00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - Impulse conduction through the AV node is slow and depends on the action...

    Incorrect

    • Impulse conduction through the AV node is slow and depends on the action potential produced by which of the following.

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Correct Answer: Calcium flux

      Explanation:

      The action potentials in the SA and AV nodes are largely due to Ca2+, with no contribution by Na+ influx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      2003.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In ventricular fibrillation (VF), the first defibrillation attempt (with a biphasic defibrillator) should...

    Correct

    • In ventricular fibrillation (VF), the first defibrillation attempt (with a biphasic defibrillator) should be made at:

      Your Answer: 200 J

      Explanation:

      Defibrillation is a common treatment for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and ventricular fibrillation. If the patient is in Ventricular tachycardia (VT) or ventricular fibrillation (VF) on the monitor, immediately apply the pads and shock the patient with 120-200 Joules on a biphasic defibrillator or 360 Joules on a monophasic defibrillator.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - VIP, GIP and somatostatin play an inhibitory role in gastric acid secretion by...

    Correct

    • VIP, GIP and somatostatin play an inhibitory role in gastric acid secretion by inactivating?

      Your Answer: G cells

      Explanation:

      Gastrin is secreted from the G cells. VIP, GIP and somatostatin all inhibit acid production by inhibiting the G cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - With regard to X linked disorders which of the following are true ...

    Correct

    • With regard to X linked disorders which of the following are true

      Your Answer: X linked recessive disorders usually present in males and only very rarely present in homozygous females

      Explanation:

      All are true for autosomal recessive disorders. Dominance rules for sex-linked gene loci are determined by their behaviour in the female: because the male has only one allele (except in the case of certain types of Y chromosome aneuploidy), that allele is always expressed regardless of whether it is dominant or recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following interventions has the least role in management of acne rosacea?

      Your Answer: Camouflage creams

      Correct Answer: Low-dose topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Mild cases are often not treated at all, or are simply covered up with normal cosmetics and avoiding sun exposure. Therapy for the treatment of rosacea is not curative, and is best measured in terms of reduction in the amount of facial redness and inflammatory lesions. The two primary modalities of rosacea treatment are topical and oral antibiotic agents (including metronidazole and tetracyclines). Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer: It causes hypotension

      Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma. The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.Drug interactions:Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site...

    Correct

    • Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site for ischaemic damage and myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer: No blood flow occurs during systole

      Explanation:

      The subendocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure due to contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the subendocardium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Coronary arteries fill up during ...

    Correct

    • Coronary arteries fill up during

      Your Answer: Diastole

      Explanation:

      During contraction of the ventricular myocardium (systole), the subendocardial coronary vessels (the vessels that enter the myocardium) are compressed due to the high ventricular pressures. This compression results in momentary retrograde blood flow (i.e., blood flows backward toward the aorta) which further inhibits perfusion of myocardium during systole. However, the epicardial coronary vessels (the vessels that run along the outer surface of the heart) remain open. Because of this, blood flow in the sub endocardium stops during ventricular contraction. As a result, most myocardial perfusion occurs during heart relaxation (diastole) when the subendocardial coronary vessels are open and under lower pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is responsible for converting inactive cortisone to active cortisol...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is responsible for converting inactive cortisone to active cortisol in the adrenal gland?

      Your Answer: 12βHSD type 2

      Correct Answer: 11βHSD type 1

      Explanation:

      11β-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, also known as HSD-11β or 11β-HSD, is a group of enzymes which catalyse the interconversion of active cortisol and corticosterone with inert cortisone and 11-dehydrocorticosterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In the gastric mucosa, which of the following cells is known to secrete...

    Correct

    • In the gastric mucosa, which of the following cells is known to secrete gastric lipase?

      Your Answer: Chief cell

      Explanation:

      Chief cells produce pepsinogen and gastric lipase. Parietal cells produce stomach acid and intrinsic factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following with regard to autosomal dominant disorders are true: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following with regard to autosomal dominant disorders are true:

      Your Answer: The offspring of a heterozygous individual has a 50% chance of inheriting the chromosome carrying the disease allele

      Explanation:

      50% of the children will be effected from parents who are heterozygous for an autosomal dominant disorder. An allele can be dominant or recessive. Individuals, meanwhile, can be homozygous or heterozygous: individuals who are homozygous for a certain gene carry two copies of the same allele. individuals who are heterozygous for a certain gene carry two different alleles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Bone marrow barrier is important to: ...

