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Question 1
Correct
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A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia. Cytogenetic testing is carried out.
Which one of the following is mostly associated with a poor prognosis?Your Answer: Deletions of chromosome 5
Explanation:Deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7 is a poor prognostic feature for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).
AML is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.
The disease has poor prognosis if:
1. Age of the patient >60 years
2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 43-year-old man is about to be started on chemotherapy for a high-grade lymphoma. He is given intravenous rasburicase to help lower the risk of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS).
What is the mechanism of action of this drug?Your Answer: Converts uric acid to allantoin
Explanation:Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin.
TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.
Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.
TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Regarding haemochromatosis, which of the following is true?
Your Answer: Haemochromatosis may by treated with iron chelation treatment with drugs such as desferrioxamine
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis may be treated with therapeutic phlebotomy
Explanation:Haemochromatosis is an abnormally high rate of the production of haemoglobin. It is an autosomal recessive disease copied on chromosome 6. It is associated with hepatic disorders, cardiac diseases and skin pigmentation. It is treated by regular venesection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 4
Correct
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A woman with breast cancer develops urinary frequency. Which part of the brain has metastasis potentially spread to?
Your Answer: Diencephalon
Explanation:Diencephalon consists of four structures; thalamus, subthalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus. The hypothalamus has a crucial role in controlling urinary frequency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old man with longstanding Waldenström's macroglobulinemia presents to the rheumatology clinic with joint pain and generalised weakness. Which of the following would be most indicative of type I cryoglobulinemia?
Your Answer: Low C4 levels
Correct Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon
Explanation:Cryoglobulins are proteins that precipitate from an individual’s serum or plasma at temperatures lower than 37°C. They can be a mixture of immunoglobulin (Ig) and complement components or immunoglobulins alone. These cryoglobulins deposit in medium and large-sized blood vessels throughout the body, causing endothelial injury and end-organ damage known as cryoglobulinemia.
Cryoglobulinemia can be divided into three main types, depending on which kind of antibody your body produces.
Type I cryoglobulinemia is frequently associated with an underlying health condition, such as cancer of your blood or immune system.
Type II cryoglobulinemia and type III cryoglobulinemia are often seen in people with long-term (chronic) inflammatory conditions, such as autoimmune diseases. Type II cryoglobulinemia is very common in people with hepatitis C virus (HCV). Another name for types II and III cryoglobulinemia is mixed cryoglobulinemia.
People with cryoglobulinemia may or may not experience symptoms. When symptoms are present, they most commonly include a particular rash, usually over the lower legs as well as fatigue and joint pain.
Other cryoglobulinemia symptoms may include:
- Change in the color of your hands and/or feet with cold temperatures, called Raynaud’s phenomenon.
- Weight loss.
- High blood pressure
- Swelling (edema) of ankles and legs.
- Skin ulcers and gangrene.
- Enlarged liver (hepatomegaly) or enlarged spleen (splenomegaly).
Raynaud’s syndrome causes spasms in small blood vessels in your fingers and toes. This limits blood flow and leads to symptoms like skin color changes, cold skin and a pins and needles sensation. Common triggers of Raynaud’s attacks include cold weather and stress. Many people have mild symptoms that they can manage through lifestyle changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old man is investigated for cervical lymphadenopathy. Lymph node biopsy reveals nodular sclerosing Hodgkin lymphoma.
Which one of the following factors is associated with a poor prognosis?Your Answer: Night sweats
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 7
Correct
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Which of the following is mostly associated with thymomas?
Your Answer: Red cell aplasia
Explanation:Red cell aplasia is commonly associated with thymomas.
Thymoma is the most common tumour of the anterior mediastinum and is usually detected between the sixth and seventh decades of life. It is associated with myasthenia gravis (30-40% of patients), red cell aplasia, and dermatomyositis. Compression of airway and cardiac tamponade are the common causes of death in thymoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 66-year-old baker presents to the oncology clinic with six-month history of weight loss and anorexia. Tumour marker profile shows an elevated level of bombesin.
Out of the following, which is the most likely cancer to account for this result?Your Answer: Small cell lung carcinoma
Explanation:Bombesin is a tumour marker elevated in small cell lung carcinomas, as well as in gastric carcinomas and retinoblastomas.
