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Question 1
Incorrect
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If a patient dislocated his right shoulder and has been referred to the orthopaedic outpatient department for a follow-up after a successful reduction, which of the following is the most important position for him to avoid holding his arm in until he is seen in the clinic?
Your Answer: Arm at 45 degrees to side with palm down
Correct Answer: Arm at 90 degrees to side with palm up
Explanation:The arm should be placed in a poly-sling that should be worn for about two weeks. A physiotherapist may give gentle movements for the arm to help in reducing stiffness and in relieving the pain. It is important that the patient must avoid positions that could cause re-dislocation.
The most important position to avoid is the arm being held out at 90 degrees to the side with the palm facing upwards, especially if a force is being applied. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 2
Correct
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You plan to use plain 1% lidocaine for a ring block on a finger that needs suturing.
Which SINGLE statement regarding the use of 1% lidocaine, in this case, is true?Your Answer: Lidocaine works by blocking fast voltage-gated sodium channels
Explanation:Lidocaine is a tertiary amine that is primarily used as a local anaesthetic but can also be used intravenously in the treatment of ventricular dysrhythmias.
Lidocaine works as a local anaesthetic by diffusing in its uncharged base form through neural sheaths and the axonal membrane to the internal surface of the cell membrane sodium channels. Here it alters signal conduction by blocking the fast voltage-gated sodium channels. With sufficient blockage, the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron will not depolarise and will be unable to transmit an action potential, thereby preventing the transmission of pain signals.
Each 1 ml of plain 1% lidocaine solution contains 10 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride. The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg/kg. When administered with adrenaline 1:200,000, the maximum safe dose is 7 mg/kg. Because of the risk of vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis, lidocaine should not be used in combination with adrenaline in extremities such as fingers, toes, and the nose.
The half-life of lidocaine is 1.5-2 hours. Its onset of action is rapid within a few minutes, and it has a duration of action of 30-60 minutes when used alone. Its duration of action is prolonged by co-administration with adrenaline (about 90 minutes).
Lidocaine tends to cause vasodilatation when used locally. This is believed to be due mainly to the inhibition of action potentials via sodium channel blocking in vasoconstrictor sympathetic nerves. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old male presents to his family physician with the complaint of increasing fatigue and lethargy, along with itching, especially after a hot bath. He also complains of increased sweating and dizziness. On examination, he has a plethoric appearance. Abdominal examination shows the presence of splenomegaly. A basic panel of blood tests is ordered in which her Hb comes out to be 17 g/dL.
Which one of the following treatment options will be most suitable in this case?Your Answer: No treatment is available
Correct Answer: Venesection
Explanation:The clinical and laboratory findings, in this case, support a diagnosis of polycythaemia vera. A plethoric appearance, lethargy, splenomegaly and itching are common in this disease. Patients may also have gouty arthritis, Budd-Chiari syndrome, erythromelalgia, stroke, myocardial infarction or DVT. The average age for diagnosis of Polycythaemia Vera is 65-74 years. It is a haematological malignancy in which there is overproduction of all three cell lines. Venesection is the treatment of choice as it would cause a decrease in the number of red blood cells within the body.
Erythropoietin is given in patients with chronic renal failure as they lack this hormone. Administration of erythropoietin in such patients causes stimulation of the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.
Desferrioxamine is a chelating agent for iron and is given to patients with iron overload due to repeated blood transfusions, e.g. in thalassemia patients.
Penicillamine is a chelating agent for Copper, given as treatment in Wilson’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A patient is diagnosed with a Klebsiella pneumoniae infection.
Which SINGLE statement regarding Klebsiella pneumoniae is FALSE?Your Answer: Infection is usually nocosomial
Correct Answer: Species with ESBLs are sensitive to cefotaxime
Explanation:Klebsiellais a genus of non-motile,Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteriawith a prominent polysaccharide-based capsule. They are routinely found in the nose, mouth and gastrointestinal tract as normal flora, however, they can also behave as opportunistic pathogens.
