00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer: Nitrogen

      Correct Answer: Desflurane

      Explanation:

      Desflurane is a highly fluorinated methyl ethyl ether used for the maintenance of general anaesthesia. It has been identified as a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia. That, in the absence of succinylcholine, may produce a delayed onset of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements is true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding Adrenaline or Epinephrine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stimulates ACTH secretion

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
      It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70...

    Incorrect

    • A single intravenous dose of 100 mg phenytoin was administered to a 70 kg patient and plasma concentration monitored.

      The concentration in plasma over time is recorded as follows:

      Time (hours) 1 2 3 4 5
      Concentration (mcg/mL) 100 71 50 35.5 25

      From the data available, the drug is likely eliminated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First-order kinetics with a half-life of 2 hours

      Explanation:

      Elimination of phenytoin from the body follows first-order kinetics. This means that the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.

      The rate of elimination can be described by the equation:

      C = C0·e-kt

      Where:

      C = drug concentration
      C0 = drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated)
      k = Rate constant
      t = Time

      Enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations exceed the normal range and elimination of the drug becomes zero-order. At this point, the drug is metabolised at a fixed rate and metabolism is independent of plasma concentration.

      Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are other drugs that behave this way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits glycolysis in muscle

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

      Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
      Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
      Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
      It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following herbal drug side effects or herb-drug interactions is the most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: St. John's Wort : serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Patients who present for surgery may be on prescription medication or natural/herbal therapies. These have relevance for anaesthesia since they can cause drug interactions.

      Ephedra (Ma Huang) is a drug derived from the plant Ephedra sinica that is used as a CNS stimulant, weight reduction aid, and asthma therapy. It is a combination of alkaloids that includes ephedrine which stimulates noradrenaline release from pre-synaptic neurones by acting directly on alpha and beta adrenoreceptors. The use of sympathomimetic drugs together can cause cardiovascular instability.

      Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and raises the risk of bleeding by decreasing platelet activating factor (PAF), especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet drugs.

      The extract from St. John’s Wort is utilised as an antidepressant because it is a cytochrome P450 isoenzyme inhibitor as well as a serotonin uptake inhibitor. When drugs like fentanyl or tramadol are used during an anaesthetic, there is a risk of serotonin syndrome developing.

      The root of a pepper is used to make kava (Piper methysticum). It is a weak GABAA agonist which has the potential to augment the effects of propofol and benzodiazepines, which are volatile anaesthetics.

      Garlic is made from the allium sativum plant and is used to treat hypertension and hyperlipidaemia. It includes cysteine, which inhibits platelet aggregation irreversibly, amplifying the effects of aspirin and NSAIDs.

      Echinacea is a common herbal medicine that stimulates the immune system by modulating cytokine signalling. In individuals who require organ transplantation, it should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into...

    Incorrect

    • A weakly acidic drug with a pKa of 8.4 is injected intravenously into a patient.

      At a normal physiological pH, the percentage of this drug unionised in the plasma is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 90

      Explanation:

      Primary FRCA is concerned with two issues. The first is a working knowledge of the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation, and the second is a working knowledge of logarithms and antilogarithms.

      The pH at which the drug exists in 50 percent ionised and 50 percent unionised forms is known as the pKa.

      To calculate the proportion of ionised to unionised form of a drug, use the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation.

      pH = pKa + log ([A-]/[HA])

      or

      pH = pKa + log [(salt)/(acid)]
      pH = pKa + log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Hence, if the pKa − pH = 0, then 50% of drug is ionised and 50% is unionised.

      In this example:
      7.4 = 8.4 + log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      7.4 − 8.4 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])
      log −1 = log ([ionised]/[unionised])

      Simply put, the antilog is the inverse log calculation. In other words, if you know the logarithm of a number, you can use the antilog to find the value of the number. The antilogarithm’s definition is as follows:

      y = antilog x = 10x

      Antilog to the base 10 of 0 = 1, −1 = 0.1, −2 = 0.01, −3 = 0.001 and, −4 = 0.0001.

      [A-]/[HA] = 0.1

      Assuming that we can apply the approximation [A-] << [HA} then this means the acid is 0.1 x 100% = 10% ionised so the percentage of (non-ionized) acid will be 100% – 10% = 90%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon infiltrates the tissue layers with local anaesthetic (bupivacaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline in a patient weighing 50 kg as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery.

