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  • Question 1 - A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis....

    Incorrect

    • A 13 year old boy is admitted to the surgical ward with appendicitis. Medical history shows that he has been taking Metoclopramide. He is normally fit and well. However, he is reported to be acting strange and on examination, he is agitated with a clenched jaw and eyes are deviated upwards. What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Correct Answer: Oculogyric crisis

      Explanation:

      Answer: Oculogyric crisisOculogyric crisis is an acute dystonic reaction of the ocular muscles characterized by bilateral dystonic elevation of visual gaze lasting from seconds to hours. This reaction is most commonly explained as an adverse reaction to drugs such as antiemetics, antipsychotics, antidepressants, antiepileptics, and antimalarials. Metoclopramide is a benzamide selective dopamine D2 receptor antagonist that is used as an antiemetic, with side effects that are seen frequently in children.1 The most common and most important side effects of metoclopramide are acute extrapyramidal symptoms, which require immediate treatment. Acute dystonic reactions occur as contractions of the muscles, opisthotonos, torticollis, dysarthria, trismus, and oculogyric crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 1 year old baby is taken to the A&E with colicky abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 year old baby is taken to the A&E with colicky abdominal pain and an ileo-ileal intussusception is found on investigation. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Attempt hydrostatic reduction with barium enema

      Correct Answer: Undertake a laparotomy

      Explanation:

      Answer: Undertake a laparotomyIntussusception, which is defined as the telescoping or invagination of a proximal portion of intestine (intussusceptum) into a more distal portion (intussuscipiens), is one of the most common causes of bowel obstruction in infants and toddlers.Intussusception may be ileoileal, colocolic, ileoileocolic, or ileocolic (the most common type).Most infants with intussusception have a history of intermittent severe cramping or colicky abdominal pain, occurring every 5-30 minutes. During these attacks, the infant screams and flexes at the waist, draws the legs up to the abdomen, and may appear pale. These episodes may last for only a few seconds and are separated by periods of calm normal appearance and activity. However, some infants become quite lethargic and somnolent between attacks.Infants with intussusception require surgical correction. Prompt laparotomy following diagnosis is crucial for achieving better outcomes. Primary anastomosis can be performed successfully, and stomas can be created in the critically ill patients or those with late detection and septicaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 5-month-old baby presents with symptoms of irritability, blood in the stools and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-month-old baby presents with symptoms of irritability, blood in the stools and vomiting. Examination reveals a rigid abdomen and drawing of knees upon palpation. Which is the most appropriate action you should take for this baby?

      Your Answer: Check serum amylase

      Correct Answer: Refer to paediatric surgeons

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is the most suggested case here based on the child’s symptoms. The urgent course of treatment is to bring the child to a paediatric surgical unit. If air reduction attempts fail, surgery will have to be done. Risk factors for intussusception include viral infection and intestinal lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following neonatal skin conditions is NOT benign? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following neonatal skin conditions is NOT benign?

      Your Answer: Midline lumbosacral lipoma

      Explanation:

      A lumbosacral lipoma is a form of congenital spinal lipoma and can be regarded as a cutaneous marker of dysraphism. It is not a skin condition but rather represents a defect in the process of neurulation and leads to a constellation of other abnormalities. The most common other systemic abnormalities associated with midline lumbosacral lipoma include complex anorectal and urological malformations. Other mentioned conditions are benign rashes or birthmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric unit with reduced urine output and lethargy. She has been passing bloody diarrhoea for the past four days. On admission she appears dehydrated. Bloods show the following:Na+ 142 mmol/lK+ 4.8 mmol/lBicarbonate 22 mmol/lUrea 10.1 mmol/lCreatinine 176 µmol/lHb 10.4 g/dlMCV 90 flPlt 91 * 109/lWBC 14.4 * 109/lGiven the likely diagnosis, which one of the following organisms is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter

      Correct Answer: E. coli

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A normally developed 3-year-old child can do which one of the following tasks?...

    Incorrect

    • A normally developed 3-year-old child can do which one of the following tasks?

      Your Answer: Fasten buttons fully without assistance

      Correct Answer: Make a tower out of 9 bricks

      Explanation:

      3-year-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalCopies adults and friends Shows affection for friends without prompting Takes turns in games Shows concern for crying friend Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” Shows a wide range of emotions Separates easily from mom and dad May get upset with major changes in routineDresses and undresses self Language/CommunicationFollows instructions with 2 or 3 steps Can name most familiar things Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” Says first name, age, and sexNames a friend Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentences Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces Understands what “two” means Copies a circle with a pencil or crayon Turns book pages one at a time Builds towers of more than 6 blocks Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns the door handle Movement/Physical DevelopmentClimbs well Runs easily Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) Walks up and downstairs one foot on each step

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?

      Your Answer: The impregnated female mite tunnels into the dermis

      Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present. The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is true of scabies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of scabies?

      Your Answer: The eggs hatch in the dermis

      Correct Answer: The mite lives in the stratum corneum

      Explanation:

      Scabies is a dermatological condition caused by infestation of the Sarcoptes Scaibie. The tiny mite, often unseen by the naked human eye, is able to burrow into the stratum corneum where it lays its eggs, causing irritation and a rash related to the immune response against the mite and its eggs, saliva and faeces. On examination, the pathognomic small burrows are often seen on the skin along with small red papules and scratch marks| granulomatous nodules may also be seen especially in darker skin types. Other clinical subtypes such as bullous, and Norwegian (crusted) also exist. Common areas of infection include the hands, wrists, and the interdigital spaces. Infestation can also occur on the genital area, the buttocks, feet, ankles, flexor surfaces. First line treatment is with permethrin 5% dermal cream. It is important that all members of the household are also treated at the same time, and that contaminated bedding, clothes and furniture is adequately disinfected. Scabies is usually associated with overcrowded conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 11-month old infant was brought by the parents with complaints of poor...

    Incorrect

    • An 11-month old infant was brought by the parents with complaints of poor feeding, failure to thrive, and developmental delay. He was reluctant to play and was unable to sit independently at ten months. Examination revealed blond hair and pale skin with small hands and feet and a squint. He also has poor central muscle tone and unilaterally undescended testes. What is the probable diagnosis of this infant?

      Your Answer: DiGeorge syndrome

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome

      Explanation:

      The physical features and developmental delay are the key aspects in the given scenario. The child in question shows features of gross motor and social developmental delay and has physical features indicative of Prader-Willi syndrome (hypopigmentation, esotropia, disproportionately small hands and feet, loss of central muscle tone and undescended testes). Children with Prader-Willi syndrome can present with failure to thrive until ,12-18 months, at which point, hyperphagia and obesity become more prominent. Other options:- Although Klinefelter syndrome can present with delayed development, undescended/small testes and reduced muscle power, the presence of small hands/feet, hypopigmentation and failure to thrive are not characteristic features. – Marfan syndrome presents with different physical features (arachnodactyly, cardio-respiratory complications and skin changes, amongst others) than those associated with Prader-Willi syndrome. – DiGeorge can manifest with developmental delay, hypotonia and feeding difficulties. However, this clinical scenario does not report any of the typical facial features, hearing abnormalities or cardiac abnormalities that are typically caused by DiGeorge syndrome. – Russell-Silver syndrome can cause developmental abnormalities, poor muscle tone and power (poor head control and muscle function), feeding difficulties and poor growth during the post-natal period and infancy. However, characteristic facial (small, triangular face, blue sclerae) and skeletal abnormalities (limb asymmetry, finger abnormalities) are not present. Therefore, Prader-Willi syndrome is the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient.Note:Prader-Willi syndrome is an example of genetic imprinting where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father: In Prader-Willi syndrome, it is the paternal gene that is deleted from the long arm of chromosome 15, while in Angelman syndrome the maternal gene is deleted. Prader-Willi syndrome can occur due to the microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13 (70% of cases) maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      1346.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old diabetic boy had a blood sugar level of 3.0 mmol/L before eating a large meal at 6pm, presents with difficulties raising his blood glucose after the meal. His parents gave him a slightly lower insulin dose with the meal than usual. Blood glucose levels are not rising above 6 mmol/L. Parents are worried and do not want to send him to bed. What is the single most appropriate advice for the parents?

      Your Answer: They should wait until his blood sugar is at least 8 mmol/L before he can go to bed

      Correct Answer: A fast acting glucose source would have been preferable to treat the hypoglycaemia and should be considered in the future

      Explanation:

      The boy presented with mild hypoglycaemia and should be managed at home with fast-acting carbs. He should not sleep immediately. His parents should monitor his blood glucose every hour without letting him sleep in between.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord?

      Your Answer: Is filled with jelly of Wharton

      Explanation:

      The umbilical cord that connects the fetus to the placenta is about 50cm long. This tissue consists of the body stalk and vitelline duct. The former containing the allantoic diverticulum and the umbilical vessels. The latter contains the connection linking the digestive tube and the yolk sac. This cord is wrapped by stratum of ectoderm and gelatinous tissue or jelly of Wharton. The right umbilical vein plus the vitelline vessels and ducts disappear and this at birth the cord has three vessels which are the umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its...

    Incorrect

    • There is a measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. Which of following is the best term which can describe the above?

      Your Answer: Sensitivity

      Correct Answer: Standard deviation (root mean square deviation)

      Explanation:

      Standard deviation is defined as the measure of dispersion of a set of data from its mean. It measures the absolute variability of a distribution| the higher the dispersion or variability, the greater is the standard deviation and greater will be the magnitude of the deviation of the value from their mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 8 year old child presents with fresh rectal bleeding. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 8 year old child presents with fresh rectal bleeding. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Intestinal hamartomatous polyps are seen in Cowden syndrome

      Explanation:

      Colonic Polyposis and neoplasia are often seen in Cowden Syndrome which is a hamartomatous polyposis syndrome. Patients with Cowden syndrome have an increased risk for colorectal cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      73.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute rheumatic fever

      Correct Answer: Systemic Still’s disease

      Explanation:

      People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following is used to diagnose Infective endocarditis using the Duke...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is used to diagnose Infective endocarditis using the Duke criteria?

      Your Answer: 4 minor criteria

      Correct Answer: 1 major criteria and 3 minor criteria

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is caused by a bacterial, or fungal infection which damages the heart’s endothelium and can thus lead to changes in heart function, valve incompetencies, possible cardiac failure, as well other associated skin and organ changes. Organisms common in IE include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridians. The HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, and Kingella species) are common in neonates. The Duke criteria uses 2 major, or 1 major and 3 minor criteria, or 5 minor criteria to diagnose infective endocarditis. Major criteria include:- a positive blood culture and evidence of endocardial involvement. Minor criteria include: – evidence of predisposition (a heart condition of injection drug use)- a fever- vascular phenomena such as Janeway lesions- immunologic phenomena such as Osler’s nodes and Roth’s spots| and- microbiological or serological evidence of active infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 5 week old baby presents to the ward with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 week old baby presents to the ward with a history of projectile, non-bilious vomiting which takes place after feeding. The baby seems to have a normal appetite but hasn’t gained weight. You suspect pyloric stenosis. What initial test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Test feed

      Correct Answer: Capillary blood gas

      Explanation:

      One of the features of pyloric stenosis is hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. In emergency settings, capillary blood gas is the easiest and fastest way to establish a sustainable suspicion of pyloric stenosis. However, all tests are useful for the diagnosis of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A patient has been diagnosed with severe haemophilia B (factor IX level <1%).What...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has been diagnosed with severe haemophilia B (factor IX level <1%).What is the mode of inheritance?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Correct Answer: X-linked recessive

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia A and haemophilia B are inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. The genes associated with these conditions are located on the X chromosome, which is one of the two sex chromosomes. In males (who have only one X chromosome), one altered copy of the gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he...