Infections with Klebsiella spp. areusually nosocomial. They are an important cause of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), urinary tract infection, wound infection and bacteraemia. Outbreaks of infections with Klebsiellaspp. in high-dependency units have been described and are associated with septicaemia and high mortality rates. Length of hospital stay and performance of invasive procedures are risk factors forKlebsiellainfections.
Primary pneumonia withKlebsiella pneumoniaeis a rare,severe, community-acquired infection associated with a poor outcome.
Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis causes a progressive granulomatous infection of the nasal passages and surrounding mucous membranes. This infection is mainly seen in the tropics.
Klebsiella ozanae is a recognised cause of chronic bronchiectasis.
Klebsiella organisms are resistant to multiple antibiotics including penicillins. This is thought to be a plasmid-mediated property. Agents with high intrinsic activity againstKlebsiellapneumoniaeshould be selected for severely ill patients. Examples of such agents include third-generation cephalosporins (e.g cefotaxime), carbapenems (e.g. imipenem), aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin), and quinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin). These agents may be used as monotherapy or combination therapy. Aztreonam may be used in patients who are allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics.
Species with ESBLs (Extended spectrum beta-lactamase) are resistant to penicillins and also cephalosporins such as cefotaxime and ceftriaxone
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 5
Correct
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Regarding the lacrimal apparatus, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: Lacrimal fluid is drained from the eyeball through the lacrimal punctum.
Explanation:Lacrimal fluid is drained from the eyeball through the lacrimal punctum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Regarding acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer: ALL is characterised by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.
Correct Answer: 75% of cases occur before the age of 6 years.
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is caused by an accumulation of lymphoblasts in the bone marrow and is the most common malignancy of childhood. The incidence of ALL is highest at 3 – 7 years, with 75% of cases occurring before the age of 6. 85% of cases are of B-cell lineage. Haematological investigations reveal a normochromic normocytic anaemia with thrombocytopenia in most cases. There is great variation in the chance of individual patients achieving a long-term cure based on a number of biological variables. Approximately 25% of children relapse after first-line therapy and need further treatment but overall 90% of children can expect to be cured. The cure rate in adults drops significantly to less than 5% over the age of 70 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The percentage of patients with hepatitis B that develop chronic infection is about:
Your Answer: 20%
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:With hepatitis B, about 90% of people will develop lifelong immunity after clearing the infection. Chronic hepatitis develops in about 10% of patients and this may be complicated by cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma. There is a very high risk of chronic infection and hepatocellular carcinoma when there is congenital infection. The risk of this in healthy adults is only about 5%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Depolarisation of a neuron begins with which of the following:
Your Answer: Opening of voltage-gated K + channels
Correct Answer: Opening of ligand-gated Na + channels
Explanation:Action potentials are initiated in nerves by activation of ligand-gated Na+channels by neurotransmitters. Opening of these Na+channels results in a small influx of sodium and depolarisation of the negative resting membrane potential (-70 mV). If the stimulus is sufficiently strong, the resting membrane depolarises enough to reach threshold potential (generally around -55 mV), at which point an action potential can occur. Voltage-gated Na+channels open, causing further depolarisation and activating more voltage-gated Na+channels and there is a sudden and massive sodium influx, driving the cell membrane potential to about +40 mV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Cellular
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient with a history of hypothyroidism arrives at the Emergency Department after taking 30 of her 200 mcg levothyroxine tablets. She tells you she's 'tired of life' and 'can't take it any longer.' She is currently asymptomatic, and her findings are all within normal limits.
What is the minimum amount of levothyroxine that must be taken before thyrotoxicosis symptoms appear?Your Answer: >20 mg
Correct Answer: >10 mg
Explanation:An overdose of levothyroxine can happen by accident or on purpose. Intentional overdosing is sometimes done to lose weight, but it can also happen in patients who are suicidal. The development of thyrotoxicosis, which can lead to excited sympathetic activity and high metabolism syndrome, is the main source of concern. The time between ingestion and the emergence of clinical features associated with an overdose is often quite long.