    Correct

    • Bone marrow barrier is important to:

      Your Answer: Allow mature red blood cells to pass into circulation

      Explanation:

      The blood vessels of the bone marrow constitute a barrier, inhibiting immature blood cells from leaving the marrow. Only mature blood cells contain the membrane proteins, such as aquaporin and glycophorin, that are required to attach to and pass the blood vessel endothelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Choose the most correct answer, what reduces affinity for oxygen in haemoglobin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the most correct answer, what reduces affinity for oxygen in haemoglobin?

      Your Answer: Binding with 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate

      Correct Answer: All the options are true

      Explanation:

      The strength with which oxygen binds to haemoglobin is affected by several factors. These factors shift or reshape the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve. A rightward shift indicates that the haemoglobin under study has a decreased affinity for oxygen. The causes of shift to right can be remembered using the mnemonic, CADET, face Right! for CO2 and CO, Acid (H+), 2,3-DPG, Exercise and Temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28 year old male arrives at the clinic complaining of fever, arthralgia...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old male arrives at the clinic complaining of fever, arthralgia and urethritis. On examination, the ankle is swollen and there is a pustular rash on the dorsal foot. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Disseminated gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      DGI presents as two syndromes: 1) a bacteremic form that includes a triad of tenosynovitis, dermatitis, and polyarthralgias without purulent arthritis and 2) a septic arthritis form characterized as a purulent arthritis without associated skin lesions. Many patients will have overlapping features of both syndromes. Time from infection to clinical manifestations may range from 1 day to 3 months. There is no travel history and the rash of Lyme disease is not purulent. Reactive arthritis presents with conjunctivitis, urethritis and arthritis usually with a red hot tender and swollen joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most common route of hepatitis B transmission worldwide?

      Your Answer: Sexual transmission

      Correct Answer: Perinatal transmission

      Explanation:

      The virus is transmitted by exposure to infectious blood or body fluids. Infection around the time of birth or from contact with other people’s blood during childhood is the most frequent method by which hepatitis B is acquired in areas where the disease is common. In areas where the disease is rare, intravenous drug use and sexual intercourse are the most frequent routes of infection. Perinatal transmission is the most common and without intervention, a mother who is positive for HBsAg has a 20% risk of passing the infection to her offspring at the time of birth. This risk is as high as 90% if the mother is also positive for HBeAg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 85 year old male with a history of Alzheimer's dementia was brought...

    Correct

    • A 85 year old male with a history of Alzheimer's dementia was brought into Casualty by family members, who stated that he had episodes of aggression. Which of the following drugs is most suitable as the pharmacological management for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Regarding the pharmacological management, Risperidone is the most suitable drug from the given answers as it is recommended for the treatment of aggression associated with moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease. Quetiapine and Benzodiazepine are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old accountant with long-standing gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is reviewed in clinic. He has recently switched from ranitidine to omeprazole. What is the main benefit of omeprazole compared to ranitidine?

      Your Answer: Irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors can reduce gastric acid secretion by up to 99%. Acid production resumes following the normal renewal of gastric parietal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The structure of haemoglobin A in adults includes ...

    Correct

    • The structure of haemoglobin A in adults includes

      Your Answer: Haem, globin polypeptide chains α and β

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin A (HbA), also known as adult haemoglobin or α2β2, is the most common human haemoglobin tetramer, comprising over 97% of the total red blood cell haemoglobin. It consists of two alpha chains and two beta chains.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is true with AV nodal delay? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true with AV nodal delay?

      Your Answer: The delay is about 0.01s

      Correct Answer: Shortened by sympathetic stimulation

      Explanation:

      AV nodal delay Is about 0.1s before the action potential spreads to the ventricles. It is shortened by stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system and lengthened by stimulation of the parasympathetic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most important way in which heat is lost from the body?