    Incorrect

    • A 8 year old child presents with acute abdominal pain. Last time he used the restroom, he noticed fresh blood after wiping. Doctors suspect an intussusception. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal polyp

      Explanation:

      Gastrointestinal polyps are common in children and may result in intussusception due to polyp traction. Treatment is usually surgical with enterotomy and removal of the polyp or of a segment of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      206.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic complaining of dry skin and amenorrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to the clinic complaining of dry skin and amenorrhoea for the past 9 months. She goes to college and is performs well academically. Physical examination shows an underweight girl (weight 38 kg), height 1.78 m (5 ft 10 inches). Excessive small hair can be seen growing on the body. Labs are significant for an elevated cortisol level, normal T4 level, and anaemia associated with reduced WBCs and platelets. Based on this clinical picture, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: HIV

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder defined by restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight. Patients will have an intense fear of gaining weight and distorted body image with the inability to recognize the seriousness of their significantly low body weight. Athletes in sports such as ballet, long-distance running, and martial arts are pressured to maintain lean body weights to outperform the competition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      118.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year old child from a rural setting complains of recurrent abdominal pain. The child is found to have a heavy parasitic infestation and anaemia. Which type of anaemia is most likely seen in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemolytic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in children in developing countries is parasitic infection (hookworm, amoebiasis, schistosomiasis and whipworm).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      63
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A term infant delivered via C-section develops tachypnoea, grunting, flaring, and intercostal retractions...

    Incorrect

    • A term infant delivered via C-section develops tachypnoea, grunting, flaring, and intercostal retractions 10 minutes after birth. A chest radiograph reveals well-aerated lungs with fluid in the fissure on the right, prominent pulmonary vascular markings, and flattening of the diaphragm. His oxygen saturation is 90%. He improves within a few hours and requires no oxygen. What condition is this infant most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the new-born

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the new-born is a condition associated with the delayed clearance of amniotic fluid from the new-born. The X-ray findings are typical of this condition. As the name implies and was noted in this patient, it is not a lasting condition and resolves within 24-72 hours after birth. The differential diagnoses usually present with different chest X-ray findings:- Aspiration pneumonia shows infiltrates in the lower lobes of the lungs- Congenitally acquired pneumonia shows patchy, asymmetrical densities- Meconium aspiration shows hyperinflation and patchy asymmetric airspace disease- Pulmonary oedema shows cephalization of pulmonary veins and indistinctness of the vascular margins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. Which of the following treatment strategies should be employed?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. Primary and secondary syphilis are easy to treat with a penicillin injection. Penicillin is one of the most widely used antibiotics and is usually effective in treating syphilis. People who are allergic to penicillin will likely be treated with a different antibiotic, such as:doxycyclineazithromycinceftriaxone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was no time for the administration of antenatal steroids. The baby was successfully intubated, and the first dose of surfactant had been given. Despite good chest wall movement and 2 min of chest compressions the heart rate remains very slow. The baby is approximately 18min old when the consultant arrives. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this case?

      Your Answer: 2 min of chest compressions

      Correct Answer: Consider reorientating care

      Explanation:

      The withdrawal and withholding of care has been reported in neonatology for over 30 years. ‘Withdrawal’ of life-saving treatment implies the elective discontinuation of ongoing life-supportive measures. ‘Withholding’ of treatment occurs when interventions necessary for immediate survival, such as surgical intervention or resuscitation (bag and mask/endotracheal ventilation, cardiac massage or adrenaline) are deliberately not administered.Withdrawal of treatment most commonly takes the form of withdrawing of ventilatory support. In the extremely premature neonate who has had poor response to bag and mask ventilation, this may mean stopping ventilation breaths, explaining to the parents the reason for discontinuation and offering comfort care according to the parents’ wishes. Parents should be prepared for the sequelae that may follow withdrawal from mechanical ventilation. The infant may become agitated secondary to hypoxia, display terminal gasping and, depending on the size and gestation of their infant, tachypnoea, intercostal recession or stridor may be evident. Parents may want to be involved in the extubation process. Following ventilator withdrawal, the length of time prior to death cannot be predicted and can be a significant cause of parental anguish if this is not explained. A side room and privacy should be made available for the family. NICE guidance suggests that women ‘should not be encouraged to hold their dead baby if they do not wish to’, although this is very much dependent on individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 26-year-old doctor who has recently been diagnosed with melanoma asks about survival...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old doctor who has recently been diagnosed with melanoma asks about survival rates associated with this condition. Which of the following statistical methods is employed to predict the survival rates?

      Your Answer: Regression analysis

      Correct Answer: Kaplan-Meier estimator

      Explanation:

      The Kaplan–Meier estimator, also known as the product limit estimator, is a non-parametric statistic used to estimate the survival function from lifetime data. In medical research, it is often used to measure the fraction of patients living for a certain amount of time after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 15-year-old male presents with a depressed skull fracture, which was surgically managed....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old male presents with a depressed skull fracture, which was surgically managed. Over the next few days, he complains of double vision on walking downstairs and reading. On testing ocular convergence, the left eye faces downward and medially, but the right side does not.Which of the following injured nerves is most likely responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Abducens

      Correct Answer: Trochlear

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable nerve injured in this patient would be the trochlear nerve. The trochlear nerve has a relatively long intracranial course, and this makes it vulnerable to injury in head trauma. Head trauma is the most frequent cause of acute fourth nerve palsy. A 4th nerve palsy is the most common cause of vertical diplopia. The diplopia is at its worst when the eye looks medially which it usually does as part of the accommodation reflex when walking downstairs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      647.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 6-year-old male was brought to the OPD with complaints of weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old male was brought to the OPD with complaints of weight loss and fatigue for the last few months. On examination he was pale and had hepatosplenomegaly. A full blood count was ordered and it revealed immature white blood cells. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The age of the patient and the presence of immature white blood cells are suggestive of leukaemia. Hodgkin’s disease is unlikely in this age group and it usually presents with lymphadenopathy. In HIV, immature white blood cells are not present in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her face. Some of the blisters are crusted and some are weeping. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Impetigo

      Explanation:

      Impetigo appears more commonly on the face than other exposed areas like the limbs. Its blisters are clustered and may have a fluid discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      66.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old known asthmatic presents to the A&E department with difficulty breathing. She was seen by her regular doctor the day before with a sore throat which he diagnosed as tonsillitis and was prescribed oral Amoxicillin for 5 days. Past medical history:Ulcerative colitis diagnosed four years ago.Current medications:Inhaled salbutamol and beclomethasoneMesalazine 400 mg TDSShe was observed to be alert and oriented but she had laboured breathing. Inspiratory wheeze was noted. She was pale, sweaty and cyanosed. Her temperature was 36.7ºC, pulse 121/minute and blood pressure 91/40 mmHg. The lungs were clear and the remainder of the examination was normal. She was given high-flow oxygen through a face mask but despite this her breathing became increasingly difficult. What is the most likely causative agent?

      Your Answer: Peptostreptococcus

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is a life-threatening disorder with serious implications to the anaesthesiologist because of the potential for laryngospasm and irrevocable loss of the airway. There is inflammatory oedema of the arytenoids, aryepiglottic folds and the epiglottis| therefore, supraglottitis may be used instead or preferred to the term acute epiglottitis.Acute epiglottitis can occur at any age. The responsible organism used to be Hemophilus influenzae type B (Hib), but infection with group A b-haemolytic Streptococci has become more frequent after the widespread use of Hemophilus influenzae vaccination. The typical presentation in epiglottitis includes acute occurrence of high fever, severe sore throat and difficulty in swallowing with the sitting up and leaning forward position in order to enhance airflow. There is usually drooling because of difficulty and pain on swallowing. Acute epiglottitis usually leads to generalized toxaemia. The most common differential diagnosis is croup and a foreign body in the airway. A late referral to an acute care setting with its serious consequences may result from difficulty in differentiation between acute epiglottitis and less urgent causes of a sore throat, shortness of breath and dysphagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with nausea, vomiting and abdominal swelling....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with nausea, vomiting and abdominal swelling. Physical examination also reveals digital clubbing and linea nigra on her abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cyst

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Clinical signs of early pregnancy-Amenorrhoea-Nausea and vomiting -Breast enlargement and tenderness -Hyperpigmentation of the areola and formation of linea nigra: Most likely due to increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone produced by the placenta -Increased urinary frequency-Fatigue-Cravings for or aversions to certain foods-Abdominal bloating and constipation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A randomised controlled trial of a new treatment for hypertension yields a P-value...

    Incorrect

    • A randomised controlled trial of a new treatment for hypertension yields a P-value of 0.00036.Which one of the following gives the best interpretation of this information?

      Your Answer: The P value was determined using regression analysis

      Correct Answer: To understand the clinical importance of the treatment we should also consider the confidence interval for the difference

      Explanation:

      The level of statistical significance is often expressed as a p-value between 0 and 1. The smaller the p-value, the stronger the evidence that you should reject the null hypothesis.A p-value less than 0.05 (typically ≤ 0.05) is statistically significant. It indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis, as there is less than a 5% probability the null is correct (and the results are random). Therefore, we reject the null hypothesis, and accept the alternative hypothesis.However, this does not mean that there is a 95% probability that the research hypothesis is true. The p-value is conditional upon the null hypothesis being true is unrelated to the truth or falsity of the research hypothesis.A lower p-value is sometimes interpreted as meaning there is a stronger relationship between two variables. However, statistical significance means that it is unlikely that the null hypothesis is true (less than 5%).To understand the strength of the difference between two groups (control vs. experimental) a researcher needs to calculate the effect size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 2 month old baby presents to the clinic with vomiting. On examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 month old baby presents to the clinic with vomiting. On examination he has ambiguous genitalia. The lab results are as follows: Na: 125mmol/L, K: 6mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) comprises a group of autosomal recessive defects in enzymes that are responsible for cortisol, aldosterone, and, in very rare cases, androgen synthesis. All forms of CAH are characterized by low levels of cortisol, high levels of ACTH, and adrenal hyperplasia. The exact clinical manifestations depend on the enzyme defect. The most common form of CAH, which is caused by a deficiency of 21β-hydroxylase, presents with hypotension, ambiguous genitalia, and virilization (in the female genotype), and/or precocious puberty (in both males and females). It is further characterized by hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Increased levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone confirm the diagnosis of 21β-hydroxylase deficiency. Treatment of CAH involves lifelong glucocorticoid replacement therapy. Patients with a 21β-hydroxylase deficiency also require mineralocorticoid replacement with fludrocortisone. Complications of CAH include severe hypoglycaemia, adrenal insufficiency, and/or a failure to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 16-year-old girl presents to her OBGYN after getting pregnant. It is evaluated...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to her OBGYN after getting pregnant. It is evaluated that she is 13 days pregnant and the fetal tissue has just undergone implantation. Where in the uterus does implantation usually take place?