After a levothyroxine overdose, the majority of patients are asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are usually only seen in patients who have taken more than 10 mg of levothyroxine in total.
The following are the most commonly seen clinical features in patients developing clinical features:
Tremor
Agitation
Sweating
Insomnia
Headache
Increased body temperature
Increased blood pressure
Diarrhoea and vomiting
Less common clinical features associated with levothyroxine overdose include:
Seizures
Acute psychosis
Thyroid storm
Tachycardia
Arrhythmias
ComaThe continued absorption of the ingested levothyroxine causes a progressive rise in both total serum T4 and total serum T3 levels in the first 24 hours after an overdose. However, in some cases, the biochemical picture is completely normal. Thyroid function tests are not always recommended after a thyroxine overdose. Although elevated thyroxine levels are common, they have little clinical significance and have no impact on treatment. Following a levothyroxine overdose, the following biochemical features are common:
T4 and T3 levels in the blood are elevated.
Free T4 and Free T3 levels are higher.
TSH levels in the blood are low.
If the patient is cooperative and more than 10 mg of levothyroxine has been consumed, activated charcoal can be given (i.e., likely to become symptomatic)
Within an hour of ingestion, the patient presents.The treatment is mostly supportive and aimed at managing the sympathomimetic symptoms that come with levothyroxine overdose. If beta blockers aren’t an option, try propranolol 10-40 mg PO 6 hours or diltiazem 60-180 mg 8 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following laboratory findings is NOT typical of von Willebrand disease (VWD):
Your Answer: Normal PT
Correct Answer: Thrombocytopaenia
Explanation:Laboratory findings typically show (although this varies depending on VWD type):
Abnormal PFA-100 test
Low factor VIII levels (if low a factor VIII/VWF binding assay is performed)
Prolonged APTT (or normal)
Normal PT
Low VWF levels
Defective platelet aggregation
Normal platelet count -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Nitrous oxide is associated with which of the following adverse effects:
Your Answer: Laryngospasm
Correct Answer: Megaloblastic anaemia
Explanation:Exposure to nitrous oxide for prolonged periods, either by continuous or by intermittent administration, may result in megaloblastic anaemia as a result of interference with the action of vitamin B12; neurological toxic effects can occur without preceding overt haematological changes. Depression of white cell formation may also occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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C-reactive protein (CRP) synthesis is predominantly stimulated by which of the following cytokines:
Your Answer: IL-6
Explanation:Activated leukocytes, adipocytes, and endothelial cells all release interleukin 6 (IL-6), a significant proinflammatory cytokine. The main downstream mediator of the acute phase response is C-reactive protein, which is predominantly produced by IL-6–dependent hepatic biosynthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Inflammatory Responses
- Pathology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following is the most abundant peripheral blood leucocyte:
Your Answer: Neutrophils
Explanation:Neutrophils are the most abundant peripheral blood leucocyte, comprising about 50 – 70% of circulating white cells. Neutrophils have a characteristic dense nucleus consisting of between two and five lobes, and a pale cytoplasm with an irregular outline containing many fine pink-blue or grey-blue granules. The granules are divided into primary, which appear at the promyelocyte stage, and secondary, which appear at the myelocyte stage and predominate in the mature nucleus. Both types of granule are lysosomal in origin; the primary contains myeloperoxidase and other acid hydrolases; the secondary contains lactoferrin, lysozyme and other enzymes. The lifespan of neutrophils in the blood is only 6 – 10 hours. In response to tissue damage, cytokines and complement proteins, neutrophils migrate from the bloodstream to the site of insult within minutes, where they destroy pathogens by phagocytosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
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Question 14
Correct
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The role of the juxtaglomerular (granular) cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus is:
Your Answer: Production of renin
Explanation:Juxtaglomerular cells synthesise renin. These cells are specialised smooth muscle cells that are located in the walls of the afferent arterioles, and there are some in the efferent arterioles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man who has a history of asthma arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations that have been going on for 5 days. Which of the following beta-blockers is the safest for an asthmatic patient?