      Your Answer: Vaporisation of sweat

      Correct Answer: Radiation and conduction

      Explanation:

      The body maintains a constant core temperature by balancing heat loss and heat gain. The mechanisms of heat loss are: radiation, evaporation, convection and conduction. Out of these mechanisms, the most important under normal conditions are radiation, through which body heat is given off to the surrounding atmosphere; and conduction, in which the body releases heat into the objects it comes into contact with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Embryologically the anterior pituitary is formed from? ...

    Correct

    • Embryologically the anterior pituitary is formed from?

      Your Answer: Rathkes pouch

      Explanation:

      The ectoderm, located in the roof of the pharynx, forms Rathke’s pouch, which comes into contact with the ectoderm of the developing brain. The pouch eventually separates from the pharynx, becoming the anterior pituitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The process by which DNA fragments are separated by gel and transferred onto...

    Incorrect

    • The process by which DNA fragments are separated by gel and transferred onto a membrane sheet is called:

      Your Answer: Northern blotting

      Correct Answer: Southern blotting

      Explanation:

      A Southern blot is a method used in molecular biology for detection of a specific DNA sequence in DNA samples. Southern blotting combines transfer of electrophoresis-separated DNA fragments to a filter membrane and subsequent fragment detection by probe hybridization. The other forms of blotting involve the use of RNA and proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Medullary chemoreceptors ...

    Incorrect

    • Medullary chemoreceptors

      Your Answer: Monitor PCO2 concentration of arterial blood

      Correct Answer: Monitor H+ concentration of the CSF

      Explanation:

      Central chemoreceptors of the central nervous system, located on the ventrolateral medullary surface in the vicinity of the exit of the 9th and 10th cranial nerves, are sensitive to the pH of their environment. These act to detect the changes in pH of nearby cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) that are indicative of altered oxygen or carbon dioxide concentrations available to brain tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Respiratory
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the blood supply to the liver? ...

    Correct

    • What is the blood supply to the liver?

      Your Answer: Hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein

      Explanation:

      The liver receives a dual blood supply from the hepatic portal vein and hepatic arteries. The hepatic portal vein delivers approximately 75% of the liver’s blood supply, and carries venous blood drained from the spleen, gastrointestinal tract, and its associated organs. The hepatic arteries supply arterial blood to the liver, accounting for the remaining quarter of its blood flow. Oxygen is provided from both sources; approximately half of the liver’s oxygen demand is met by the hepatic portal vein, and half is met by the hepatic arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Hepatobiliary
      • Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which...

    Correct

    • A patient with a VIPoma (VIP secreting tumour) is likely to exhibit which of the following?

      Your Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Vasoactive inhibitory peptide (VIP) is found in the nerves innervating the GIT. It markedly stimulates the secretion of intestinal electrolytes and also with them water. This results in secretary diarrhoea. Along with that it also relaxes intestinal smooth muscle including the sphincters, it also results in dilation of the peripheral blood vessels and along with this its also inhibits gastric acid secretions. A VIPoma will exaggerate all this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct about the clinical state of methemoglobinemia?

      Your Answer: May arise due to a hereditary deficiency of NADH.

      Explanation:

      Methaemoglobin is a form of haemoglobin that contains ferric [Fe3+] iron and has a decreased ability to bind oxygen. Spontaneously formed methaemoglobin is normally reduced by protective enzyme systems, e.g., NADH methaemoglobin reductase, hence a deficiency of NADH may result in increased levels of methaemoglobin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - When looking at the JVP what does the c wave signify: ...

    Incorrect

    • When looking at the JVP what does the c wave signify:

      Your Answer: Ventricular diastole

      Correct Answer: Isovolumetric ventricular contraction

      Explanation:

      The C wave signifies a rise in the atrial pressure during isovolumetric contraction due to the tricuspid valve bulging into the atria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following provides the sympathetic nervous supply to the stomach? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following provides the sympathetic nervous supply to the stomach?

      Your Answer: Coeliac plexus

      Explanation:

      Parasympathetic innervation to the stomach is from the vagus nerve and the sympathetic innervation is from the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?...

    Correct

    • The net effect of active Vitamin D on calcium and phosphate homeostasis is?