      Your Answer: Posterior or inferior walls

      Correct Answer: Anterior or superior walls

      Explanation:

      Time and EventWeek 1: ImplantationWeek 2: Formation of bilaminar diskWeek 3: Formation of primitive streakFormation of notochordGastrulationWeek 4: Limb buds begin to formNeural tube closesHeart begins to beatWeek 10: Genitals are differentiated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following developmental milestones is a 3 year old girl unlikely to have achieved?

      Your Answer: Give full name

      Correct Answer: Make good cuts with scissors

      Explanation:

      At the age of three years a child is to be able to dress and undress himself with supervision, eat with a spoon and fork, build a tower with 9 cubes, give their full name and copy a circle. The child will not be able to make good cuts with scissions until he is about 5 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 1 year old child presents with barking cough, coryza and shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 year old child presents with barking cough, coryza and shortness of breath. What will be the most likely outcome associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: 10% chance of persisting into adult life

      Correct Answer: Natural resolution

      Explanation:

      Croup is the most common aetiology for hoarseness, cough, and onset of acute stridor in febrile children. Symptoms of coryza may be absent, mild, or marked. The vast majority of children with croup recover without consequences or sequelae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      89.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 10-year-old girl presents with hyperkeratotic plaques on the extensor aspects of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with hyperkeratotic plaques on the extensor aspects of the skin and the scalp margin. A skin scraping KOH mount and fungal culture in Sabouraud Dextrose Agar from the skin and hair revealed no growth.What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Lichen simplex

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms is psoriasis. Psoriasis:Chronic plaque psoriasis is characterised by pinkish-red hyperkeratotic plaques, which occur mainly on extensor surfaces such as knees and elbows. The lower back, ears and scalp can also be involved. Koebner phenomenon: Psoriasis typically exhibits this phenomenon where new plaques of psoriasis occur particularly at sites of skin trauma. Diagnosis:Skin biopsy of psoriatic plaques reveals acanthosis and parakeratosis, reflecting increased skin turnover. Capillary dilatation within the dermis also occurs, surrounded by a mixed neutrophilic and lymphohistiocytic perivascular infiltrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Incidence is 1 in 10,000

      Correct Answer: Fertility is affected

      Explanation:

      Klinefelter’s syndrome is the most common sex chromosome linked disorder with a karyotype of 47XXY. The incidence of the disease is 1 in 500-1000 male births. Childhood presentation consists of unusual growth spurt along with learning difficulties and delayed speech. The adolescence is marked by abnormal sexual maturation leading to hypogonadism and sub-fertility in adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypoplastic dental enamel

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a spectrum of disorders caused by a heritable genetic defect of connective tissue that has an autosomal dominant mode of transmission. The defect itself has been isolated to the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Abnormalities in this protein cause a myriad of distinct clinical problems, of which the musculoskeletal, cardiac, and ocular system problems predominate.The most severe of these clinical problems include aortic root dilatation and dissection, which have historically been the causative factors in early patient demise. Skeletal deformities such as thoracolumbar scoliosis, thoracic lordosis, and pectus excavatum, may lead to pulmonary difficulties that include restrictive airway disease and cor pulmonale if the deformities are progressive and untreated. Finally, blindness may result from unrecognized and untreated glaucoma, retinal detachment, and cataracts.The skeleton of patients with MFS typically displays multiple deformities including arachnodactyly (i.e., abnormally long and thin digits), dolichostenomelia (i.e., long limbs relative to trunk length), pectus deformities (i.e., pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum), and thoracolumbar scoliosis. In the cardiovascular system, aortic dilatation, aortic regurgitation, and aneurysms are the most worrisome clinical findings. Mitral valve prolapse that requires valve replacement can occur as well. Ocular findings include myopia, cataracts, retinal detachment, and superior dislocation of the lens.Other features:General tall staturePectus excavatum or carinatumDisproportionately long, slender armsDisproportionately long digitsArachnodactylyFinger contracturesReduced extension of elbows (< 170 degrees)Protrusio acetabuli (intrapelvic displacement of the acetabulum)Pes planus (flat feet)HypermobilityArthralgiaJoint instabilityScoliosisKyphosisDolichocephalia (elongated face)High arched palateDental crowdingDental malocclusion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl who has undergone a recent excision of the left submandibular gland presents to the follow-up clinic with complaints of tongue weakness on the ipsilateral side.What is the nerve that is most likely to be damaged?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The presenting features and the surgical site provided in the clinical scenario are highly suggestive of ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve injury.Note:Three cranial nerves may be injured during submandibular gland excision.- Marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve- Lingual nerve- Hypoglossal nerveHypoglossal nerve damage may result in the paralysis of the ipsilateral aspect of the tongue. The nerve itself lies deep to the capsule surrounding the gland and should not be injured during an intracapsular dissection. The lingual nerve is probably at higher risk of injury. However, the effects of lingual nerve injury are predominantly sensory rather than motor.Thus, the most appropriate answer is the hypoglossal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - What is the cause for tinea incognito? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cause for tinea incognito?

      Your Answer: Fungal superinfection

      Correct Answer: Inappropriate treatment with steroid cream

      Explanation:

      “Tinea incognito” is a term used to describe a tinea infection modified by topical steroids. It is caused by prolonged use of topical steroids, sometimes prescribed as a result of incorrect diagnosis. Topical steroids suppress the local immune response and allow the fungus to grow easily. As a result, the fungal infection may take on the bizarre appearance seen in this patient.The diagnosis of tinea incognito is simple to confirm by microscopic visualization of branching hyphae and spores typical of dermatophytes in a potassium hydroxide preparation.Treatment of tinea incognito requires cessation of all topical steroid use and implementation of specific antifungal treatment. A low-potency corticosteroid may be used briefly to avoid the flare often associated with abrupt cessation of a potent steroid. Patients should be warned of this possibility so they do not reinstitute use of topical steroids on their own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old girl with eczema is on the following treatment regimen: Oilatum in baths| Baby' shampoo and soap and E45 cream to affected areas four times daily. Additionally, the mother uses 'non-biological' washing powder.The child often scratches the affected areas, sometimes even in her sleep. On examination, her skin is erythematous, excoriated, and lichenified over the knees, thighs, and flexor surfaces of the elbows.Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Advise mother to continue the current treatment and try to exclude dairy products from the diet

      Correct Answer: Use E45 cream instead of soap| advise using a greasier emollient and try an antihistamine at night

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate next step in the management of this patient would be to use E45 cream instead of soap. Using a greasier emollient and an antihistamine at night can also be trialled..Management of eczema:Treatment of eczema can be problematic, and thus, parents should be advised regarding simple, everyday measures that can relieve the symptoms. These include:- Using non-biological washing powder- Wearing cotton clothes as opposed to artificial fibres- Avoiding the use of soaps or shampoos and using E45 Cream as an alternative.- Additional use of bath oil (e.g. Oilatum) is found to be beneficial.- Regular emollient use is recommended and essential. The aim is to keep the skin from feeling dry at any time of day. Sedating with older types of antihistamines at night does not help to reduce itching, but when used in large doses, they occasionally provide a sedative effect which may improve sleep. If all these measures are in use, but the eczema is still not controlled, the escalation of treatment would be appropriate. Note: There is no evidence for the benefit of topical antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Which of the following actions will a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following actions will a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones be able to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor

      Explanation:

      Among the given options a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones will be able to pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor.Other options:- Bouncing and catching a ball is learnt by the age of 5.- The ability to pedal a tricycle should be attained by 3 years of age, not 2.- A child can walk on tip-toe by 2.5 and run on tip-toe by (option D) 3 years of age, not 2.- The ability to momentarily maintain balance using one leg (option E) should be attained by 3 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given...

    Incorrect

    • In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given the treatment experienced a side effect, compared to 0 out of the 25 patients given the placebo. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fisher’s exact test should be used to compare the significance of the difference

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test would have been a useful test to compare the proportions in the scenario. However, due to the small sample size, Fisher’s exact test can be applied to analyse the significance of the difference. Adequate information is not given to determine what sample sizes were used to test the efficacy of the treatment, and to tell whether the treatment should be discontinued without further analysis on the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Tuberous sclerosis is associated with all, EXCEPT which of the given clinical findings?...

    Incorrect

    • Tuberous sclerosis is associated with all, EXCEPT which of the given clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lisch nodules of the iris

      Explanation:

      Tuberous sclerosis is an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous condition associated with increased psychiatric co-morbidity. It results from the mutation of TSC1 or TSC2 tumour suppressor genes. Multiple benign tumours of the brain and other vital organs are characteristic of this disease. Important findings include subependymal nodules, bone cysts, cardiac rhabdomyoma, and learning difficulties. Lisch nodules of the iris occur in neurofibromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 10-year-old asthmatic boy is brought to the emergency department with severe stridor,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old asthmatic boy is brought to the emergency department with severe stridor, wheeze, and lip swelling following the ingestion of a cashew nut at a birthday party.Which of the following can be considered an acceptable treatment option for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nebulised adrenaline 5ml 1:1,000

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from an anaphylactic reaction to the cashew nut he consumed.Anaphylaxis:Anaphylaxis is an acute, rapidly progressing, potentially life-threatening IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reaction.It involves the release of mediators from mast cells, basophils and inflammatory cells. It is characterised by oedematous swelling of the airway mucosa giving rise to dyspnoea and respiratory distress.The most common cause of anaphylaxis in children is a food allergy.Risk factors for death in patients with anaphylaxis include asthma, age 11+, peanut allergy, and delay in adrenaline administration.Management of anaphylaxis includes:- Resuscitation – ABCD- Remove the allergen- IM adrenaline is given at ten microgram/kg or Nebulised adrenaline 5ml 1:1,000- IV Hydrocortisone is given at 4mg/kg- pro re nata IV fluid support. – Followed by observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Which of the following conditions does not typically display lesions of 20 cm?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions does not typically display lesions of 20 cm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keratosis pilaris

      Explanation:

