced and secreted by the thyroid gland. Although T3 is the active form of the hormone, and thus, it is much more potent; T4 is the most abundant hormone secreted by the thyroid (93% of the total thyroid secretion) and it also has a longer half life since it binds to proteins much more strongly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      2.3
      Seconds

  • Question 34 - Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia?

      Your Answer: May arise due to a hereditary deficiency of NADH.

      Explanation:

      Methaemoglobin is a form of haemoglobin that contains ferric [Fe3+] iron and has a decreased ability to bind oxygen. Spontaneously formed methaemoglobin is normally reduced by protective enzyme systems, e.g., NADH methaemoglobin reductase, hence a deficiency of NADH may result in increased levels of methaemoglobin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds

  • Question 35 - Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is correct regarding lead poisoning?

      Your Answer: Causes a peripheral neuropathy due to demyelination

      Explanation:

      Lead can be absorbed through the skin and by inhalation. It is associated with iron deficiency and a microcytic anaemia. The most common gastrointestinal symptoms are abdominal colic and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      5.1
      Seconds

  • Question 36 - A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old software developer with lung cancer is currently taking MST 30mg bd for pain relief. What dose of oral morphine solution should he be prescribed for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: 15 mg

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      The total daily morphine dose is 30 x 2 = 60 mg. Therefore, the breakthrough dose should be one-sixth of this, 10 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      7.9
      Seconds

  • Question 37 - A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old female teacher asks about hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What is the most compelling indication for starting HRT?

      Your Answer: Prevention of osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: Control of vasomotor symptoms such as flushing

      Explanation:

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to help alleviate menopausal symptoms. The main indication is the control of vasomotor symptoms. The other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy and prevention of osteoporosis, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      9.5
      Seconds

  • Question 38 - Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Osteopetrosis occurs as a result of a defect in:

      Your Answer: Osteoblast function

      Correct Answer: Osteoclast function

      Explanation:

      It is a metabolic bone disease caused by defective osteoclastic resorption of immature bone. Osteopetrosis is also known as marble bone disease. Osteoclasts are unable to adequately acidify bone matrix. Impaired bone resorption leads to overly dense bone that is more likely to fracture. It is usually treated with bone marrow transplant and high dose calcitriol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      14.1
      Seconds

  • Question 39 - Where is leptin synthesized and secreted? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is leptin synthesized and secreted?

      Your Answer: Yellow adipose tissue

      Correct Answer: White adipose tissue

      Explanation:

      Leptin is a hormone that helps regulate food intake and energy expenditure. It is synthetized by white adipose tissue and the gastric mucosa. It works by inhibiting the sensation of hunger, therefore, it opposes the actions of ghrelin, also known as the hunger hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      3.1
      Seconds

  • Question 40 - What is the main function of vitamin E? ...

    Correct

    • What is the main function of vitamin E?

      Your Answer: It is an antioxidant

      Explanation:

      Vitamin E has many biological functions, the antioxidant function being the best known. Other functions include enzymatic activities, gene expression, and neurological function(s).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      5.3
      Seconds

  • Question 41 - A 85 year old male with a history of Alzheimer's dementia was brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 85 year old male with a history of Alzheimer's dementia was brought into Casualty by family members, who stated that he had episodes of aggression. Which of the following drugs is most suitable as the pharmacological management for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Correct Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Regarding the pharmacological management, Risperidone is the most suitable drug from the given answers as it is recommended for the treatment of aggression associated with moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease. Quetiapine and Benzodiazepine are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds

  • Question 42 - If UA = concentration of A in urine, V = urine flow per...

    Correct

    • If UA = concentration of A in urine, V = urine flow per unit time, and PA = arterial plasma level of A, renal clearance of A is equal to?

      Your Answer: (UA x V)/PA

      Explanation:

      Renal clearance = [Urine concentration (UA) x Urine flow (V)]/[Plasma concentration (PA)]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Renal
      89
      Seconds

  • Question 43 - In a normal heart rate at rest, the left ventricular end-diastolic volume is...

    Correct

    • In a normal heart rate at rest, the left ventricular end-diastolic volume is ….

      Your Answer: 100-130 ml

      Explanation:

      In cardiovascular physiology, end-diastolic volume (EDV) is the volume of blood in the right and/or left ventricle at end load or filling in (diastole) or the amount of blood in the ventricles just before systole. Because greater EDVs cause greater distention of the ventricle, EDV is often used synonymously with preload, which refers to the length of the sarcomeres in cardiac muscle prior to contraction (systole). End-diastolic volume: Right = 144 mL(± 23mL) & Left = 142 mL (± 21 mL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2.7
      Seconds

  • Question 44 - Which of the following results in the resting membrane potential of a myocyte?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following results in the resting membrane potential of a myocyte?