      What is the maximum volume of local anaesthetic that is permissible in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 mL

      Explanation:

      The maximum safe amount of bupivacaine is 2mg/kg. Addition of adrenaline slows down absorption of the local anaesthetic and allows a maximum dose of 2.5mg/kg to be used.

      The maximum safe dose of bupivacaine for this patient is 125 mg.

      A 0.125% solution will contain 0.125g/100mL or 125mg/100 mL.

      The maximum volume of local anaesthetic is approximately 80-100 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g of amitriptyline. On clinical examination:
      Glasgow coma score: 10
      Pulse rate: 140 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 80/50 mmHg.
      ECG showed a QRS duration of 233 Ms.

      Which of the following statement describes the most important initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give fluid boluses

      Explanation:

      The first line of treatment in case of hypotension is fluid resuscitation.

      Activated charcoal can be used within one hour of tricyclic antidepressant ingestion but an intact and secure airway must be checked before intervention. The risk of aspiration should be assessed.

      Vasopressors are indicated for the treatment of hypotension following (Tricyclic Antidepressant) TCA overdose when patients fail to respond to fluids and bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You've been summoned to the recovery room to examine a 28-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • You've been summoned to the recovery room to examine a 28-year-old man who has had an inguinal hernia repaired.

      His vital signs are normal, but you notice that he has developed abnormal upper-limb movements due to muscle contractions that cause repetitive twisting movements.

      What do you think is the most likely source for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prochlorperazine

      Explanation:

      Dystonia is characterised by repetitive twisting movements or abnormal postures. They are classified as either primary or secondary.

      Primary dystonia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
      Secondary dystonia can be caused by focal brain lesions, Parkinson’s disease, or certain medications.

      The following drugs cause the most common drug-induced dystonic reactions:
      Antipsychotics, antiemetics (especially prochlorperazine and metoclopramide), and antidepressants.

      Following the administration of the neuroleptic prochlorperazine, 16 percent of patients experience restlessness (akathisia) and 4% experience dystonia.

      Several published reports have linked the anaesthetics thiopentone, fentanyl, and propofol to opisthotonos and other abnormal neurologic sequelae. Dystonias following a general anaesthetic are uncommon. Tramadol has been linked to serotonin syndrome, while remifentanil has been linked to muscle rigidity.

      The following are some of the risk factors:

      Positive family history
      Male
      Children
      An episode of acute dystonia occurred previously.
      Dopamine receptor (D2) antagonists at high doses and recent cocaine use

      Dystonia is treated in a variety of ways, including:

      Benztropine (as a first-line therapy):

      1-2 mg intravenous injection for adults
      Child: 0.02 mg/kg to 1 mg maximum

      Benzodiazepines are a type of benzodiazepine (second line treatment).

      Midazolam:

      1-2 mg intravenously, or 5-10 mg IV/PO diazepam

      Antihistamines with anticholinergic activity (H1receptor antagonists):

      Promethazine 25-50 mg IV/IM, or diphenhydramine 50 mg IV/IM (1 mg/kg in children) are used when benztropine is not available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.

      Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
    Pulse rate:...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with:
      Pulse rate: 32 beats per minute
      Blood pressure: 82/35 mmHg
      12 lead ECG shows a sinus bradycardia of 35 beats per minute with no evidence of myocardial ischemia or infarction. There was no chest pain but the patient feels light-headed.

      Which of the following would be the best initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.

      If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs would cause the most clinical concern if accidentally administered intravenously to a 4-year-old boy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 20 mg codeine

      Explanation:

      To begin, one must determine the child’s approximate weight. There are a variety of formulas to choose from. It is acceptable to use the advanced paediatric life support formula:

      (age + 4) 2 = weight

      A 5-year-old child will weigh around 18 kilogrammes.

      The following are the appropriate doses of the drugs listed above:

      Gentamicin (once daily) – 5-7 mg/kg = 90-126 mg and subsequent dose modified according to plasma levels
      Ondansetron – 0.1 mg/kg, but a maximum of 4 mg as a single dose = 1.8 mg
      Codeine should be administered orally at a dose of 1 mg/kg rather than intravenously, as the latter can cause ‘dangerous’ hypotension due to histamine release.
      15 mg/kg paracetamol = 270 mg orally or intravenously (a loading dose of 20 mg/kg, or 360 mg, is sometimes recommended, which is not far short of the doses listed above).
      Cefuroxime – the initial intravenous dose is 20 mg/kg (360 mg) depending on the indication (again, similar to the dose given in the answer options above).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Has neurotoxic side effects

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and Valproate act by inhibiting the sodium channels when these are open. These drugs also prolong the inactivated stage of these channels (Sodium channels are refractory to stimulation till these reach the closed/ resting phase from inactivated phase)

      Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia

      It can have neurotoxic side effects. Major neurotoxic effects include dizziness, headache, ataxia, vertigo, and diplopia

      After single oral doses of carbamazepine, the absorption is fairly complete and the elimination half-life is about 35 hours (range 18 to 65 hours). During multiple dosing, the half-life is decreased to 10-20 hours, probably due to autoinduction of the oxidative metabolism of the drug.