      Keratosis pilaris most often affects the outer aspect of both upper arms. It may also occur on the thighs, buttocks and sides of the cheeks, and less often on the forearms and upper back. The distribution is symmetrical.The scaly spots may appear skin coloured, red (keratosis pilaris rubra) or brown (hyperpigmented keratosis pilaris). They are not itchy or sore.Macules are flat, nonpalpable lesions usually < 10 mm in diameter.Examples include freckles, flat moles, tattoos, and port-wine stains, and the rashes of rickettsial infections, rubella, measles (can also have papules and plaques), and some allergic drug eruptions.Papules are elevated lesions usually < 10 mm in diameter that can be felt or palpated. Examples include nevi, warts, lichen planus, insect bites, seborrheic keratoses, actinic keratoses, some lesions of acne, and skin cancers. Plaques are palpable lesions > 10 mm in diameter that are elevated or depressed compared to the skin surface. Plaques may be flat topped or rounded. Lesions of psoriasis and granuloma annulare commonly form plaques.Nodules are firm papules or lesions that extend into the dermis or subcutaneous tissue. Examples include cysts, lipomas, and fibromas.Vesicles are small, clear, fluid-filled blisters < 10 mm in diameter. Vesicles are characteristic of herpes infections, acute allergic contact dermatitis, and some autoimmune blistering disorders (e.g., dermatitis herpetiformis).Bullae are clear fluid-filled blisters > 10 mm in diameter. These may be caused by burns, bites, irritant contact dermatitis or allergic contact dermatitis, and drug reactions. Classic autoimmune bullous diseases include pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid. Bullae also may occur in inherited disorders of skin fragility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in the urine and pain in his abdomen. On examination, abdominal swelling is present and blood pressure is elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Haematuria and abdominal swelling may indicate either polycystic kidney disease or a tumour. Because of the patient’s age, the likelihood of a tumorous growth is small, thus an ultrasound is the best choice for this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-day-old baby started having pallor and jaundice. The mother's first child did not have jaundice at birth. On clinical investigations, direct Coombs test is positive. Mother's blood group is A negative. Baby's blood group is O positive. What is the most probable cause of the condition of this new-born?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rhesus incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Jaundice in a new-born on the day of delivery is most likely due to Rh incompatibility. This occurs when the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive. Antibodies in the mother against the Rh factor in the baby will destroy the red blood cells in the baby, increasing the bilirubin in the blood. Breast milk jaundice and Galactosemia do not occur immediately after birth, and congenital rubella syndrome and formula feeding does not cause jaundice in babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 16-year-old girl experienced nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps 4 h after eating...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl experienced nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramps 4 h after eating a hamburger in a local restaurant. Watery diarrhoea began a few hours later.The most likely organism causing her disease is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Food poisoning is defined as an illness caused by the consumption of food or water contaminated with bacteria and/or their toxins, or with parasites, viruses, or chemicals. The most common pathogens are Norovirus, Escherichia coli, Salmonella, Clostridium perfringens, Campylobacter, and Staphylococcus aureus.The following are some of the salient features of food poisoning:Acute diarrhoea in food poisoning usually lasts less than 2 weeks. Diarrhoea lasting 2-4 weeks is classified as persistent. Chronic diarrhoea is defined by duration of more than 4 weeks.The presence of fever suggests an invasive disease. However, sometimes fever and diarrhoea may result from infection outside the GI tract, as in malaria.A stool with blood or mucus indicates invasion of the intestinal or colonic mucosa.Reactive arthritis can be seen with Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, and Yersinia infections.A profuse rice-water stool suggests cholera or a similar process.Abdominal pain is most severe in inflammatory processes. Painful abdominal cramps suggest underlying electrolyte loss, as in severe cholera.A history of bloating should raise the suspicion of giardiasis.Yersinia enterocolitis may mimic the symptoms of appendicitis.Proctitis syndrome, seen with shigellosis, is characterized by frequent painful bowel movements containing blood, pus, and mucus. Tenesmus and rectal discomfort are prominent features.Consumption of undercooked meat/poultry is suspicious for Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and C perfringens.Consumption of raw seafood is suspicious for Norwalk-like virus, Vibrioorganism, or hepatitis A.Consumption of homemade canned foods is associated with C botulinum.Consumption of unpasteurized soft cheeses is associated with Listeria, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.Consumption of deli meats notoriously is responsible for listeriosis.Consumption of unpasteurized milk or juice is suspicious for Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shiga toxin E coli, and Yersinia.Salmonella has been associated with consumption of raw eggs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with acute onset testicular...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with acute onset testicular pain. On examination, he is found to have testicular tenderness. On trans-illumination, a faint blue dot can be seen. What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Torsion of the hydatid cyst of the testis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be torsion of a hydatid cyst of the testis.Note:The differential diagnoses in acute testicular pain/swelling are listed in the possible answers. Testicular torsion typically affects adolescent males and presents with acute painful swelling and a horizontally lying testicle. Other options:- Epididymo-orchitis is diagnosed during surgery when a thickened erythematous epididymis is noted. Ectopic ureteric insertion into the vas must be excluded by ultrasound scan on an out-patient basis. The hydatid cyst or cyst of Morgagni represents the remnants of the Mullerian structure. In the pre-pubertal child, a surge in hormones can stimulate growth and chance of torsion. It is diagnosed by surgical exploration or by a blue dot sign. Idiopathic scrotal oedema tends to be within the scrotum itself, and the testis can be examined in the groin to exclude pain in the testis. All acute scrotal pain must be explored to exclude testicular torsion unless a surgical registrar is convinced of a torted hydatid cyst.- An 8-year-old is more likely to present with a torted hydatid cyst. The blue dot sign is diagnostic and can negate the need for surgical exploration. The age of the child also makes epididymo-orchitis less likely.- Idiopathic scrotal oedema presents with an erythematous and thickened scrotum. This can cross the midline and involve the whole scrotum.- Finally, an inguinal hernia would present with a mass in the groin extending to the scrotum that you cannot get above.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A pregnant woman with atopic eczema and asthma, who has a 5-year-old child...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman with atopic eczema and asthma, who has a 5-year-old child with moderately severe eczema, requests advice about reducing the risk of eczema in her unborn child. Select the MOST appropriate advice from the following:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Removing certain known food allergens from the mother’s diet during pregnancy does not reduce the risk or prevent the onset of atopic eczema

      Explanation:

      Nonspecific triggers of inflammation in patients with atopic dermatitis may include physical or chemical irritants. The following simple measures should be followed in daily life to reduce the frequency and severity of irritant-induced atopic dermatitis flares :Skin care products that contain alcohol and astringents should be avoided.New clothes should be laundered before use to remove formaldehyde and other chemicals.Liquid detergents are preferred over powder detergents for laundering clothes, as liquids are easier to rinse out. A second rinse cycle may also improve removal of residual detergent.Patients should shower immediately after swimming in chlorinated pools and should subsequently apply moisturizer.Fragrance-free skin products that are hypoallergenic or made for sensitive skin may be less irritating than other kinds of skin products.Prenatal and postnatal probiotic supplementation may be helpful in preventing the development of atopic dermatitis in young children. In a 2008 meta-analysis, the most commonly studied probiotic was Lactobacillus rhamnoses GG. Larger, randomized controlled studies are needed to confirm these initial findings.Breastfeeding during the first 4 months of life may reduce the incidence and severity of childhood atopic disease but only modestly and only in those at high risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 6 week old girl presents with intermittent rectal bleeding. She is breastfed...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 week old girl presents with intermittent rectal bleeding. She is breastfed and otherwise healthy. Doctors suggest the baby has allergic proctitis. What of the following should the mother do and what should she feed her baby at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue to breast-feed| mother to go onto a strict milk- and soya-free diet

      Explanation:

      This is probably a case of protein-induced allergic proctitis, due to dietary protein transmitted through the mother to the breast-fed child. The mother should go on a milk-free and soya-free diet but continue to breast-feed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A young boy presents with a soft swelling in the midline neck that...

    Incorrect

    • A young boy presents with a soft swelling in the midline neck that moves with tongue protrusion. The swelling is present between the thyroid cartilage and the tongue. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroglossal cyst

      Explanation:

      The thyroglossal duct cyst is the most common congenital anomaly of the central portion of the neck. The thyroglossal duct cyst is intimately related to the central portion of the hyoid bone and usually elevates along with the larynx during swallowing. Thyroglossal cysts can be defined as an irregular neck mass or a lump which develops from cells and tissues left over after the formation of the thyroid gland during the developmental stages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy presents with a tibial fracture in a cast and continuous pain. You suspect a compartment syndrome injury. Which of the following represents a late sign of the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absent distal pulses

      Explanation:

      The Five P’s: pain, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis, and pallor, are the most common symptoms of compartment syndrome. However, late signs of the condition include the absence of distal pulses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 55 - All of the given are features of cow's milk protein intolerance EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the given are features of cow's milk protein intolerance EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steatorrhoea

      Explanation:

      CMPI ( cow’s milk protein intolerance) is an immunological reaction to one or more of the many proteins found in cow’s milk. It may be IgE mediated or non-IgE mediated. The prominent signs and symptoms include sneezing, rhinorrhoea, coughing, wheezing, oral angioedema, oral itching, diarrhoea, vomiting, and bloody stools. Steatorrhea is not a recognized feature of CMPI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
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  • Question 56 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 57 - A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.
    Given the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl presents with short stature, webbed neck and primary amenorrhoea.
      Given the likely clinical diagnosis, which hormone replacement is most crucial over the longer term?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oestrogen

      Explanation:

      This girl most likely has Turner syndrome (TS) also known as 45,X, a condition in which a female is partly or completely missing an X chromosome. Signs and symptoms vary among those affected. Often, a short and webbed neck, low-set ears, low hairline at the back of the neck, short stature, and swollen hands and feet are seen at birth. Typically, they are without menstrual periods, do not develop breasts, and are unable to have children. Heart defects, diabetes, and low thyroid hormone occur more frequently. Most people with TS have normal intelligence. Many, however, have troubles with spatial visualization such as that needed for mathematics. Vision and hearing problems occur more often. Turner syndrome is not usually inherited from a person’s parents. No environmental risks are known and the mother’s age does not play a role. As a chromosomal condition, there is no cure for Turner syndrome. However, much can be done to minimize the symptoms including prescribing growth hormone, either alone or with a low dose of androgen, and oestrogen replacement therapy which is crucial long term for maintaining good bone integrity, cardiovascular health and tissue health

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 58 - In females, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual...

    Incorrect

    • In females, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8 years of age

      Explanation:

      Precocious puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in females is breast enlargement, followed by the appearance of pubic and axillary hair, and finally menarche, 2-3 years after the onset of thelarche. Precocious puberty is caused by the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis where FSH and LH levels are raised. Less common is the gonadotrophin independent form, which is due to excess sex hormones, but low FSH and LH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 59 - Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most often found in patients suffering from Marfan syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 60 - The positive likelihood ratio for a diagnostic test is 3. A patient, whose...