      Your Answer: Activation of outward K+ channels

      Explanation:

      Phase 0 is caused by the sodium current. Voltage gated sodium channels open leading to the influx of sodium into the cardiac muscle cell. Phase 1 is the rapid transient repolarization phase which is caused by the inactivation of the voltage gated sodium channels and opening of the voltage gated potassium channels along with opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 2 which is the plateau is caused by opening of the slow calcium channels. Phase 4 is caused by closing of the slow calcium channels and opening of the potassium channels leading to efflux of potassium leading to the establishment of the resting membrane potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.8
      Seconds

  • Question 45 - Where in the course of the gastrointestinal tract does the first significant digestion...

    Incorrect

    • Where in the course of the gastrointestinal tract does the first significant digestion of fat begin in a normal human being?

      Your Answer: Jejunum

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The enzyme lipase which is responsible for digestion of fat is secreted by the exocrine pancreas in the 2nd part of the duodenum at the point where the pancreatic duct opens. It opens together with the common bile duct which contains bile that emulsify fat aiding in digestion. The oesophagus, stomach and mouth do not contain enzymes related to fat digestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      5.4
      Seconds

  • Question 46 - Regarding CSF: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding CSF:

      Your Answer: Disruption of arachnoid villi function results in a communicating hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      In normal adults CSF volume is around 125ml to 150ml. Turnover of the entire volume of cerebrospinal fluid is about 3 to 4 times a day. Composition of CSF is similar to that of plasma except that CSF is nearly protein-free compared with plasma and has different electrolyte levels. Blockage of the foramina causes an obstructive or non-communicating hydrocephalus. Communicating hydrocephalus or non-obstructive hydrocephalus is caused by impaired CSF reabsorption in the absence of any CSF flow obstruction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      7
      Seconds

  • Question 47 - Which are the main hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. ...

    Incorrect

    • Which are the main hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.

      Your Answer: Oxytocin and prolactin

      Correct Answer: Oxytocin and vasopressin

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary gland secretes oxytocin and vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone). These hormones are stored in Herring bodies before being secreted into the bloodstream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.3
      Seconds

  • Question 48 - A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old female presents with a funny bone sensation in her right elbow that is accompanied by numbness and tingling in the 4th and 5th digits. The symptoms are aggravated when the elbow is bent for a prolonged period. Which of the following explains the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Median nerve entrapment syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cubital Tunnel Syndrome is a condition that involves pressure or stretching of the ulnar nerve (also known as the “funny bone” nerve), which can cause numbness or tingling in the 4th and 5th digit, pain in the forearm, and/or weakness in the hand. Epicondylitis of the elbow is a condition associated with repetitive forearm and elbow activities. Both lateral epicondylitis (commonly known as tennis elbow) and medial epicondylitis (commonly known as golfer’s elbow) are characterized by elbow pain during or following elbow flexion and extension. Radial tunnel syndrome is a set of symptoms that include fatigue or a dull, aching pain at the top of the forearm with use. Although less common, symptoms can also occur at the back of the hand or wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      24.3
      Seconds

  • Question 49 - Which of the following is correctly paired? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correctly paired?

      Your Answer: I cells : IgF – i

      Correct Answer: F cells : pancreatic polypeptide

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic polypeptide is secreted by F-cells, which represent the smallest proportion of islet cells in the pancreas. These cells establish the embryological origin of the pancreas. Pancreatic polypeptide regulates endocrine and exocrine activities by the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      7.6
      Seconds

  • Question 50 - Closure of the tricuspid valve is marked by which of the following features...

    Correct

    • Closure of the tricuspid valve is marked by which of the following features of the jugular venous waveform?

      Your Answer: c wave

      Explanation:

      The jugular venous pressure (JVP) classically has three upward deflections and two downward deflections. The upward deflections are the a (atrial contraction), c (ventricular contraction and resulting bulging of tricuspid into the right atrium during isovolumetric systole) and v = venous filling. The downward deflections of the wave are the x (the atrium relaxes and the tricuspid valve moves downward) and the y descent (filling of ventricle after tricuspid opening).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      7.7
      Seconds

  • Question 51 - A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor...

    Incorrect

    • A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor for the development of asthma in children. The total number of patients recruited for this study is 200. 40 out of the 200 patients report at least one parent smoking in the house when they were younger. 200 more people without asthma are recruited and 20 out of them report that at least one parent smoked in the house when they were younger. What is the odds ratio of patients with asthma having been exposed to passive smoking during their childhood?