      It is metabolized in liver into active metabolite, carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%)...

    Incorrect

    • The tissue layer in a patient is infiltrated with local anaesthetic (marcaine 0.125%) with 1 in 120,000 adrenaline as part of an enhanced recovery programme for primary hip replacement surgery. The total volume of solution is 120mL.

      What is the appropriate combination of constituents in the final solution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline

      Explanation:

      30mL 0.5% bupivacaine, 1mL 1 in 1,000 adrenaline and 89mL 0.9% N. Saline is the correct answer.
      Initial concentration of bupivacaine is 0.5% with a volume of 30mL

      The volume is doubled (60mL) by the addition of 0.9% N. saline (30mls) and the concentration of bupivacaine is halved to (0.25%).

      If the volume is doubled again (120mL) by the addition of further 0.9% N. saline (59mls) the final concentration of bupivacaine is halved again to 0.125%. Total N. saline = 89mls

      The 1 mL of 1 in 1000 adrenaline has also been diluted into the final volume of 120 mL making it a 1 in 120000 concentration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding soda lime?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It mostly contains sodium hydroxide

      Explanation:

      Soda-lime contains mostly calcium hydroxide (about 94%) and remaining sodium hydroxide.

      CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O + heat
      Here in this exothermic reaction, we can see that the production of calcium carbonate does not require heat.

      When soda lime is allowed to dry with subsequent use of desflurane, isoflurane, and enflurane, it can lead to the generation of carbon monoxide.

      Silica hardens the granules and can thus prevent disintegration.

      The size of soda-lime granules is 4-8 mesh because it allows sufficient surface area for chemical reaction to occur without critically increasing the resistance to airflow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise....

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise. On urine culture and sensitivity testing, E.coli was detected with resistance to ampicillin.
      What is the mechanism of resistance to ampicillin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta-lactamase production

      Explanation:

      Ampicillin belongs to the family of penicillin. Resistance to this group of drugs is due to ?-lactamase production which opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      Resistance to cephalosporins is due to changes in penicillin-binding proteins.

      Resistance to macrolides are due to post-transcriptional methylation of 23s bacterial ribosomal RNA

      Resistance to fluoroquinolones is due to mutations in DNA gyrase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man with nausea and vomiting is admitted to the hospital.

    For temporal...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with nausea and vomiting is admitted to the hospital.

      For temporal arteritis, he takes 40 mg prednisolone orally in divided doses. His prescription chart will need to be adjusted to reflect his inability to take oral medications.

      What is the equivalent dose of intravenous hydrocortisone to 40 mg oral prednisolone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 160 mg

      Explanation:

      Prednisolone 5 mg is the same as 20 mg hydrocortisone.

      Prednisolone 40 mg is the same as 8 x 20 mg or 160 mg of prednisolone.

      Mineralocorticoid effects and variations in action duration are not taken into account in these comparisons.

      5 mg of prednisolone is the same as Dexamethasone 750 mcg, Hydrocortisone 20 mg, Methylprednisolone 4 mg, and Cortisone acetate 25 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maintains carbon dioxide reactivity

      Explanation:

      Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow by direct cerebral stimulation and tends to elevate intracranial pressure (ICP)

      It increases the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption (CMRO2)

      It is not an NMDA agonist as it antagonizes NMDA receptors.

      Cerebral autoregulation is impaired with the use of nitrous oxide but when used with propofol, it is maintained.

      Carbon dioxide reactivity is not affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Prior to an urgent appendicectomy, a 49-year-old man requires a rapid sequence induction.

    His...

    Incorrect

    • Prior to an urgent appendicectomy, a 49-year-old man requires a rapid sequence induction.

      His BMI is equal to 50.