    Incorrect

    • The positive likelihood ratio for a diagnostic test is 3. A patient, whose pre-test odds were 2 tests positiveThe following is most accurate:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Their prior odds of having the disease are now 6

      Explanation:

      Before the test, the patient was likely to have the disease being tested for. Their pre test odds were 2, making them twice as likely to have the disease. After testing positive, their pretest odds of 2 and the likelihood ratio of 3 are multiplied to produce 6 as the post test odds. The patient is now 6 times as likely to have the disease after the test. Likelihood ratios above 10 or below 0.1 are strong evidence to rule in and rule out a diagnosis. The negative likelihood ratio is not known here, but does not subtract from the interpretation of the outcomes in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 61 - A new-born at term with no significant family history presents with absent skin...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born at term with no significant family history presents with absent skin on both feet to mid-calf. The most appropriate thing to do is to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cover the affected areas in cling film

      Explanation:

      The baby most probably has dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa, a primarily autosomal dominant disorder associated with keratin 5 and 14 defects. Initial management consists of supportive measures such as protecting the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 62 - A 3-month-old baby was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-month-old baby was brought to the paediatrics ward by her mother with a complaint of noisy breathing and difficulty feeding. On examination, the baby had a mild inspiratory stridor, and subsequent laryngoscopy reveals an omega-shaped epiglottis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      Omega-shaped epiglottis is a characteristic feature in the X-ray of a patient with laryngomalacia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 63 - A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show:Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144)Potassium...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show:Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144)Potassium 3.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)Urine sodium 2 mmol/LUrine osmolality 750 mosmol/kg (350-1000)What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Bulimia nervosa. A young girl with a low body mass contributes to the low urea. Hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia are due to vomiting. Her urine sodium is also low.- In Addison’s diseases, there are low levels of sodium and high levels of potassium in the blood. In acute adrenal crisis: The most consistent finding is elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Urinary and sweat sodium also may be elevated. – In Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH) there is hyponatremia with corresponding hypo-osmolality, continued renal excretion of sodium, urine less than maximally dilute and absence of clinical evidence of volume depletion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 64 - According to a cross-sectional survey of >500 subjects, an estimated 10% of a...

    Incorrect

    • According to a cross-sectional survey of >500 subjects, an estimated 10% of a group of children that have a sibling with severe eczema, have asthma. On the other hand, only 0.5% without a sibling with severe eczema have asthma. You want to test the difference of 9.5% for significance. Which of the following tests would you use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fisher’s exact test

      Explanation:

      To quantify differences between percentages you can use Fisher’s exact test.Odds ratios, relative risks and number needed to treat are ways of quantifying differences between percentages in two groups, however are not in themselves significance tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 65 - A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcaemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand.What is the treatment of choice in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:Short statureStocky habitusObesityDevelopmental delayRound faceDental hypoplasiaBrachymetacarpalsBrachymetatarsalsSoft tissue calcification/ossificationThe goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 66 - A 5-year-old girl was admitted for fever, anaemia, thrombocytopenia and signs of pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl was admitted for fever, anaemia, thrombocytopenia and signs of pulmonary infection. She now presents a few days later with signs of meningism. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a cancer of the lymphoid line of blood cells characterized by the development of large numbers of immature lymphocytes. Symptoms may include feeling tired, frequent infections with fever as well as anaemia with thrombocytopenia. As an acute leukaemia, ALL progresses rapidly and is typically fatal within weeks or months if left untreated. The patient’s age also favours the diagnosis of ALL as it occurs most commonly in children, particularly those between the ages of two and five.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 67 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the ER by his friends. He fell off his quad bike while riding it at a high speed. He complains of neck pain and paraesthesia in his limbs. On examination, there are multiple bleeding contusions on the body. There is a handlebar bruise on his chest. And oxygen saturations are low, but heart rate is normal. Which of the following is the most likely causing his shock?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurogenic

      Explanation:

      Neurogenic shock is a devastating consequence of spinal cord injury (SCI), also known as vasogenic shock. Injury to the spinal cord results in sudden loss of sympathetic tone, which leads to the autonomic instability that is manifested in hypotension, bradyarrhythmia, and temperature dysregulation. Spinal cord injury is not to be confused with spinal shock, which is a reversible reduction in sensory and motor function following spinal cord injury. Neurogenic shock is associated with cervical and high thoracic spine injury. Early identification and aggressive management are vital in neurogenic shock to prevent secondary spinal injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 68 - A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born baby develops vomiting 9 hours after birth. He has tolerated two prior feeds. His mother tells you that the mid-wives were concerned that there was lots of fluid around the baby in the uterus. What is the most likely genetic disorder associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      The baby has duodenal atresia.Presenting symptoms and signs are results of high intestinal obstruction. Duodenal atresia is typically characterized by the onset of vomiting within hours of birth. While vomitus is most often bilious, it may be nonbilious because 15% of defects occur proximal to the ampulla of Vater. Occasionally, infants with duodenal stenosis escape detection of an abnormality and proceed into childhood or, rarely, into adulthood before a partial obstruction is noted. Nevertheless, one should assume any child with bilious vomiting has a proximal GI obstruction until proven otherwise, and further workup should be begun expeditiously.congenital duodenal atresia is one of the more common intestinal anomalies treated by paediatric surgeons, occurring 1 in 2500-5000 live births. In 25-40% of cases, the anomaly is encountered in an infant with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 69 - A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presented with fever, headache and photophobia. Cerebrospinal fluid examination reveals:Opening pressure 260 mm H20 (50-180)Total protein 0.8 g/l (0.15-0.45)Glucose 4.2 mmol/l (3.3-4.4)White cell count 60 per ml (<5)Lymphocytes 90%Plasma glucose 6.4 mmol/l (3.0-6.0)Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose together with lymphocytosis, an increased opening pressure and raised CSF protein are typical of a viral meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 70 - A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination, his leg is externally rotated and is 2cm shorter. His ability to flex, abduct and medially rotate his leg is limited and when he flexes his hip, external rotation is increased. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is typical of a slipped femoral epiphysis, which refers to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), resulting in slippage of the overlying end of the femur. It is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. The range of motion in the hip is restricted in internal (medial) rotation, abduction, and flexion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 71 - A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after suffering a blow to the face. He is applying pressure on his nose with a towel which is saturated with blood. Direct compression results in cessation of bleeding. On examination, a pink/blue mass can be seen occupying the right nostril. The rest of the ENT examination is not significant. The patient reports a blocked nose for the past few weeks. The boy is most likely suffering from which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juvenile Angiofibroma

      Explanation:

      Juvenile angiofibroma (JA) is a rare benign vascular lesion of the skull base that affects young adolescent males. The management of JA is challenged by the abundant vascular blood supply of the lesion, along with the complex anatomy of the skull base and the young age of the affected population. JA typically affects the male population, most commonly between 9 and 19 years of age. The most frequent symptoms are nasal obstruction and epistaxis. Nasal obstruction may be bilateral despite the unilaterality of the lesion, due to nasopharyngeal extension as well as deviation of the nasal septum by the expansile lesion. Epistaxis is usually brisk and intermittent. Purulent nasal discharge and facial pain can be due to sinus drainage pathway obstruction, and conductive hearing loss indicates obstruction of the eustachian tube.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 72 - Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Explanation:

      The most common physiological factors that influence renin secretion include renal perfusion pressure, renal sympathetic nerve activity, and tubular sodium chloride load.The perfusion pressure in the renal artery is the most profound parameter to influence renin secretion| when the renal perfusion pressure falls (i.e. hypovolaemia), renin secretion rises, and vice versa.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 73 - Children with eczema herpeticum exhibit which of the following features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Children with eczema herpeticum exhibit which of the following features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atopic children have reduced immunity to the herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      Eczema herpeticum is a form of Kaposi varicelliform eruption, characterized by extensive vesicular skin eruptions that arise from a pre-existing skin condition, usually atopic dermatitis. The most common pathogen is the herpes simplex virus type 1, which has a higher propensity of attacking the epidermis already damaged by atopic dermatitis. The incubation period of the illness is 5-14 days. The eruption is initially small, monomorphic, dome-shaped papulovesicles that rupture to form tiny punched-out ulcers. It is diagnosed by taking viral swabs for culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 74 - Which of the following terms denote the property demonstrated by conditions where there...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following terms denote the property demonstrated by conditions where there are a variety of genetic defects, all leading to the same phenotypical manifestations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heterogeneity

      Explanation:

      The property described in the question is heterogeneity.Heterogeneity is when a single phenotype or genetic disorder can be caused by multiple numbers of genetic mutations.Other options:- Pleiotropy occurs when a single gene influences multiple phenotypic traits. The underlying mechanism is that the gene codes for a product that is used by various cells. A classic example of pleiotropy is the human disease PKU (phenylketonuria).- The penetrance of a disease-causing mutation is the proportion of individuals with the mutation who exhibit clinical symptoms. For example, the gene responsible for a particular autosomal dominant disorder has 70% penetrance, then 70% of those with the mutation will develop the disease, while 30% will not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 75 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding coarctation of the aorta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can be accompanied by a bicuspid aortic valve

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the aorta is one of the serious forms of congenital heart diseases characterized by a congenitally narrowed down proximal thoracic aorta. This narrowing is usually located distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery. Coarctation can occur in isolation but can accompany other cardiac lesions, including a bicuspid aortic valve. When the coarctation is located just above the left subclavian artery, raised blood pressure can be noted in the right arm. The most common type of murmur found in coarctation of the aorta is a diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation due to the presence of a bicuspid aortic valve. Exercise augmented cardiac output is only affected in cases where coarctation of the aorta leads to heart failure. Hypertension persists even after the surgical repair and needs to be closely monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 76 - A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right leg....

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child suffers from pain located in his right leg. He is otherwise well with no fever or history of trauma. Clinical examination reveals limited limb motion due to the pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perthes’ disease

      Explanation:

      Perthes’ disease is a disease of the hip in children. It presents with pain that is typically located in the groin area. The pain is often present only during physical activity. Most children seek medical attention because of limping.

      Osgood–Schlatter disease is pain caused by inflammation of the patella tendon at the tibial insertion.

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis occurs classically in adolescence (M:F = 3:2)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 77 - A 7-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother. She complains that the child is having episodes of non-bilious vomiting for the past 10 days. She observed that the episodes typically occur directly after feeding and notes that the volume brought up varies, but that her baby does seem to be very hungry and has not gained much weight. What is the most probable diagnosis for this infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient would be congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis.Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (CHPS):Pyloric stenosis should be ruled out in any baby who presents with a long-term history of vomiting and failure to thrive. Infants typically present with projectile, non-bilious vomiting and are said to be hungry and wanting to feed despite poor weight gain. A blood gas would be helpful in this instance, although the diagnosis can be made more accurately by observing the stenosis during ultrasound. Many infants have symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease, although only a small minority are unable to gain weight adequately. A UTI in infants can present with non-specific symptoms, but they might have a fever and can show poor feeding. Malrotation will present with bilious vomiting.The definitive surgical management is the Ramsteadt’s pyloromyotomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 78 - A 2 year old boy is brought by his mother to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old boy is brought by his mother to the emergency department with colicky pain. The boy has experienced such episodes of pain in the past, which radiates from his loin to the groin. After clinical examination and investigations, a 7mm stone has been found in his ureter. What is the single most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conservative treatment

      Explanation:

