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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding vecuronium?

      Your Answer: Has a similar structure to rocuronium

      Explanation:

      Vecuronium is used as a part of general anaesthesia to provide skeletal muscle relaxation during surgery or mechanical ventilation. It is a monoquaternary aminosteroid (not quaternary) non- depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug.

      It has a structure similar to both rocuronium and pancuronium. The only difference is the substitution of specific groups on the steroid structure.

      Vecuronium is not associated with the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve endings. However, Pancuronium has norepinephrine releasing the property.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A post-operative patient was given paracetamol and pethidine for post-operative analgesia. A few...

    Correct

    • A post-operative patient was given paracetamol and pethidine for post-operative analgesia. A few hours later, the patient developed fever of 38°C, hypertension, and agitation.

      According to the patient's medical history, he is maintained on Levodopa and Selegiline for Parkinson's disease.

      Which of the following is the most probable cause of his manifestation?

      Your Answer: Pethidine

      Explanation:

      Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor. Inhibition of monoamine oxidase leads to increased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system.

      Pethidine, also known as meperidine, is a strong agonist at the mu and kappa receptors. It inhibits pain neurotransmission and blocks muscarinic-specific actions.

      Administering opioid analgesic is relatively contraindicated to individuals taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors. This is because of the high incidence of serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by fever, agitation, tremor, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. Onset of symptoms is within hours, and the treatment is mainly through sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.

      The clinical findings are more consistent with Serotonin syndrome rather than exacerbation of Parkinson’s. Parkinson’s Disease (PD) exacerbations are defined as patient-reported or caregiver-reported episodes of subacute worsening of PD motor function in 1 or more domains (bradykinesia, tremor, rigidity, or PD-related postural instability/gait disturbance) that caused a decline in functional status, developed over a period of < 2 months, did not fluctuate with medication timing, and are not caused by intentional adjustments of PD medications by the treating neurologist. Malignant hyperthermia usually occurs within minutes of administration of a volatile anaesthetic, such as halothane, or succinylcholine. There is massive release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, leading to fever, acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, trismus, clonus, and hypertension. In sepsis, it more common for patients to present with hypotension rather than hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his...

    Correct

    • A 33-year old man was referred to you because of difficulty moving his limbs.

      History revealed that he was placed under anaesthesia for a major surgery 12 hours prior to the referral. Other symptoms were noted such as anxiousness, agitation, and fever of 38°C. Upon physical examination, he was tachycardic at 119 beats per minute. Moreover, his medical history showed that he was on Fluoxetine for clinical depression.

      The nurses reported that, because of his frequent complaints of axillary pain, he was given tramadol with paracetamol.

      Which of the following is responsible for his clinical features?

      Your Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Tramadol is weak agonist at the mu receptor. It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, and inhibits pain neurotransmission. It is given for moderate pain, chronic pain syndromes, and neuropathic pain.

      Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). It inhibits the neuronal reuptake of serotonin by inhibiting the serotonin transporter (SERT). It is the drug of choice for major depressive disorder, and is given for other psychiatric disorders such as anxiety, obsessive-compulsive, post-traumatic stress, and phobias.

      When tramadol is given with SSRIs, serotonin syndrome may occur. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by fever, agitation, tremors, clonus, hyperreflexia and diaphoresis. The onset of symptoms may occur within a few hours, and the first-line treatment is sedation, paralysis, intubation and ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes why phenytoin's hepatic extraction ratio is low?

      Your Answer: It has a clearance that is insensitive to changes in liver blood flow

      Explanation:

      The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a low hepatic extraction ratio:

      Changes in liver blood flow have no effect on drug clearance.
      When given orally, drug clearance is extremely sensitive to changes in protein binding, intrinsic metabolism, and excretion, and there is no first-pass metabolism.

      Warfarin and phenytoin are two drugs with low hepatic extraction ratios.

      The following are the pharmacokinetic properties of drugs with a high hepatic extraction ratio:

      When taken orally, undergo extensive first-pass metabolism; drug clearance is dependent on liver blood flow, and drug clearance is less sensitive to changes in protein binding and intrinsic metabolism.

      Morphine, lidocaine, propranolol, and etomidate are examples of drugs with high hepatic extraction ratios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II

      Explanation:

      Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.

      Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.

      Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.

      Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A bolus of alfentanil has a faster onset of action than an equal...

    Correct

    • A bolus of alfentanil has a faster onset of action than an equal dose of fentanyl.

      Which of the following statements most accurately describes the difference?