      Your Answer: Increase in Ca, increase in phosphate

      Explanation:

      Bone and its metabolism are regulated by several hormones, amongst which is vitamin D. It is heavily involved in the metabolism and homeostasis of calcium and phosphate through several processes. Vitamin D works in the intestine, kidney, bone and parathyroid glands to maintain levels of calcium and phosphate, promoting its absorption, bone resorption, and proper functioning of the parathyroid to maintain adequate serum calcium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Majority of gastrinomas are found in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • Majority of gastrinomas are found in the:

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      A gastrinoma is a tumour in the pancreas or duodenum that secretes excess of gastrin leading to ulceration in the duodenum, stomach and the small intestine. It is usually found in the duodenum, although it may arise in the stomach or pancreas. Those occurring in the pancreas have a greater potential for malignancy. Most gastrinomas are found in the gastrinoma triangle; this is bound by the junction of cystic and common bile ducts, junction of the second and third parts of the duodenum, and the junction of the neck and body of the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Sequence of events in formation of speech are: ...

    Correct

    • Sequence of events in formation of speech are:

      Your Answer: Wernicke’s area---arcuate fasciculus---broca’s area---insula---motor cortex---speech

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s area is located in the categorical hemisphere or left hemisphere in about 95% of right handed individuals and 60% of left handed individuals. It is involved in the comprehension or understanding of written and spoken language. In contrast Broca’s area is involved in production of language. Firstly, the language is accessed in the Wernicke’s area and these words are sent via the arcuate fasciculus to the Broca’s area, where instructions for articulation is generated. This is then sent from Broca’s are to the motor cortex for the articulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - Where is thyroglobulin produced? ...

    Correct

    • Where is thyroglobulin produced?

      Your Answer: Thyrocytes

      Explanation:

      Thyroglobulin, or Tg, is a protein that functions as the precursor to thyroid hormones. It is synthesized by thyrocytes and then secreted into the colloid. It also functions as a negative-feedback regulator of thyroid hormone biosynthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a cause of onycholysis?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Onycholysis is the separation of the distal edge of the nail from the vascular nailbed causing whiteness of the free edge. Causes include:- Idiopathic- Trauma, excessive manicuring- Infection: especially fungal- Skin disease: psoriasis, dermatitis- Impaired peripheral circulation e.g. Raynaud’s- Systemic disease: hyper/hypothyroidism, reactive arthritis, porphyria cutanea tarda- Sometimes a reaction to detergents (e.g. washing dishes with bare hands, using detergent-based shampoos or soaps).- Patients with hepatocellular dysfunction may develop hair-thinning or hair loss and nail changes such as clubbing, leukonychia (whitening), or onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      • Medicine
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female has been started on azathioprine after she was found to be intolerant of methotrexate. Routine blood monitoring shows the following values:Hb 7.9 g/dlPlt 97*109/l WBC 2.7*109/l Azathioprine toxicity will most likely to occur in the presence of which of the following?

      Your Answer: Cimetidine

      Correct Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine therapy can cause acute myelosuppression. Toxicity is in part caused by the incorporation of azathioprine-derived 6-thioguanine nucleotides (6-TGN) into deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). The enzyme thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) plays an important role in azathioprine catabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Habituation… ...

    Correct

    • Habituation…

      Your Answer: Is a simple form of learning in which a neutral stimulus is repeated many times

      Explanation:

      It is a simple form of learning where an organism decreases or ceases it’s response to a certain stimuli after repeated presentation. The organisms learns to stop responding to a stimulus which is no longer biologically relevant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the following acute phase reactants increases the most dramatically in the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following acute phase reactants increases the most dramatically in the first hour following injury?

      Your Answer: C-reactive protein

      Explanation:

      Measurement of acute-phase proteins, especially C-reactive protein, is a useful marker of inflammation. It correlates with the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), however not always directly. This is due to the ESR being largely dependent on elevation of fibrinogen, an acute phase reactant with a half-life of approximately one week. This protein will therefore remain higher for longer despite removal of the inflammatory stimuli. In contrast, C-reactive protein (with a half-life of 6-8 hours) rises rapidly and can quickly return to within the normal range if treatment is employed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is...

    Incorrect

    • The enzyme responsible for Telomeres to maintain their length after cell division is called:

      Your Answer: None of the above telomeres shorten with all cell divisions

      Correct Answer: Telomerase reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Telomeres are non-coding DNA consisting of repetitive nucleotide sequences plus proteins that are found at the end of the linear chromosomes. They maintain the integrity of the chromosomes and prevent their shortening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Regarding integrins, which option is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding integrins, which option is false?