Tumour markers can be divided into:
1. Monoclonal antibodies
CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
CA 15-3: Breast cancer2. Tumour specific antigens
Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer3. Enzymes
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Neuron specific enolase (NSE)4. Hormones
Calcitonin
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with lung cancer develops deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She is reviewed in the hospital clinic and started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).
Which of the following should be the most appropriate treatment plan?Your Answer: Continue on LMWH for 3 months
Correct Answer: Continue on LMWH for 6 months
Explanation:Patients with active cancer are at a continuous risk of having venous thromboembolism (VTE), such as DVT. Therefore, a six-month course of an anticoagulant such as LMWH is recommended. LMWH is the drug of choice since its side effects can be reversed and it can be stopped easily in case of a cancer-related bleed, for example, massive haemoptysis in a patient with lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 10
Correct
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Which one of the following is the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma?
Your Answer: Nodular sclerosing
Explanation:The most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is nodular sclerosing.
HL is a malignant proliferation of lymphocytes characterised by the presence of distinctive giant cells known as Reed-Sternberg cells. It has a bimodal age distribution being most common in the third and seventh decades of life.
According to the histological classification, there are four types of HL:
1. Nodular sclerosing: most common (around 70%), more common in women, associated with lacunar cells, good prognosis
2. Mixed cellularity: Around 20%, associated with a large number of Reed-Sternberg cells, good prognosis
3. Lymphocyte-predominant: Around 5%, Reed-Sternberg cells with nuclei surrounded by a clear space found, best prognosis
4. Lymphocyte-depleted: rare, worst prognosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old boy with a history of bloody diarrhoea and fever, presents with a skin rash and low urine output. Blood tests and urinalysis reveal increased levels of urea and creatinine and haematuria. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: IgA Nephropathy
Correct Answer: Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome
Explanation:Signs and symptoms of haemolytic uremic syndrome can include bloody diarrhoea, low urine output, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain and general fatigue. Increased values of urea and creatinine are also typical.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a good prognostic factor in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?
Your Answer: CD38 expression positive
Correct Answer: Female sex
Explanation:Good prognosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is associated with deletion of the long arm of chromosome 13 (del 13q). This is the most common abnormality, seen in around 50% of all CLL patients. Poor prognosis of the disease is related to deletion of part of the short arm of chromosome 17 (del 17p). This is seen in around 5-10% of the patients suffering from CLL.
Poor prognostic factors of CLL include:
1. Male sex
2. Age >70 years
3. Lymphocyte count >50
4. Prolymphocytes comprising more than 10% of blood lymphocytes
5. Lymphocyte doubling time <12 months
6. Raised LDH
7. CD38 expression positive -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 13
Correct
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Out of the following, which is not associated with polycythaemia vera?
Your Answer: Raised ESR
Explanation:Polycythaemia vera (PV) is associated with a low ESR.
PV, also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance. PV is associated with a low ESR.
Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.
In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5-15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 14
Correct
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What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia vera?
Your Answer: Myelofibrosis + acute myeloid leukaemia
Explanation:5-15% of the cases of polycythaemia vera progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).
Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.
Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.
In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5-15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 24-year-old smoker with testicular cancer presents with exertional dyspnoea, wheezing, and persistent non-productive cough. He completed a course of chemotherapy comprising of cisplatin, bleomycin, and etoposide three months ago. On examination, there are fine bilateral basal crackles.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bleomycin toxicity
Explanation:The cytotoxic drug bleomycin can cause bleomycin-induced pneumonitis (BIP). It usually occurs during chemotherapy but can also occur up to six months post-therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 46-year-old man presents with a swollen, red, and painful left calf. He does not have a history of any recent surgery or a long-haul flight. He is generally fit and well and takes no regular medication other than propranolol for migraine prophylaxis. There is also no history of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in his family.
The patient is referred to the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) clinic where he is diagnosed with a proximal DVT in his left calf. Following the diagnosis, he is started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) whilst awaiting review by the warfarin clinic.
