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  • Question 1 - Calcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic...

    Correct

    • Calcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic chemical structure of these two classes differs, as does their relative selectivity for cardiac versus vascular L-type calcium channels. The phenylalkylamine class and the benzothiazepine class are two subgroups of non-dihydropyridines.

      A phenylalkylamine calcium-channel blocker is, for example, which of the following?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blockers, also known as calcium antagonists, stop calcium from entering cells through the L-type calcium channel. This causes vascular smooth muscle in vessel walls to relax, resulting in a decrease in peripheral vascular resistance.
      They can be used for a variety of things, including:
      Hypertension
      Angina
      Atrial fibrillation
      Migraine

      Calcium-channel blockers can be divided into two categories: dihydropyridines and non-dihydropyridines. The basic chemical structure of these two classes differs, as does their relative selectivity for cardiac versus vascular L-type calcium channels.

      Dihydropyridines have a high vascular selectivity and lower systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure. As a result, they’re frequently used to treat hypertension. Modified release formulations are also used to treat angina, but their powerful systemic vasodilator and pressure-lowering effects can cause reflex cardiac stimulation, resulting in increased inotropy and tachycardia, which can counteract the beneficial effects of reduced afterload on myocardial oxygen demand.

      The suffix -dpine distinguishes dihydropyridines from other pyridines. Examples of dihydropyridines that are commonly prescribed include:
      Amlodipine
      Felodipine
      Nifedipine
      Nimodipine

      The phenylalkylamine class and the benzothiazepine class are two subgroups of non-dihydropyridines.

      Phenylalkylamines are less effective as systemic vasodilators because they are relatively selective for the myocardium. This group of drugs lowers myocardial oxygen demand and reverses coronary vasospasm, making them useful in the treatment of angina. They are also occasionally used to treat arrhythmias. A phenylalkylamine calcium-channel blocker like verapamil is an example.

      In terms of selectivity for vascular calcium channels, benzothiazepines fall somewhere between dihydropyridines and phenylalkylamines. They can lower arterial pressure without producing the same level of reflex cardiac stimulation as dihydropyridines because they have both cardiac depressant and vasodilator effects. Diltiazem is the only benzothiazepine currently in clinical use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      542.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Due to severe palpitations, a 28-year-old woman is transported to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • Due to severe palpitations, a 28-year-old woman is transported to the Emergency Department by ambulance. Her heart rate is 180 beats per minute, and the rhythm strip shows supraventricular tachycardia. You intend to give adenosine.

      Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for adenosine use?

      Your Answer: History of heart transplant

      Explanation:

      The purine nucleoside adenosine is used to diagnose and treat paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Adenosine works by stimulating A1-adenosine receptors and opening potassium channels that are sensitive to acetylcholine. This causes the atrioventricular (AV) node’s cell membrane to become hyperpolarized, slowing conduction by inhibiting calcium channels.

      Patients who have had a heart transplant are extremely sensitive to the effects of adenosine and should start with a lower dose of 3 mg, then 6 mg, and finally 12 mg. Dipyridamole potentiates the effects of adenosine, so it should be used with caution in patients who are taking it.

      The use of adenosine is contraindicated in the following situations:
      Asthma
      COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
      Decompensated heart failure 
      Long QT syndrome
      AV block in the second or third degree
      Sinusitis is a condition in which the sinuses become (unless pacemaker fitted)
      Hypotension that is severe

      It has a half-life of less than 10 seconds and acts quickly within that time frame. The actions last between 10 and 20 seconds.
      Because of the short half-life of the drug, any side effects are usually only temporary. These are some of them:
      a feeling of impending doom
      Flushing of the face
      Dyspnoea
      Uncomfortable chest
      Tastes metallic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You examine an elderly man who is experiencing chest pain. He doesn't recall...

    Incorrect

    • You examine an elderly man who is experiencing chest pain. He doesn't recall all of his medications, but he does know that he takes a diuretic.

      The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is inhibited by which of the following diuretics?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Correct Answer: Acetazolamide

      Explanation:

      Acetazolamide is a non-competitive, reversible inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase found in the cytosol of cells and on the brush border of the proximal convoluted tubule. Bicarbonate and hydrogen ions are converted to carbonic acid by carbonic anhydrase, which then converts carbonic acid to carbon dioxide and water. As a result, acetazolamide reduces the availability of hydrogen ions, causing sodium and bicarbonate ions to accumulate in the renal tubule, resulting in diuresis.
      The mechanism of action of the various types of diuretics is summarised below:

      1) Loop diuretics, e.g. furosemide, bumetanide
      Act on the Na.K.2Cl co-transporters in the ascending loop of Henlé to inhibit sodium, chloride and potassium reabsorption.