      Renal stones < 5mm generally pass spontaneously with adequate fluid intake. Stones 5mm-10mm with pain not resolving, require medical expulsive therapy with Nifedipine or Tamsulosin. For stones larger than 10mm, ESWL or Ureteroscopy is indicated. For stones as big as 2cm, percutaneous nephrolithotomy should be applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 79 - A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome to the outpatient clinic as she is concerned about his vision. Which one of the following eye problems is least associated with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Down syndrome are at increased risk for a variety of eye and vision disorders. Fortunately, many of these eye problems can be treated, especially if discovered at an early age. The quality of life can be further enhanced by the proper assessment and correction of eye problems. The most common eye findings include:- Refractive errors – Children with Down syndrome are more likely to need glasses than are other children. This may be due to myopia (near-sightedness), hyperopia (far-sightedness), and/or astigmatism. Refractive error may develop early in life or later on.- Strabismus – Between 20% and 60% of individuals with Down syndrome have eyes that are misaligned (strabismus). Esotropia (eyes that drift in) is most common while exotropia(eyes that drift out) occurs less frequently. Strabismus may be treated with glasses, patching and/or eye muscle surgery.- Keratoconus – A cone shaped distortion of the cornea (front layer of the eye), occurs in up to 30% of those with Down syndrome. Keratoconus is usually diagnosed around puberty and should be monitored regularly. Blurred vision, corneal thinning, or corneal haze may result from keratoconus. Keratoconus is worsened by eye rubbing| therefore, eye rubbing should be discouraged.- Cataracts – There is an increased incidence of congenital cataracts (present at birth) as well as acquired cataracts (develop later). Cataracts may progress slowly and should be monitored regularly, with surgical treatment performed when appropriate.- Glaucoma- There is an increased risk of infantile glaucoma (elevated pressure within the eye).- Blepharitis – Inflammation of the eyelids with redness at the edge of the lids and crusting around the lashes may occur and cause a feeling of dryness or burning. Treatment is with eyelid hygiene and topical antibiotics.- Tearing – Excessive tears or watering of the eyes may occur because the drainage channels are blocked or narrow (nasolacrimal duct obstruction). This may require surgical intervention.- Nystagmus – This is an involuntary “back-and-forth” movement or shaking of the eyes. It can affect vision to a mild or severe degree.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 80 - What is the most common position of the appendix? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common position of the appendix?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retrocecal

      Explanation:

      The most common position of the appendix is the retrocecal position.Note: If a retrocecal appendix is difficult to remove, then mobilisation of the right colon significantly improves access.Other options:The various positions of the appendix are:- Retrocecal (74%)- Pelvic (21%)- Postileal- Subcaecal- Paracaecal- Preileal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 81 - Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially blinding disease if not managed adequately....

    Incorrect

    • Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) is a potentially blinding disease if not managed adequately. Which of the following is a complication of ROP in an infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinopathy of prematurity affects infants born early, and is due to the abnormal growth of retinal vasculature as opposed to vascular occlusion often see in adults. Though most babies with ROP can see normally, the most significant complication of ROP Is retinal detachment which can lead to blindness. Other structures in the eye such as the optic nerve or the fovea however, are not affected. Children may develop nystagmus as a result of poor sight in the affected eye(s).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 82 - A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal...

    Incorrect

    • A young female who carries the abnormal RET oncogene has her recurrent laryngeal nerve accidentally divided during a thyroidectomy. Which clinical features are likely to result from this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The larynx is anaesthetised inferior to the vocal cord on the affected side

      Explanation:

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) innervates all of the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle, which is innervated by the superior laryngeal nerve (SLN).Patients with unilateral vocal fold paralysis present with postoperative hoarseness or breathiness. The presentation is often subacute. At first, the vocal fold usually remains in the paramedian position, creating a fairly normal voice. Definite vocal changes may not manifest for days to weeks. The paralyzed vocal fold atrophies, causing the voice to worsen. Other potential sequelae of unilateral vocal-fold paralysis are dysphagia and aspiration.Bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may occur after total thyroidectomy, and it usually manifests immediately after extubation. Both vocal folds remain in the paramedian position, causing partial airway obstruction. Patients with bilateral vocal-fold paralysis may present with biphasic stridor, respiratory distress, or both. On occasion, the airway is sufficient in the immediate postoperative period despite the paralyzed vocal folds. At follow-up, such patients may present with dyspnoea or stridor with exertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 83 - A 17-year-old presents to the physician with 2-week history of fever, chest pan,...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old presents to the physician with 2-week history of fever, chest pan, generalized stiffness, swollen wrists and fingers and lower extremity oedema bilaterally. There is a facial rash over her cheeks and palms. She complains that while combing her hair, she has started to notice hair loss. Based on these clinical findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low serum complement levels

      Explanation:

      Complement activation plays a key role in the pathophysiology of SLE and it is recommended to continue monitoring serum levels of C3 and C4 to assess for disease activity. However, it is important to note that decreased serum complement is not consistently associated with disease flares.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 84 - What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common identified trigger of anaphylaxis in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      In children, food-induced anaphylaxis is the most common trigger and accounts for 37 %–85 % of cases, whereas insect bites/stings account for 5 %–13 % and medications account for 5 %–12 % Despite differences between studies, food allergy is clearly the most common cause of anaphylaxis in children

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 85 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with right knee pain. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with right knee pain. On examination, her eyes were red. But she denied any ocular or visual discomfort.Which of the following should be suspected in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      When a child with joint problems presents with red-eye, the likelihood of anterior uveitis must be excluded by involving an ophthalmologist in the assessment. This is because uveitis is the most common extra-articular manifestation of juvenile idiopathic arthritis.Other options:- Cataract: It does not give rise to a red-eye, but leukocoria. Often this would have been picked up at an earlier age. – A patient with a corneal foreign body almost would almost invariably give a suspicious history (onset while playing outdoors etc.), as well as have marked symptoms of ocular discomfort (red, watery and painful eyes). – A child with periorbital cellulitis often presents acutely unwell and distressed. – A child with an uncorrected refractive error often complains of being unable to see in class and does not normally present with ocular redness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 86 - Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is common

      Explanation:

      Myelomeningocele is the most common type of open neural tube defect and a serious central nervous system disorder associated with significant morbidity. It is also called open spina bifida since the dura, and arachnoid matter herniates through the defect in the vertebral column. The commonest association is the decreased folate levels during early pregnancy. The alpha-fetoprotein levels are raised in the amniotic fluid. CSF leak is a common presentation with associated macrocephaly and hydrocephaly. Prenatal surgical repair is linked to a better prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 87 - Which of the following is a risk factor for neonatal death and stillbirth?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a risk factor for neonatal death and stillbirth?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parental unemployment

      Explanation:

      Risk factors for neonatal death and stillbirth (weak predictive value):- African American race- Advanced maternal age- History of fetal demise- Maternal infertility- History of small for gestational age infant- Small for gestational age infant- Obesity- Paternal age- Poverty and poor quality of careSo in this case the risk factor is the parental unemployment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 88 - A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the right knee joint. The pain occurs when climbing the stairs, but is not present when walking on flat ground. Clinically there is pain over the medial aspect of the proximal tibia, and the McMurray test is negative.What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pes Anserinus Bursitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms would be pes anserine bursitis.Translated, pes anserinus means goose feet. It is the term used to describe the unified bursa enclosing the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis and semitendinous muscles inserting into the anteromedial proximal tibia.Pes anserine bursitis is common in people doing sports due to overuse injuries. The main sign is of pain in the medial part of the proximal tibia. As the McMurray test is negative, medial meniscal injury is excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 89 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
      Basophils are not present.
      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 90 - A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl has ingested a pesticide in a suicide attempt. She presented with bronchoconstriction, excessive salivation, and diarrhoea. On examination, a drop in heart rate and blood pressure was noted.What is the mechanism by which the substance causes these effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholine metabolism

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of excessive salivation and diarrhoea, along with hypotension, bradycardia, and bronchoconstriction, indicates excess parasympathetic nervous system activity. The patient is showing features of acetylcholine toxicity. Pesticides typically contain organophosphates that are potent inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase. This enzyme is responsible for the metabolism of acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter used in the neuromuscular junction, as well as at select points in the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic acetylcholine receptors can be nicotinic (more sensitive to nicotine) or muscarinic (more sensitive to muscarine). The most relevant receptors in this scenario are the muscarinic receptors as the majority are located in the parasympathetic nervous system smooth muscle, exocrine glands, and cardiac conduction system.Other options:- Accordingly, to cause the symptoms described, there must be an abundance of acetylcholine which stimulates the muscarinic receptors to enhance the parasympathetic effects. Therefore the reduction in the formation of acetylcholine option must be incorrect as this would produce the opposite effect. – Noradrenaline is the primary neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system, and both answer options relating to noradrenaline would increase the neurotransmitter and potentiate the sympathetic nervous system effects, making them incorrect.Features can predict the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD):- Salivation- Lacrimation- Urination- Defecation/diarrhoeaCardiovascular symptoms include hypotension and bradycardia. The patient can show associated small pupils and muscle fasciculationManagement:- Atropine- The role of pralidoxime is still unclear – meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 91 - A 13-year-old girl presents to the hospital with a body mass index (BMI)...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents to the hospital with a body mass index (BMI) of 13. On examination, she was found to have cold peripheries. Her vitals were:Pulse rate: 130 bpmTemperature: 37°CCapillary blood glucose: 1.8 mmol/LAfter drawing blood for a full blood panel, you immediately give a bolus of glucose at a dose of 2 ml/kg. Her sugar levels improve to 4 mmol/L.What is the next step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal saline fluid bolus| send blood culture, lactate and C-reactive protein

      Explanation:

      The next step in the management of this patient is starting a normal saline fluid bolus, following which we should send samples for blood culture, lactate and C-reactive protein. The patient is probably a case of anorexia nervosa (AN).Note:Children with AN are at higher risk of developing infections, and this needs to be considered in this case. Patients with AN may not respond in the usual fashion to sepsis as they may not mount a fever in response to infection. Hypoglycaemia (especially when severe or persistent despite correction) should raise the alarm for an infection as should tachycardia and cool peripheries. Children with severe AN are more likely to be bradycardic. Therefore, a tachycardia should cause the clinician to consider that another process is going on.Other options:- Correcting electrolyte abnormalities is, of course, very important. However, while these are awaited, one needs to consider that this patient is septic and managed accordingly. Children with anorexia nervosa (AN) may have a whole host of electrolyte abnormalities, some of which can be treated with oral or nutritional supplementation although sometimes intravenous correction is required. Electrolytes need to be checked frequently during admission because of the risk of refeeding syndrome, and dietetic input is required to advise on appropriate starting intake.- While maintenance fluids like dextrose are likely to be needed in this case, consideration needs to be given to the underlying cause of the hypoglycaemia. As the sugar has come up following a glucose bolus, a 10% dextrose infusion would be excessive.- An ECG should form a part of any assessment of a child with AN. In this case, it would not be the first thing| however, as part of the acute management of this child, cardiac monitoring should be commenced. One would usually expect a child with AN to be bradycardic so a tachycardia should raise suspicion that another process is going on.- Dietary input will be vital for this child’s ongoing management. However, their acute issues take precedence in this case. Nevertheless, a dietician should be informed and involved from an early stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
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  • Question 92 - A 9 year old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started...