Other than commencing warfarin, what further action, if any, is required?Your Answer: Investigate for underlying malignancy + check antiphospholipid antibodies
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is referred to the haematology department with raised haemoglobin and platelet levels. A diagnosis of polycythaemia vera is suspected.
Which other abnormality of the blood would be most consistent with this diagnosis?Your Answer: Raised ferritin level
Correct Answer: Neutrophilia
Explanation:Neutrophilia is also commonly associated with polycythaemia vera.
Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.
Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.
In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5-15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after developing hemarthrosis in his right knee whilst playing in the garden.
Following blood results are obtained:
Plts: 220 x 10^9/L
PT: 11 secs
APTT: 76 secs
Factor VIIIc activity: Normal
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemophilia B
Explanation:A grossly elevated APTT may be caused by heparin therapy, haemophilia, or antiphospholipid syndrome. A normal factor VIIIc activity, however, points towards the diagnosis of haemophilia B, which is the deficiency of factor IX in the blood.
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is due to the deficiency of clotting factor VIII and is more common than haemophilia B, accounting for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.
Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started on chemotherapy. Two days following his first treatment session, he presents to the A&E with nausea, vomiting, and myalgia. On examination, he appears clinically dehydrated. A diagnosis of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is suspected.
Which of the following would be consistent with the diagnosis of TLS?Your Answer: Low corrected calcium
Explanation:Out of the aforementioned markers, low corrected calcium is the only biochemistry result consistent with the diagnosis. All of the other markers are elevated in TLS.
TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. As phosphate precipitates calcium, the serum concentration of calcium becomes low. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.
Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups
should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Out of the following, which malignant tumour has the highest predilection for dissemination to the bones?
Your Answer: Lung
Correct Answer: Prostate
Explanation:Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.
Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
1. Prostate (32%)
2. Breast (22%)
3. Kidneys (16%)
4. Lungs
5. ThyroidMost common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
1. Spine
2. Pelvis
3. Ribs
4. Skull
5. Long bones -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 21
Correct
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Out of the following, which tumour cells are found in patients with Hodgkin disease?
Your Answer: Reed-Sternberg cells
Explanation:The diagnosis of Hodgkin disease requires the identification of Reed-Sternberg cells in a characteristic cellular background. The normal cell of origin for the Reed-Sternberg cells remains unclear, with the predominance of evidence indicating a B or T lymphocyte.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old female, on warfarin for mitral valve replacement and atrial fibrillation (AF), is due for extensive abdominal surgery.
What is the most appropriate step in regards to her anticoagulation therapy?Your Answer: Stop warfarin, bridge with unfractionated heparin only
Correct Answer: Stop warfarin five days pre-operatively, bridge with LMWH and give vitamin K if INR is still above 3.0 on the evening of operation
Explanation:Patients with a VTE within the previous three months, patients with AF and previous stroke or TIA or multiple other risk factors, and patients with a mitral valve replacement should be considered for bridging therapy.
The most appropriate bridging therapy in this case would be low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), with the last dose given not less than 24 hours prior to the procedure. Warfarin should be discontinued 5 days prior to the procedure. If the INR is still above 3 on the day prior to the procedure, vitamin K should be administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 33-year-old male presents with a rash and low grade fever (37.6°C). Twenty-one days ago, he underwent allogeneic bone marrow transplant for high-risk acute myeloid leukaemia. The rash was initially maculopapular affecting his palms and soles but 24 hours later, general erythroderma is noted involving the trunk and limbs. Other than that, he remains asymptomatic. His total bilirubin was previously normal but is now noted to be 40 μmol/L (1-22).
How would you manage the patient at this stage?Your Answer: High-dose methylprednisolone
Explanation:This is a classical picture of graft versus host disease (GVHD) following bone marrow transplant. Acute GVHD occurs in the first 100 days post transplant with chronic GVHD occurring 100-300 days after transplant. GVHD is graded according to the Seattle system, and each organ involved is scored (skin, liver, and gut).