      2) Thiazide diuretics, e.g. Bendroflumethiazide, hydrochlorothiazide
      Act on the Na.Cl co-transporter in the distal convoluted tubule to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption.

      3) Osmotic diuretics, e.g. mannitol
      Increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect.

      4) Aldosterone antagonists, e.g. spironolactone
      Acts in the distal convoluted tubule as a competitive aldosterone antagonist resulting in inhibition of sodium reabsorption and increasing potassium reabsorption.

      5) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, e.g. acetazolamide
      Inhibit the enzyme carbonic anhydrase preventing the conversion of bicarbonate and hydrogen ions into carbonic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute...

    Correct

    • The patient is a 61-year-old man with severe central chest pain. An acute myocardial infarction is revealed by his ECG. Clopidogrel is one of the medications he takes as part of his treatment.

      Clopidogrel's direct mechanism of action is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of platelet ADP receptors

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel, a thienopyridine derivative, prevents platelet aggregation and cross-linking by the protein fibrin by inhibiting the ADP receptor on platelet cell membranes (inhibits binding of ADP to its platelet receptor (P2Y12 ADP-receptor).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The patients listed below have been diagnosed with a variety of ailments.

    In which...

    Incorrect

    • The patients listed below have been diagnosed with a variety of ailments.

      In which of the following situations would aspirin be an effective treatment option?

      Your Answer: A 50-year-old with an acute exacerbation of gout

      Correct Answer: A 36-year-old with an acute migraine (dose of 900-1000 mg)

      Explanation:

      A study published in the Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews in 2010 found that a single 1000-mg dose of aspirin is effective in treating acute migraine. It was discovered that 24 percent of aspirin users were pain-free after two hours, compared to 11 percent of placebo users. Because the BNF recommends a maximum dose of 900 mg for analgesia and most non-proprietary aspirin comes in a dose of 300 mg, a dose of 900 mg is frequently prescribed in the UK.

      Because aspirin is not recommended for children under the age of 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, it would be inappropriate to give it to the 12-year-old with the viral URTI.

      For uncomplicated dental pain, aspirin is an acceptable option, but not for patients who are taking warfarin. The combination of aspirin’s antiplatelet action and warfarin’s anticoagulation properties puts the patient at high risk of bleeding. Furthermore, aspirin can deplete the therapeutic levels of warfarin by displacing it from plasma proteins. It would be better to use another NSAID or analgesic.

      In gout, aspirin should be avoided because it reduces urate clearance in the urine and interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Naproxen, diclofenac, and indomethacin are better options.

      Although aspirin is useful for inflammatory pains, the dose of aspirin required for an adequate analgesic effect in severe pain is associated with significant side effects. Naproxen would be a better first-line treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - As part of his angina treatment, a 68-year-old man is prescribed a beta...

    Correct

    • As part of his angina treatment, a 68-year-old man is prescribed a beta blocker. He starts having nightmares and has trouble sleeping soon after starting the beta-blocker.

      Which of the beta blockers listed below is the most likely to be in his system?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      The beta-adrenoceptors in the heart, peripheral vasculature, bronchi, pancreas, and liver are blocked by beta-adrenoceptor blocking drugs (beta blockers).

      Beta blockers come in a wide range of strengths, with the choice largely determined by the disease being treated and the patient’s unique circumstances. The intrinsic sympathomimetic activity, lipid solubility, duration of action, and cardioselectivity of beta blockers all differ.

      Some beta blockers are lipid (lipophilic) soluble, while others are water soluble (hydrophilic). Drugs that are more lipid-soluble are absorbed faster from the gut, undergo more first-pass metabolism, and are eliminated faster. They’re also more likely to get into the brain and cause central effects like insomnia and nightmares. Propranolol, pindolol, labetalol, and metoprolol are examples of lipid-soluble beta blockers. Beta blockers that are water-soluble are less likely to enter the brain and are more resistant to first-pass metabolism. They are excreted by the kidneys, and in renal impairment, dosage reduction is frequently required. Atenolol, nadolol, celiprolol, and sotalol are examples of water-soluble beta blockers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      226.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You have been called to review a patient and his management in the...