    Incorrect

    • A 9 year old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started two days ago with profound diarrhoea and emesis. Blood exams show the following: Sodium=148mmol/l, Potassium=2.2mmol/l, Urea=20mmol/l, Glucose=4.3mmol/l. What would be the best management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: V normal saline and potassium supplement

      Explanation:

      The boy needs re-hydration and hydro-electrolytic re-balancing due to fluid losses from the gastroenteritis and subsequent dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 93 - An 18 year old, previously well boy was admitted following a generalized tonic-clonic...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old, previously well boy was admitted following a generalized tonic-clonic convulsion for 5 minutes with urinary incontinence and eye rolling. On examination, he was drowsy and had bilateral up going plantar reflexes. A short while ago he had been playing rugby and had taken a hit to the head. He was apparently normal for a few minutes before fitting. His blood sugar level was normal. Which of the following is the most probable reason for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-traumatic seizure

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of a post-traumatic seizure which frequently occurs after moderate or severe traumatic brain injury. Although upgoing plantars can be identified in a post-ictal status, an intracranial bleed has to be excluded. A single seizure cannot be considered epilepsy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 94 - During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      The second pharyngeal arch or hyoid arch, is the second of six pharyngeal arches that develops in fetal life during the fourth week of development and assists in forming the side and front of the neck. Derivatives:
      Skeletal – From the cartilage of the second arch arises:
      Stapes,
      Temporal styloid process,
      Stylohyoid ligament, and
      Lesser cornu of the hyoid bone.
      Muscles:
      Muscles of face
      Occipitofrontalis muscle
      Platysma
      Stylohyoid muscle
      Posterior belly of Digastric
      Stapedius muscle
      Auricular muscles
      Nerve supply: Facial nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 95 - Which of the following conditions exhibits Koebner’s phenomenon? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions exhibits Koebner’s phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Koebner’s phenomenon describes skin lesions that occur on damaged skin, usually in a linear fashion at the site of injury. Conditions which exhibit true Koebnerisation include psoriasis, lichen planus, lichen sclerosis, vitiligo, Kaposi sarcoma and SLE. Conditions such as erythema nodosum or multiforme, or Lyme disease and Impetigo do not exhibit Koebner’s phenomenon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 96 - Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of eating disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of eating disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Evidence-based self-help programme is first line in patients with bulimia

      Explanation:

      Most individuals with eating disorders do not receive treatment. The treatment gap may involve individuals’ attitudes about accessing various types of treatment, as well as perceived barriers to seeking treatment. Therapies to be considered for the psychological treatment of anorexia nervosa include cognitive analytic therapy (CAT), cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT), interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), focal psychodynamic therapy and family interventions focused explicitly on eating disorders.The first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. Antidepressants may be helpful for patients with substantial concurrent symptoms of depression, anxiety, obsessions, or certain impulse disorder symptoms. They may be particularly good for patients who have not benefited from or had suboptimal response to suitable psychosocial therapy or who have a chronic, difficult course in combination with other treatments.Acute pharmacologic treatment of anorexia nervosa is rarely required. However, vitamin supplementation with calcium should be started in patients, and although oestrogen has no established effect on bone density in patients with anorexia nervosa, oestrogen replacement (i.e., oral contraceptives) has been recommended for the treatment of osteopenia. Note: Oestrogen should not be used in children (due to premature fusion of the bones).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
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  • Question 97 - A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy hit his head on a pole on the school playground. His friends noted that he lost consciousness for a few seconds. The school nurse sent him to the Emergency Department as he had a small nasal bleed that stopped spontaneously. In the intervening two hours, he has noticed a watery discharge from his nose. On examination, there is considerable bruising on his nose and forehead, he was complaining of a headache. Which is the most appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basilar skull fracture

      Explanation:

      Orbital bone fracture: The child has sustained a head injury and subsequently describes a CSF rhinorrhoea (indicating a cerebro-spinal fluid leak). CSF rhinorrhoea can occur in skull or nasal bone fractures. Given the symptoms of loss of consciousness and headache, this child is more at risk of having suffered a skull fracture requiring emergency CT head investigation and specialist neurosurgical management. An ethmoid bone fracture may also present this way. A skull x ray would help to determine an air fluid level and indeed allow some visualisation of the nasal bones, though in children the nasal bones do not visualise well due to lack of fusion. Either way this child would need assessment in the nearest Emergency Department and the school would be expected to follow a ‘head injury’ protocol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 98 - As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been...

    Incorrect

    • As the junior doctor on call in the neonatal unit, you have been informed of a case of ambiguous genitalia in which the midwife was unable to decide the gender at birth. What is the most appropriate course of action in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inform the parents that a number of investigations will need to be performed and that they will need to wait before a sex is assigned

      Explanation:

      Cases of neonatal infant ambiguous genitalia can be a great source of psychological stress for families. One of the most important next steps in managing the case is reassuring the parents that the best care will be given to the baby and then informing them about the investigations that will need to be performed before a sex can be assigned. The sex should not be guessed just by examination nor assigned by karyotyping. Thorough investigations must be completed with the help of endocrinologists for the best outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 99 - A 5 year old boy visited Ghana with his family and arrived back...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old boy visited Ghana with his family and arrived back home 6 weeks ago. 2 days ago he developed neck stiffness, a fever, and vomiting. He did not present with a rash and was treated with malaria prophylaxis. Choose the correct diagnosis from the list of options.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral malaria

      Explanation:

      Due to malaria’s incubation period being between 7 and 30 days, malaria prophylaxis cannot provide a patient with confirmed protection. Prophylaxis treatment also often fails. The symptoms such as neck stiffness, fever, and vomiting are also consistent with the cerebral malaria diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 100 - What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable diagnosis for an infant presenting with prolonged neonatal jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is a rare condition that causes obstructive jaundice. Without surgical treatment, e.g. Roux-en-Y, Kasai procedure or liver transplantation, death is likely by 2 years of age. The aetiology of biliary atresia is unknown. Theories suggest a multitude of etiological and causative factors that are both genetic and acquired.The other conditions do not cause a conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 101 - Which of the following statements is correct regarding erythema nodosum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct regarding erythema nodosum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The typical eruption is symmetrical, tender, and with bruise like lesions to the shins, ankles, and knees

      Explanation:

      Erythema nodosum is the most common type of inflammation of the subcutaneous fat tissue, referred to as panniculitis. Erythema nodosum appears as painful, erythematous round lumps, usually symmetrically on the anterior aspect of lower extremities. These lesions are self-limiting and tend to resolve within 2-8 weeks without undergoing necrosis or ulceration. There are various causes of erythema nodosum, but the most important among children is the streptococcal throat infection. Other causes include autoimmune conditions like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, mycobacterial infection (TB), drugs like penicillin and sulphonamides, and malignancies like some leukemias and lymphomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 102 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with fever, cough, sore throat...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with fever, cough, sore throat and bleeding gums. He has also noticed a rash on his legs. The coryzal symptoms started 3 weeks ago before which he was fit and well. He is currently not taking any medication and denies smoking, alcohol and using other illicit drugs. Examination reveals a pale child with bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages, erythematous throat and some petechiae on his legs. there are no sign of lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly. investigations are as follows: Hb8.9 g/dlMCV: 110 flWBC: 2 x 109/lNeutrophils: 0.3 x 109/lLymphocytes:1.5 x 109/lPLT: 13 x 109/lReticulocytes: 30 x 109/l (normal range 20-100 x 109/l)Coagulation screen: normal. Bone marrow: hypoplastic. A urine dipstick reveals trace of blood in the urine. What is the patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Aplastic anaemia causes a deficiency of all blood cell types: red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It is more frequent in people in their teens and twenties, but is also common among the elderly. It can be caused by heredity, immune disease, or exposure to chemicals, drugs, or radiation. However, in about one-half of cases, the cause is unknown.The definitive diagnosis is by bone marrow biopsy| normal bone marrow has 30–70% blood stem cells, but in aplastic anaemia, these cells are mostly gone and replaced by fat.First-line treatment for aplastic anaemia consists of immunosuppressive drugs, typically either anti-lymphocyte globulin or anti-thymocyte globulin, combined with corticosteroids, chemotherapy and ciclosporin. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is also used, especially for patients under 30 years of age with a related matched marrow donor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 103 - Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can be expected from a 12-month-old child assuming he has achieved normal developmental miles stones so far?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pick up a raisin between forefinger and thumb

      Explanation:

      In a child with an age of 12 months – pincer grasp should be well developed. It is essential to have a good grasp of important milestones. Most 12-month-old children will be mobile, by standing holding onto a support, lifting one foot and moving it sideways (‘cruising’ around the furniture). They will demonstrate a neat pincer grasp, e.g. picking up a raisin or piece of paper between the tip of the index finger and the thumb. Words (or meaningful word-like utterances) are produced, but words are not usually chosen and put together deliberately by a child until after the second birthday (typically around the age of 30 months). Word combinations used earlier than this are likely to be an echo of a learnt phrase which may be understood by the child to be one single word even though they are a combination of more than one word (e.g. daddy, home). Building a tower of three cubes and following a one-step command such as ‘take off your socks’, is expected at 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 104 - A 20-year-old female was brought to the emergency department. Her presentation was highly...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female was brought to the emergency department. Her presentation was highly suggestive of meningitis. Direct ophthalmoscopy revealed no signs of papilledema. Thus, she was planned for a lumbar puncture. What is the structure first encountered while inserting the needle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraspinous ligament

      Explanation:

      During lumbar puncture, the first structures encountered by the needle are skin and subcutaneous tissue. But, since they are not provided in the options, the most superficial structure after them is the supraspinous ligament.Lumbar puncture is a procedure performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid. The procedure is best performed at the level of L3/L4 or L4/5 interspace. During the procedure, the needle pierces the following structures in order from superficial to deep: Skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, the epidural space containing the internal vertebral venous plexus, dura, and arachnoid, finally entering the subarachnoid space. The supraspinous ligament connects the tips of spinous processes and the interspinous ligaments between adjacent borders of spinous processes.As the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, it causes a give. A second give is felt when the needle penetrates the dura mater and enters the subarachnoid space. At this point, clear CSF flows through the needle and can be collected for diagnostic purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 105 - A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy sustains a tibial fracture after trampolining. Following this, he complains of anaesthesia of the web spaces between his first and second toes. Injury to which of the following nerves leads to this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve lies in the anterior muscular compartment of the lower leg and can be compromised by compartment syndrome affecting this area. It provides cutaneous sensation to the first web space. The superficial peroneal nerve provides more lateral cutaneous innervation.Origin: It originates from the common peroneal nerve, at the lateral aspect of the fibula, deep to peroneus longus. Root values of common peroneal nerve: L4, L5, S1, and S2.Course and relation: It pierces the anterior intermuscular septum to enter the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Following which, it passes anteriorly down to the ankle joint, midway between the two malleoli. It terminates in the dorsum of the foot.Throughout the course it innervates:- Tibialis anterior- Extensor hallucis longus- Extensor digitorum longus- Peroneus tertius- Extensor digitorum brevisAt its termination, it innervates the skin in the web space between the first and second toes.Actions performed by the muscles supplied by the nerve:- Dorsiflexion of ankle joint- Extension of all toes- Inversion of the foot