      Your Answer: The pKa of alfentanil is less than that of fentanyl

      Explanation:

      Unionised molecules are more likely than ionised molecules to cross membranes (such as the blood-brain barrier).

      Because alfentanil and fentanyl are weak bases, the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation says that the ratio of ionised to unionised molecules is determined by the parent compound’s pKa in relation to physiological pH.

      Alfentanil has a pKa of 6.5, while fentanyl has a pKa of 8.4.
      At a pH of 7.4, 89 percent of alfentanil is unionised, whereas 9% of fentanyl is.

      As a result, alfentanil has a faster onset than fentanyl.

      Fentanyl is 83% plasma protein bound
      Alfentanil is 90% plasma protein bound.

      Alfentanil’s pharmacokinetics are affected by its higher plasma protein binding. Because alfentanil has a low hepatic extraction ratio (0.4), clearance is determined by the degree of protein binding rather than the time it takes to take effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statement regarding Adrenaline (Epinephrine) is not true?

      Your Answer: Inhibits glycolysis in muscle

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline acts on ?1, ?2,?1, and ?2 receptors and also on dopamine receptors (D1, D2) and have sympathomimetic effects.

      Natural catecholamines are Adrenaline, Noradrenaline, and Dopamine

      Adrenaline is a sympathomimetic amine with both alpha and beta-adrenergic stimulating properties.
      Adrenaline is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock
      Adrenaline is also used in patients with cardiac arrest. The preferred route is i.v. followed by the intra-osseous and endotracheal route.

      Adrenaline is released by the adrenal glands, acts on ? 1 and 2, ? 1 and 2 receptors, and is responsible for fight or flight response.

      It acts on ? 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels-causing vasodilation.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to inhibit insulin secretion by the pancreas. It also stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle, stimulates glycolysis in muscle.

      It acts on ? adrenergic receptors to stimulate glucagon secretion in the pancreas
      It also stimulates Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and stimulates lipolysis by adipose tissue

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal...

    Correct

    • A 39-year old man came to the Out-Patient department for symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Medical history revealed he is on anti-epileptic medication Phenytoin. His plasma phenytoin levels are maintained between 10-12 mcg/mL (Therapeutic range: 10-20 mcg/mL). He is given a H2 antagonist receptor agent (Cimetidine) for his GERD symptoms.

      Upon follow-up, his plasma phenytoin levels increased to 38 mcg/mL.

      Regarding metabolism and elimination, which of the following best explains the pharmacokinetics of phenytoin at higher plasma levels?

      Your Answer: Plasma concentration plotted against time is linear

      Explanation:

      Drug elimination is the termination of drug action, and may involve metabolism into inactive state and excretion out of the body. Duration of drug action is determined by the dose administered and the rate of elimination following the last dose.

      There are two types of elimination: first-order and zero-order elimination.

      In first-order elimination, the rate of elimination is proportionate to the concentration; the concentration decreases exponentially over time. It observes the characteristic half-life elimination, where the concentration decreases by 50% for every half-life.

      In zero-order elimination, the rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration; the concentration decreases linearly over time. A constant amount of the drug being excreted over time, and it occurs when drugs have saturated their elimination mechanisms.

      Since phenytoin is observed in elevated levels, the elimination mechanisms for it has been saturated and, thus, will have to undergo zero-order elimination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following anaesthetic is the least powerful trigger of malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer: Desflurane

      Explanation:

      Desflurane is a highly fluorinated methyl ethyl ether used for the maintenance of general anaesthesia. It has been identified as a weak triggering anaesthetic of malignant hyperthermia. That, in the absence of succinylcholine, may produce a delayed onset of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements is the most correct about ketamine? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is the most correct about ketamine?

      Your Answer: The S (+) isomer is more potent that the R (-) isomer

      Explanation:

      Ketamine, a phencyclidine derivative, is an antagonist at the NMDA receptor. It causes depression of the CNS that is dose dependent and induces a dissociative anaesthetic state with profound analgesia and amnesia.

      Ketamine has a chiral centre usually presented as a racemic mixture with two optical isomers, S (+) and R (-) forms. These isomers are in equal proportions. The S (+) isomer is about three times more potent than the R (-) form. The S (+) form is less likely to cause emergence delirium and hallucinations.

      Ketamine is extensively metabolised by hepatic microsomal cytochrome P450 enzymes producing norketamine as its main metabolite. Norketamine has a one third to one fifth as potency as its parent compound.
      It increases the CMRO2, cerebral blood flow and potentially increase intracranial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      2.3
      Seconds

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