    Incorrect

    • You have been called to review a patient and his management in the resuscitation room. A very sick patient has been started on mannitol in his treatment protocol.

      Out of the following, what is NOT an FDA-recognized indication for the use of mannitol?

      Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis

      Correct Answer: Congestive cardiac failure

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure.
      Mannitol has four FDA approved uses clinically:
      1. Reduction of intracranial pressure and brain mass
      2. reduce intraocular pressure if this is not achievable by other means
      3. promote diuresis for acute renal failure to prevent or treat the oliguric phase before irreversible damage
      4. promote diuresis to promote the excretion of toxic substances, materials, and metabolites

      It can be used in rhabdomyolysis-induced renal failure, especially in crush injuries. Mannitol reduces osmotic swelling and oedema in the injured muscle cells and helps restore skeletal muscle function.

      It is a low molecular weight compound and can be freely filtered at the glomerulus and not reabsorbed. This way increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate and tubular fluid, increasing urinary volume by an osmotic effect. It also does not cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB).

      Mannitol causes an expansion of the extracellular fluid space, which may worsen congestive cardiac failure. Contraindications to the use of mannitol include:

      1. Anuria due to renal disease
      2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      3. Severe cardiac failure
      4. Severe dehydration
      5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion
      6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      173.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Following the administration of a medication for a heart condition, a 69-year-old man...

    Correct

    • Following the administration of a medication for a heart condition, a 69-year-old man develops hypothyroidism.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to that of thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. It can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, though hypothyroidism is far more common, with 5-10% of patients suffering from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      66.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are attending to a patient that has presented with a severe headache...

    Correct

    • You are attending to a patient that has presented with a severe headache in the Emergency Department. The patient has signs of cerebral oedema and raised intracranial pressure.

      You discuss the case with the on-call neurology registrar and decide to prescribe Mannitol. The nurse assisting you asks you to reconsider this management plan as she suspects the patient has a contraindication to Mannitol.

      Out of the following, what is a contraindication to mannitol?

      Your Answer: Severe cardiac failure

      Explanation:

      Mannitol is the most widely used osmotic diuretic that is most commonly used to reduce cerebral oedema and intracranial pressure.
      It is recommended to use mannitol for the reduction of CSF pressure/cerebral oedema in a dose of 0.25-2 g/kg as an intravenous infusion over 30-60 minutes. This can be repeated 1-2 times after 4-8 hours if needed.

      Mannitol has several contraindications and some of them are listed below:
      1. Anuria due to renal disease
      2. Acute intracranial bleeding (except during craniotomy)
      3. Severe cardiac failure
      4. Severe dehydration
      5. Severe pulmonary oedema or congestion
      6. Known hypersensitivity to mannitol

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - One of your patients is undergoing resuscitation and is in septic shock. The...

    Correct

    • One of your patients is undergoing resuscitation and is in septic shock. The intensive care outreach team arrives to assess them and determines that a dobutamine infusion should be started.

      Which of the following receptors does dobutamine primarily affect?

      Your Answer: Beta-1 receptors

      Explanation:

      Dobutamine is a synthetic isoprenaline derivative that is used to provide inotropic support to patients with low cardiac output caused by septic shock, myocardial infarction, or other cardiac conditions.

      Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart to produce its primary effect. As a result, it has inotropic properties that increase cardiac contractility and output. It also has a small amount of alpha1- and beta-2-adrenergic activity.

      A summary of the mechanism and effects of different inotropic agents is shown below:
      Inotrope
      Mechanism
      Effects
      Adrenaline (epinephrine)
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;
      Alpha-agonist at high doses
      Increased cardiac output;
      Vasoconstriction at higher doses
      Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)
      Mainly alpha-agonist;
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses
      Vasoconstriction;
      Some increased cardiac output
      Dopamine
      Dopamine agonist at low doses;
      Beta-1 and -2 agonist at increasing doses;
      Alpha-agonist at high doses
      Increased cardiac output;
      Vasoconstriction at higher doses
      Dobutamine
      Mainly beta-1 agonist
      Increased cardiac output

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      54.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (7/10) 70%
Pharmacology (7/10) 70%
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