      Your Answer: Can bind to ligands and stimulate secondary signals resulting in endocytosis, proliferation and apoptosis

      Correct Answer: Play no role in cell signalling.

      Explanation:

      Integrins are transmembrane receptors that facilitate cell-extracellular matrix (ECM) adhesion. Upon ligand binding, integrins activate signal transduction pathways that mediate cellular signals such as regulation of the cell cycle, organization of the intracellular cytoskeleton, and movement of new receptors to the cell membrane. Integrins are obligate heterodimers, meaning that they have two subunits: α (alpha) and β (beta). Integrins play an important role in cell signalling by modulating the cell signalling pathways of transmembrane protein kinases such as receptor tyrosine kinases (RTK).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - The interventricular septum is supplied anteriorly by the? ...

    Incorrect

    • The interventricular septum is supplied anteriorly by the?

      Your Answer: Right main coronary artery

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The anterior interventricular artery or left anterior descending artery supplies the anterior 2/3rds of the interventricular septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - The cerebellum consist of which three lobes? ...

    Incorrect

    • The cerebellum consist of which three lobes?

      Your Answer: Medial, lateral and superior

      Correct Answer: Anterior, posterior and flocculonodular

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum consists of 3 lobes; Anterior, Posterior and Flocculonodular lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Depolarization of the T tubule membrane activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum via which receptors?...

    Correct

    • Depolarization of the T tubule membrane activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum via which receptors?

      Your Answer: Dihydropyridine receptors

      Explanation:

      Action potentials are transmitted to the fibrils of a fiber through the T tubule system. It triggers the release of Ca 2+ form the terminal cisterns. Depolarization of the T tubules activates the sarcoplasmic reticulum through the dihydropyridine receptors.

      Dihydropyridine receptors (DHPRs), are voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, and ryanodine receptors (RyRs), which are intracellular Ca2+ release channels, are expressed in diverse cell types, including skeletal and cardiac muscle.

      Ryanodine receptors (RyRs) are located in the sarcoplasmic/endoplasmic reticulum membrane and are responsible for the release of Ca2+ from intracellular stores during excitation-contraction coupling in both cardiac and skeletal muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      35.3
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Angina pectoris develops when blood through the coronary artery becomes: ...

    Correct

    • Angina pectoris develops when blood through the coronary artery becomes:

      Your Answer: Restricted, limiting blood blow

      Explanation:

      Angina pectoris develops when stenosis ( >70%) of the artery occurs as a result of formation of an atherosclerotic plaque. This leads to a decrease in the O2 carried to the thickened heart muscle by the blood, leading to the characteristic chest pain associated with angina pectoris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male presents with lower backache and pain in his hips. Blood tests are normal except for elevated serum alkaline phosphatase which is 1200 IU/l (45-105). Radiological examination shows combined osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. What is the most common site of occurrence of this disease?

      Your Answer: Lumbar spine

      Correct Answer: Pelvis

      Explanation:

      The patient most likely suffers from Paget’s disease of the bone as his radiological examination shows both osteolytic and osteosclerotic lesions. Any bone or bones can be affected, but Paget’s disease occurs most frequently in the pelvis > lumbar spine > femur > thoracic spine > sacrum > skull > tibia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which of the following derivatives of proopiomelanocortin is an opioid peptide? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following derivatives of proopiomelanocortin is an opioid peptide?

      Your Answer: ß-endorphin

      Explanation:

      ß-endorphin is an endogenous opioid neuropeptide which is mainly synthesized and stored in the anterior pituitary gland, derived from the precursor proopiomelanocortin (POMC). Some studies have shown that immune system cells are also capable of synthesizing ß-endorphin. β-endorphin is thought to exert a tonic inhibitory influence upon GNRH secretion and to be an important regulator of reproductive function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic....

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male with long-standing Alzheimer's disease is being reviewed in your clinic. Which among the following is true regarding memantine, a drug which has been approved for the management of dementia?

      Your Answer: It is an NMDA-receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.

      Drug interactions:

      • When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) there is increased risk of psychosis.
      • Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
      • Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen) enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
      • Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.
      • Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Which of the following acts on the pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice that...