Your Answer: Sotalol
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Atenolol is a beta blocker, which is a type of medication that works by preventing certain natural substances in the body, such as epinephrine, from acting on the heart and blood vessels.
This effect reduces heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac strain. Atenolol, bisoprolol fumarate, metoprolol tartrate, nebivolol, and (to a lesser extent) acebutolol have a lower action on beta2 (bronchial) receptors and are thus cardio selective but not cardiac specific.
They have a lower effect on airway resistance, although they are not without this adverse effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Correct
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A novel anti-tuberculosis medicine was compared to standard treatment and shown to cut the risk of death from 30 to 10 per 1000 people. How many patients would need to be treated (number need to treat (NNT)) in order to prevent 10 additional tuberculosis deaths:
Your Answer: 500
Explanation:The risk of mortality in the control group (usual therapy) minus the risk of death in the treatment group equals the absolute risk reduction (ARR) of treatment.
30/1000 minus 10/1000 = 20/1000 = 0.02NNT = 1/ARR = 1/0.02 = 50
As a result, 50 people would need to be treated in order to prevent one additional fatality, and 500 people would need to be treated in order to avoid 10 additional deaths. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
- Statistics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old student presents with severe headache accompanied with nausea and vomiting. Upon observation and examination, it was noted that he is febrile and Kernig's sign is positive. A diagnosis of meningitis was suspected and a lumbar puncture was to be performed.
Which of the following statements regarding meningitis is true?Your Answer: The meninges are two layers of protective tissue that envelop the brain and spinal cord
Correct Answer: The dura mater is the outermost layer
Explanation:Meningitis is defined as the inflammation of the meninges due to an infection caused by a bacteria or a virus. Symptoms usually include stiffness of the neck, headache, and fever.
There are 3 meningeal layers that surround the spinal cord and they are the dura mater, arachnoid matter, and pia mater.The dura mater is the outermost and thickest layer out of all the 3 layers.
The arachnoid atter is the middle layer, and is very thin.
The third and deepest meningeal layer is the pia mater that is bound tightly to the surface of the spinal cord. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You review a patient with a history of Addison’s disease. He takes 100 mg of hydrocortisone per day to control this.
What dose of prednisolone is equivalent to this dose of hydrocortisone? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer: 12.5 mg
Correct Answer: 25 mg
Explanation:Prednisolone is four times more potent than hydrocortisone, and therefore, a dose of 25 mg would be equivalent to 100 mg of hydrocortisone.
The following table summarises the relative potency of the main corticosteroids compared with hydrocortisone:
Corticosteroid
Potency relative to hydrocortisone
Prednisolone
4 times more potent
Triamcinolone
5 times more potent
Methylprednisolone
5 times more potent
Dexamethasone
25 times more potent -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following side effects would you least associated with ciprofloxacin:
Your Answer: Folate deficiency
Explanation:Common side effects include diarrhoea, dizziness, headache, nausea and vomiting.
Other adverse effects include: Tendon damage (including rupture), Seizures (in patients with and without epilepsy), QT-interval prolongation, Photosensitivity and Antibiotic-associated colitis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Your Answer: Most patients present with painless asymmetrical lymphadenopathy, with cervical nodes involved most commonly.
Explanation:Lymphoma is a cancer of the lymphatic system, which is part of the body’s germ-fighting network. They are a group of diseases that are caused by malignant lymphocytes. These malignant cells accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue, giving rise to the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy.
They can be subdivided into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) which are characterised by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL).
Characteristics of HL include:
1. can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults,
2. almost 2:1 male predominance.
3. presents with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes.
4. cervical node involvement in 60-70% of cases,
5. axillary node involvement in 10-15%
6. inguinal node involvement in 6-12%.
7. modest splenomegaly during the course of the disease in 50% of patients
8. may occasionally have liver enlargement
9. bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease.
Approximately 85% of patients are cured, but the prognosis depends on age, stage and histology.
Two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL are alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