The standard initial treatment in the acute setting is high-dose methylprednisolone started immediately. If there is no response, a more intensive immunosuppressive agent such as alemtuzumab or antilymphocyte globulin is needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 72-year-old man, following a fall at home, presents to his GP with acute localised chest pain, associated chronic postural lower back pain and chronic fatigue. On examination, he appears mildly anaemic and dehydrated, and has bruises over his arms and legs despite denying previous trauma. Furthermore, he has marked tenderness over his left lower rib cage, compatible with injured ribs, and tenderness over his lower lumbar spine. The rest of his clinical examination is normal.
In order to establish a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, based on the patient's symptomatology, which of the following combination of criteria is required?Your Answer: >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy and radiographic survey demonstrating lytic lesions
Explanation:Diagnosis of multiple myeloma (MM) is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.
Major criteria:
1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per dayMinor criteria:
1. 10-30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
4. Immunosuppression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents with anaemia and weight loss. Upon endoscopy, a gastric tumour is revealed, later established as an adenocarcinoma. The patient refuses any treatment and claims that his condition is not influencing the quality of his life. Clinical examination has nothing particularly interesting to show and the patient seems to be conscious of his decision, regardless of the likely curative nature of surgery. What is the single most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Respect his wishes and book a follow-up appointment for four weeks
Explanation:The patient seems to be conscious about his decision, which should be respected. According to Mental Capacity Act 2005, a person who makes an unwise decision should not be treated as unable to make a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child was found to have orchidomegaly and splenomegaly. Blood tests show a WBC = 1.7 X 104/L, Hb = 7.1 g/dl and platelets = 44 X 104g/dl. His parents mention that he suffers from fatigue while at presentation he looks pale and has a fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic lymphoblastic leukaemia
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is an aggressive type of blood and bone marrow cancer which can appear in childhood. Signs of childhood ALL include: Fever, Easy bruising, Petechiae, Bone or joint pain, Painless lumps in multiple areas of the body, Weakness, fatigue or paleness, and Loss of appetite. Blood tests may show elevated white blood cells, decreased values of red blood cells and low platelet count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man having small cell lung cancer is admitted onto the ward for chemotherapy. He has a history of severe nausea and vomiting secondary to chemotherapy, in the past.
The consultant asks you to prescribe a neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor blocker. Which agent, out of the following, will you choose?Your Answer: Domperidone
Correct Answer: Aprepitant
Explanation:Aprepitant is an anti-emetic which blocks the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor and acts as a substance P antagonist. It is licensed for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) and for prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting.
Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 35-year-old man who has haemophilia B with associated arthropathy presents with a large swollen right knee, after playing football with his son. He is unable to bear weight on the affected knee joint.
What should be the most appropriate first step of treatment?Your Answer: Intravenous factor IX concentrate
Explanation:Haemophilia B (Christmas disease), is the deficiency of clotting factor IX and is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The factor IX level dictates the disease severity and established arthropathy is usually seen in those with severe disease.
The aforementioned patient’s history and presentation is consistent with the development of hemarthrosis. Joint aspiration is not recommended. The treatment, therefore, should be intravenous replacement of the deficient clotting factor with plasma-derived factor IX concentrate.
The other listed options are ruled out because:
1. Joint aspiration is not preferred over the administration of clotting factor as the first step of management.
2. DDAVP (desmopressin) can increase factor VIII levels transiently in those with mild haemophilia A and is useful prior to minor surgical procedures in such patients.
3. Cryoprecipitate is rich in fibrinogen, factor VIII, and von Willebrand factor and is used in the treatment of haemophilia A. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of cisplatin?
Your Answer: Stabilises DNA topoisomerase II complex
Correct Answer: Causes cross-linking in DNA
Explanation:Cisplatin is a cytotoxic agent that acts by causing cross-linking in DNA. Its adverse effects include ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, hypomagnesaemia, etc.
The causative cytotoxic agents acting through the other aforementioned MOAs are as follows:
1. Doxorubicin: Stabilizes DNA topoisomerase II complex and inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis.
2. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide): Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis.
3. Mercaptopurine (6-MP): Purine analogue that is activated by HGPRTase, decreasing purine synthesis.
4. Vincristine, vinblastine: Inhibits formation of microtubules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy.
Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?Your Answer: t(8;14)
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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