    Correct

    • Which of the following acts on the pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice that is rich in enzymes?

      Your Answer: CCK

      Explanation:

      CCK (Cholecystokinin): CCK is released by the duodenum in response to the presence of fats and proteins in the small intestine. It stimulates the pancreas to secrete enzyme-rich pancreatic juice, which aids in the digestion of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. It also stimulates the gallbladder to contract and release bile.

      Secretin: Secretin is released by the duodenum in response to acidic chyme entering from the stomach. It primarily stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice to neutralize the acid, but it does not primarily stimulate enzyme secretion.

      Gastrin: Gastrin is produced by G-cells in the stomach. It stimulates gastric acid secretion by the stomach, not pancreatic enzyme secretion.

      Chymotrypsin: Chymotrypsin is an enzyme produced by the pancreas. It does not act to stimulate the pancreas; rather, it is a component of the pancreatic juice that helps digest proteins.

      Elastase: Elastase is also an enzyme produced by the pancreas. Like chymotrypsin, it is involved in the digestion of proteins and does not stimulate the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - The infoldings or spaces between the bases of the villi are known as...

    Incorrect

    • The infoldings or spaces between the bases of the villi are known as

      Your Answer: Crypts of Brunner

      Correct Answer: Crypts of Lieberkühn

      Explanation:

      An intestinal gland (also crypt of Lieberkühn and intestinal crypt) is a gland found in the intestinal epithelium lining of the small intestine and large intestine (colon) between the villi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which one of the following is a risk factor for torsade de pointes?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a risk factor for torsade de pointes?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      The following is a list of factors associated with an increased tendency toward torsades de pointes:- Hypokalaemia (low blood potassium)- Hypomagnesemia (low blood magnesium)- Hypocalcaemia (low blood calcium)- Bradycardia (slow heartbeat)- Heart failure- Left ventricular hypertrophy- Hypothermia- Subarachnoid haemorrhage- Hypothyroidism

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - Amongst the following cells, which is responsible for the secretion of defensins? ...

    Correct

    • Amongst the following cells, which is responsible for the secretion of defensins?

      Your Answer: Neutrophils

      Explanation:

      Eosinophils are phagocytic and they are directed against helminths. Basophils are involved in allergic reactions and contain histamine and vasoactive granules in their cytoplasm. Mast cells are similar to basophils. Monocytes differentiate into macrophages in the tissue, secret interleukins and are phagocytic. Neutrophils are phagocytic but are also responsible for secreting defensins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her...

    Correct

    • A 56 year old obese female presents due to moderate pain in her finger joints which occurs mostly at the end of the day which gets better with rest. There is also some associated swelling. On examination, there is enlargement of her distal interphalangeal joints and tenderness to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a disabling joint disease characterized by a noninflammatory degeneration of the joint complex (articular cartilage, subchondral bone, and synovium) that occurs with old age or from overuse. It mainly affects the weight-bearing and high-use joints, such as the hip, knee, hands, and vertebrae. Despite the widespread view that OA is a condition caused exclusively by degenerative “wear and tear” of the joints, newer research indicates a significant heterogeneity of causation, including pre-existing peculiarities of joint anatomy, genetics, local inflammation, mechanical forces, and biochemical processes that are affected by proinflammatory mediators and proteases. Major risk factors include advanced age, obesity, previous injuries, and asymmetrically stressed joints. In early-stage osteoarthritis, patients may complain of reduced range of motion, joint-stiffness, and pain that is aggravated with heavy use. As the disease advances, nagging pain may also occur during the night or at rest. Diagnosis is predominantly based on clinical and radiological findings. Classic radiographic features of OA do not necessarily correlate with clinical symptoms and appearance. RA involves proximal interphalangeal joints not distal. Gout occurs as a result of overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid and frequently involves first toe. Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory and mood issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      5.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (5/10) 50%
Medicine (30/50) 60%
Gastrointestinal (5/8) 63%
Genetics (2/4) 50%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Endocrinology (4/6) 67%
Haematology (3/4) 75%
Connective Tissue (2/4) 50%
Geriatrics (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Immunology (2/2) 100%
Cell Biology (0/1) 0%
Passmed