      Which of the following formulas is the most appropriate for calculating a suxamethonium dose in order to achieve optimal intubating conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1-1.5 × actual body weight (mg)

      Explanation:

      The usual method of calculating the dose of a drug to be given to patients of normal weight is to use total body weight (TBW). This is because the lean body weight (LBW) and ideal body weight (IBW) dosing scalars are similar in these patients.

      Because the LBW and fat mass do not increase in proportion in patients with morbid obesity, this is not the case. Drugs that are lipid soluble, such as propofol or thiopentone, can cause a relative overdose. Lean body mass is a better scalar in these situations.

      Suxamethonium has a small volume of distribution, so the dose is best calculated using the TBW to ensure optimal and deep intubating conditions. The higher dose was justified because these patients’ plasma cholinesterase activity was elevated.

      Other scalars include:

      The dose of highly lipid soluble drugs like benzodiazepines, thiopentone, and propofol can be calculated using lean body weight (LBW). The formula LBW = IBW + 20% can be used on occasion.

      Fentanyl, rocuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, morphine, paracetamol, bupivacaine, and lidocaine are all administered with LBW.

      Formulas can be used to calculate the ideal body weight (IBW). There are a number of drawbacks, including the fact that patients of the same height receive the same dose, and the formulae do not account for changes in body composition associated with obesity. Because IBW is typically lower than LBW, administering a drug based on IBW may result in underdosing. The body mass index (BMI) isn’t used to calculate drug dosage directly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organism is highly resistant to penicillin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Penicillinase is a narrow spectrum ?-lactamase that opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.

      N. meningitidis is sensitive to penicillin and less than 20% resistance is found in pseudomonas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section...

    Incorrect

    • Rocuronium is substituted for succinylcholine during induction of anaesthesia for a caesarean section delivery.

      Which of the following feature of rocuronium ensures the neonate shows no clinical signs of muscle relaxation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Highly ionised

      Explanation:

      Drugs cross the placenta by Simple, Ion channel and Facilitated diffusion; Exocytosis and Endocytosis, Osmosis, and Active transport (primary and secondary)

      The following factors influence rate of diffusion across the placenta:

      Protein binding
      Degree of ionisation
      Placental blood flow
      Maternal and foetal blood pH
      Materno-foetal concentration gradient.
      Thickness of placental membrane
      Molecular weight of drug <600 Daltons cross by diffusion
      Lipid solubility (lipid soluble molecules readily diffuse across the placenta)

      Rocuronium has a F/M ratios of 0.16, a 30% plasma protein binding, low lipid solubility, a low volume of distribution (0.25L/kg), and a high molecular weight (530Da).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels

      Explanation:

      Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic ? and?1 (but not ?2 ) agonist.

      The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.

      Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct?1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.

      Vasoconstriction (?1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.

      At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular ? and ? receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier—no CNS effects.

      Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.

      It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2–1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors significantly increases the risk of hepatotoxicity and fulminant hepatic failure in halothane administration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple exposure

      Explanation:

      Hepatotoxicity due to halothane administration is relatively common and is a major factor in its rapidly declining use. Type 1 hepatotoxicity has an incidence of 20% to 30%. A comprehensive report in 1969 demonstrated an incidence of type 2 hepatotoxicity (hepatitis) of 1 case per 6000 to 20000 cases, with fatal cases occurring approximately once in 35000 patients following a single exposure to the anaesthetic. This incidence of fatal cases increases to approximately 1 in 1000 patients following multiple exposures. Following this study was a large-scale review in the United Kingdom, which showed similar results. To put this into perspective, there is only a single case of hepatotoxicity confirmed after the administration of desflurane and 2 cases per 1 million after enflurane. By the 1970s, halothane was the most common cause of drug-induced liver failure.

      Halothane-induced hepatotoxicity has a female to male ratio of two to one. Younger patients are less likely to be affected; 80% of the cases are typically in patients 40 years or older. Other risk factors include obesity and underlying liver dysfunction. Medications such as phenobarbital, alcohol, and isoniazid may play a role in affecting CYP2E1 metabolism, increasing one’s risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic...

    Incorrect

    • Activation of which of the following GABA A receptor subunit leads to anxiolytic effects of Benzodiazepines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of lowering blood pressure by...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism of lowering blood pressure by nitroglycerine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      Nitroglycerine is rapidly denitrated enzymatically in the smooth muscle cell to release the free radical nitric oxide (NO).