      Your Answer: 0.5

      Correct Answer: 2.25

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Research Skills
      54.7
      Seconds

  • Question 52 - What is the normal portal venous pressure? ...

    Correct

    • What is the normal portal venous pressure?

      Your Answer: 6 mm hg

      Explanation:

      Portal venous pressure is the blood pressure in the hepatic portal vein, and is normally between 5-10 mmHg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      2.8
      Seconds

  • Question 53 - The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is ...

    Correct

    • The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is

      Your Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      Representing approximately 75% of serum antibodies in humans, IgG is the most common type of antibody found in the circulation. IgG molecules are created and released by plasma B cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      5.2
      Seconds

  • Question 54 - The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds to: ...

    Correct

    • The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds to:

      Your Answer: High hydrogen and high carbon dioxide

      Explanation:

      The chemosensitive area in the medulla responds mainly to high pH levels and carbon dioxide levels. Baroreceptors in the carotid and aortic body respond mainly to oxygen and carbon dioxide partial pressure in blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      8.8
      Seconds

  • Question 55 - Colipase is secreted in an inactive form. Its activation in the intestinal lumen...

    Incorrect

    • Colipase is secreted in an inactive form. Its activation in the intestinal lumen is by

      Your Answer: Chymotrypsin

      Correct Answer: Trypsin

      Explanation:

      The enzyme trypsin exists in pancreatic juice in the inactive form trypsinogen, it is activated by the intestinal enterokinase in intestinal juice. Trypsin can then activate other protease enzymes and catalyse the reaction pro-colipase → colipase. Colipase is necessary, along with bile salts, to enable lipase function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      8.6
      Seconds

  • Question 56 - The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with: ...

    Incorrect

    • The outer and inner surfaces of the arachnoid mater is covered with:

      Your Answer: Columnar epithelial cells

      Correct Answer: Mesothelial cells

      Explanation:

      The arachnoid mater is one of the three meninges that covers the brain and spinal cord. It is interposed between the two other meninges, the more superficial and much thicker dura mater and the deeper pia mater, from which it is separated by the subarachnoid space. The arachnoid mater consists of a subdural mesothelial layer and a compact central layer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      4.7
      Seconds

  • Question 57 - Which of the following does not lower ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not lower ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: Occulocardiac reflex

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is a sympathetic neurotransmitter which increases the heart rate. During atrial fibrillation the atria is contracting at more than 200 beats/min. Acetylcholine is a parasympathetic neurotransmitter decreasing the heart rate. Digital also depresses the conduction at the AV conduction. Vagal discharge and occulocardiac reflux decrease the heart rate and convert the tachycardia into normal sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      25.9
      Seconds

  • Question 58 - Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following involving the scalp may produce alopecia (hair loss)?

      Your Answer: Discoid lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      Causes of hair loss include:

      • Dissecting cellulitis
      • Fungal infections (such as tinea capitis)
      • Folliculitis
      • Secondary syphilis
      • Demodex folliculorum
      • Lupus erythematosus (hair loss may be permanent due to scarring of the hair follicles).

      Psoriasis and seborrheic dermatitis commonly involve the scalp but do not produce hair loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      5.7
      Seconds

  • Question 59 - Endothelial cells are attached to adjacent cells by adherent junctions via: ...

    Incorrect

    • Endothelial cells are attached to adjacent cells by adherent junctions via:

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Cadherins

      Explanation:

      Cadherins are calcium dependant molecules that mediate cell to cell adhesions in epithelial and endothelial cells among others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.3
      Seconds

  • Question 60 - Which of the following isoforms of Nitric oxide synthase (NOS) is found in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following isoforms of Nitric oxide synthase (NOS) is found in endothelial cells?

      Your Answer: Nos 3

      Explanation:

      There are only 3 isoforms:NOS 1: found in nervous systemNOS 2: in macrophages and other immune cellsNOS 3: In endothelial cells

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      4.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (6/12) 50%
Medicine (40/60) 67%
Hepatobiliary (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (10/12) 83%
Connective Tissue (2/4) 50%
Neurology (4/5) 80%
Respiratory (1/2) 50%
Genetics (2/2) 100%
Haematology (3/3) 100%
Pharmacology (2/5) 40%
Gastrointestinal (3/6) 50%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Geriatrics (0/1) 0%
Research Skills (0/1) 0%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Passmed
Retry this test Dashboard