      Released NO activated cytosolic guanylyl cyclase which increases cGMP (cyclin guanosine monophosphate) which causes dephosphorylation of myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) through a cGMP-dependent protein kinase.

      Reduced availability of phosphorylated (active) MLCK interferes with activation of myosin and in turn, it fails to interact with actin to cause contraction. Consequently, relaxation occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child is scheduled for general anaesthesia day surgery. You decide to perform an inhalational induction because he is otherwise medically fit.

      Which of the following is the most important factor in deciding which volatile anaesthetic agents to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The low blood:gas solubility of sevoflurane

      Explanation:

      The ideal volatile agent for a day case surgery inhalational induction should have the following characteristics:

      It has a pleasant scent that is not overpowering.
      Breathing difficulties, coughing, or laryngeal spasm are not caused by this substance.
      The action has a quick onset and a quick reversal.

      The blood:gas partition coefficient is a physicochemical property of a volatile agent that determines the onset and offset of anaesthesia. The greater an agent’s insolubility in plasma, the faster its alveolar concentration rises.

      The blood gas partition coefficients of the most commonly used volatile anaesthetic agents are as follows:
      Halothane 2.3
      Desflurane 0.45
      Sevoflurane 0.6
      Nitrous oxide 0.47
      Isoflurane 1.4

      Although halothane has a pleasant odour, it has a slower offset than sevoflurane.

      Sevoflurane also has a pleasant odour and is less likely than desflurane to cause airway irritation and breath-holding.

      The choice of agent for inhalational induction is unaffected by potency/lipid solubility measures such as the oil: gas partition coefficient and MAC.

      In this case, an agent’s saturated vapour pressure is irrelevant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation...

    Incorrect

    • A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation and curettage. Her medical history revealed that she was maintained on levodopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurses administered ondansetron 4 mg and dexamethasone 8 mg prior to transfer from the operating room to the recovery room. However, an additional antiemetic agent is warranted.

      Which of the following agents should be prescribed to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine 50 mg IV

      Explanation:

      The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.

      Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.

      Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.

      Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).

      Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.

      Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.

      Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.

      Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is...

    Incorrect

    • The pharmacologically inactive precursor of barbiturates is Barbituric acid. Because the molecule is heterocyclic, small structural changes can alter its pharmacological activity (structure function relationship).

      Which of the following modifications to the molecule has the greatest impact on the effectiveness of the barbiturate derivative?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulphur at C2

      Explanation:

      Barbituric acid is the barbiturates’ pharmacologically inactive precursor. A pyrimidine heterocyclic nucleus is formed by the condensation of urea and malonic acid. Its pharmacological activity can be influenced by minor structural changes (structure function relationship).

      The duration of action and potency as a sedative are influenced by the length of the side chains at C5. Barbiturates with three carbon atoms in their chain last longer than those with two. Anticonvulsant properties are enhanced by branched chains.

      The addition of a methyl group at N1 causes a faster onset/offset of action, but it also causes excitatory phenomena (twitching/lower convulsive threshold).

      The addition of oxygen and sulphur to C2 increases the molecule’s lipid solubility and thus its potency. Thiopentone (thiobarbiturate) has sulphur groups at C2, making it 20-200 times more lipid soluble than oxybarbiturates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane? ...

    Incorrect

    • Desflurane has which of the following characteristics when compared with halothane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less biodegradation

      Explanation:

      Approximately 20% of halothane and 0.02% desflurane undergo hepatic biotransformation. Desflurane, halothane, and isoflurane are metabolised in the liver by cytochrome p450 to trifluoroacetate. Through an immunological mechanism involving trifluoroacetyl hapten formation, trifluoroacetate is thought to be responsible for hepatotoxicity.

      Potency of inhaled anaesthetic agents is measured using the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). The MAC of halothane is 0.74% while that of desflurane is 6.3%. The potency can also be compared using the oil: gas partition coefficient (224 and 18.7 for halothane and desflurane respectively).

      Onset of action of volatile agents depends on the blood:gas partition coefficient. A lower blood:gas partition coefficient and insolubility in blood means faster onset and offset of action. The blood gas coefficient for halothane is 2.4 while that of desflurane is 0.42. Desflurane is less soluble than halothane in blood. Halothane has a pungent smell that can irritate the airway which limits its use for a gaseous induction especially in paediatric anaesthesia. desflurane is not pungent.

      Desfluranes boiling point is only slightly above normal room temperature (22.8°C) making it extremely volatile while the boiling point of halothane is approximately 50.2°C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Passmed