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 106 - A new-born baby has an abdominal wall defect diagnosed antenatally. When admitted to...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born baby has an abdominal wall defect diagnosed antenatally. When admitted to the neonatal unit, there is a sac found covering a 3cm defect with what appears to be intestine| no liver is visible. The baby has no dysmorphic features other than a large tongue. What is the immediate danger with this baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beckwith-Wiedermann syndrome, risk of hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome (BWS) was first characterized by Patients having abdominal wall defects, macrosomia, macroglossia, and enlarged adrenal glands. Since then, the clinical presentation has expanded to recognize hemihypertrophy/lateralized overgrowth, hyperinsulinism, omphalocele, and organomegaly as classic features of BWS.About 50% of children with BWS have hypoglycaemia and therefore patients with diagnosed BWS should be evaluated for hypoglycaemia. Hypoglycaemia in most BWS new-borns generally resolves within the first few days of life. However, in about 5% of patients that have hyperinsulinism, the severe prolonged hypoglycaemia requires escalated therapy ranging for medication (diazoxide) to partial pancreatectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 107 - A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by his parents following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by his parents following a minor fall. He was initially unable to bear weight on his legs but after ibuprofen he can walk and run with a minor limp. X-ray of the leg shows no abnormality. However, ten days later a repeat x-ray is done due to persistent limp and it reveals a spiral fracture. How do you explain this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delayed periosteal reaction

      Explanation:

      A periosteal reaction can result from a large number of causes, including injury and chronic irritation due to a medical condition such as hypertrophic osteopathy, bone healing in response to fracture, chronic stress injuries, subperiosteal hematomas, osteomyelitis, and cancer of the bone. This history is consistent with a toddler’s fracture. Here a minor, usually twisting, injury results in a spiral fracture of the tibia. An initial X-ray may appear normal as the periosteum holds the bone together preventing displacement. Ten days later a repeat X-ray will show callous formation and confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 108 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 109 - In Psoriasis, the following is true with regards to topical treatment: ...

    Incorrect

    • In Psoriasis, the following is true with regards to topical treatment:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical corticosteroid associated side effects include striae, atrophy of the skin, telangiectasia, acneiform rash, and easy bruising

      Explanation:

      Topical treatments are useful in the treatment of mild Psoriasis, or as adjuvant therapy in ultraviolet and systematic treatments. These treatments include moisturisers, dithranol, coal tar, salicylic acid, topical immunomodulators such as calcineurin, topical retinoids, Vitamin D analogues and topical steroids. Topical steroids are known to have a number of side effects such as striae, atrophy of the skin, telangiectasia, acneiform rash, and easy bruising. Localised pustular psoriasis is also associated with topical steroids in higher doses. Use of more than 500 g of hydrocortisone or 50 g clobetasol propionate have been shown to suppress adrenal function. Calcitriol, a vitamin D analogue, is only available as an ointment and does not stain clothes and skin the way dithranol and coal tar are known to.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 110 - An adolescent girl has missed her period by six days, which is unusual...

    Incorrect

    • An adolescent girl has missed her period by six days, which is unusual given her regular 28-day cycle. Suspicious, she buys a urine pregnancy test kit and tests positive.The release of which of the following substances is stimulated by the sperm at the time of fertilization in order to prevent polyspermy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      Fertilization occurs when the sperm reaches an egg released during ovulation. At the time of fertilization, the interaction of sperm with the zona pellucida stimulates the release of calcium. This process initiates a corona reaction that prevents polyspermy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with recurrent episodes of diarrhoea and loose stools. He looks shorter than his age and does not seem to have undergone a growth spurt. After a series of investigations, he is diagnosed with Crohn's disease. Which of the following treatment strategies should initially be employed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elemental diet for 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      The elemental diet is a medically supervised, sole nutrition dietary management given to individuals with moderate to severe impaired gastrointestinal function for 14-21 days.The diet consists of macronutrients broken down into their elemental form requiring little to no digestive functionality allowing time for the gut to rest. Elemental formulations are believed to be entirely absorbed within the first few feet of small intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 112 - Which is a sign of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is a sign of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splinter haemorrhages

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is defined as an infection of the endocardial surface of the heart.Fever, possibly low-grade and intermittent, is present in 90% of patients with IE. Heart murmurs are heard in approximately 85% of patients.One or more classic signs of IE are found in as many as 50% of patients. They include the following:- Petechiae: Common, but nonspecific, finding- Subungual (splinter) haemorrhages: Dark-red, linear lesions in the nail beds -Osler nodes: Tender subcutaneous nodules usually found on the distal pads of the digits- Janeway lesions: Nontender maculae on the palms and soles- Roth spots: Retinal haemorrhages with small, clear centres| rareSigns of neurologic disease, which occur in as many as 40% of patients, include the following:- Embolic stroke with focal neurologic deficits: The most common neurologic sign- Intracerebral haemorrhage- Multiple microabscessesOther signs of IE include the following:- Splenomegaly- Stiff neck- Delirium- Paralysis, hemiparesis, aphasia- Conjunctival haemorrhage- Pallor- Gallops- Rales- Cardiac arrhythmia- Pericardial rub- Pleural friction rub

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 113 - A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of...

    Incorrect

    • A strict gluten-free diet is a dietary treatment for coeliac disease.Which one of the following statements concerning the gluten-free diet is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buckwheat is suitable in a gluten-free diet

      Explanation:

      Buckwheat is not wheat. It’s a seed rather than a grain, which means it’s gluten-free and safe for people with celiac disease and non-celiac gluten sensitivity. It is an excellent source of fibre and nutrients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
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  • Question 114 - A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day old boy is diagnosed with a patent ductus arteriosus. He has a cyanotic heart disease. Which of the following would be the best course of action in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) administration

      Explanation:

      Administration of IV prostaglandin/PGE1 (e.g., alprostadil) is indicated in ductal-dependent CHDs until surgery can be performedMechanism: prostaglandin prevents the ductus arteriosus from closing → creates intentional shunt to allow mixing of deoxygenated with oxygenated blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 115 - A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old uncontrolled asthmatic is started on a steroid inhaler. Which of the following is the most common adverse effect he might complain about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysphonia

      Explanation:

      Usage of inhaled corticosteroids are less associated with systemic adverse effects. However they are associated with local complications including dental caries and most commonly dysphonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 116 - Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you...

    Incorrect

    • Parents of a new-born are worried about cot death. What advice will you give?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Child should sleep on the back with legs towards the end of the cot

      Explanation:

      Cot death also know as SIDS or Sudden Infant Death syndrome. Putting a baby to sleep on his back has been shown to reduce the risk of SIDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 117 - A 15-year-old is admitted in the emergency department following a collapse. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old is admitted in the emergency department following a collapse. He has a known history of asthma and type 1 diabetes.His arterial blood gas analysis reveals:pH: 7.05pO2: 8 kPapCO2: 8 kPaBase excess: -12 mmol/LHCO3-: 15 mmol/LWhich of the following interpretations is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      In this case scenario, the pH is too low to be fully explained by a respiratory acidosis. Usually, if there is a metabolic acidosis, the respiratory system will try to compensate by hyperventilation and reduced pCO2. In this case, however, the pCO2 is raised suggesting the presence of a respiratory component.Therefore, this boy has mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis, most probably due to severe exacerbation of this asthma, which led to diabetic ketoacidosis.Note:Normal values:pH: 7.35 – 7.45pO2: 10 – 14 kPapCO2: 4.5 – 6 kPaBase excess (BE): -2 – 2 mmol/LHCO3: 22 – 26 mmol/L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 118 - Achondroplasia is NOT associated with which of the following cranial abnormalities? ...

    Incorrect

    • Achondroplasia is NOT associated with which of the following cranial abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prominent maxilla

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia is one of the commonest forms of skeletal dysplasias that lead to dwarfism. Multiple skeletal deformities are associated with it but the common cranial abnormalities are macrocephaly, frontal bossing, depressed nasal bridge, narrowed foramen magnum, and the presence of communicating hydrocephalus. A prominent maxilla is not associated with achondroplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 119 - What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to suffer from, if he/she was born with incomplete fusion of the embryonic endocardial cushions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      The endocardial cushions in the heart are the mesenchymal tissue that make up the part of the atrioventricular valves, atrial septum and ventricular septum. An incomplete fusion of these mesenchymal cells can cause an atrioventricular septal defect. The terms endocardial cushion defect, atrioventricular septal defect and common atrioventricular canal defect can be used interchangeably with one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 120 - Which of the following conditions are most commonly associated with pruritus: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions are most commonly associated with pruritus:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Itchy skin conditions include:Allergy & anaphylaxisAthletes footAtopic dermatitisContact dermatitisDrug allergyErythema multiformeFolliculitisImpetigoInsect bites, stings, infestationsKawasaki diseaseLichen planusNummular eczemaPityriasis roseaPsoriasisScabiesTinea corporisToxic epidermal necrolysisUrticariaVaricellaViral exanthemNote: Miliaria rubra is itchy, miliaria profunda usually isn’t.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 121 - Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin used in Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases insulin production

      Explanation:

      Metformin works by improving the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin, which results in a reduction of circulating insulin levels. Metformin inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis and it also increases the glucose uptake by peripheral tissues and reduces fatty acid oxidation. Metformin has a positive effect on the endothelium and adipose tissue independent of its action on insulin and glucose levels.Metformin was the first insulin sensitising drug (ISD) to be used in PCOS to investigate the role of insulin resistance in the pathogenesis of the syndrome Several effects have been reported as related to metformin in PCOS patients including restoring ovulation, reducing weight, reducing circulating androgen levels, reducing the risk of miscarriage and reducing the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). Other studies have reported that the addition of metformin to the ovarian stimulation regime in invitro fertilization (IVF) improves the pregnancy outcome. These effects will be addressed individually.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 122 - A 16-year-old girl was brought to the ED by her gym instructor after...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl was brought to the ED by her gym instructor after developing severe shortness of breath and chest pain at the gym. She has a history of asthma since childhood. Her skin colour looked normal| however, breath sounds were found to be diminished on auscultation of the right lung. Which investigation will you order first?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chest x-ray

      Explanation:

      Asthma patients have an increased risk of developing complications like pneumonia or collapsed lung. A clear visualization of the lungs through a CXR will define the management necessary for this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 123 - Which of the following findings is associated with genu valgus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following findings is associated with genu valgus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Out-toeing

      Explanation:

      Gait variations in children are usually physiologically normal and only become a cause of concern when they persist or are associated with pain or other medical symptoms. Genu varus, also known as knock knees causes an outward rotation of the leg, leading the toes pointing outwards. The condition usually resolves by the age of 18 months. In comparison, in- toeing occurs with genu varus. Metatarsus adductus is also associated with an inward pointing of the toes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 124 - A term baby weighing 3.3kg is admitted to NICU at 3 hours old...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby weighing 3.3kg is admitted to NICU at 3 hours old with increased respiratory effort. The baby was delivered by spontaneous vaginal delivery following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Membranes ruptured 30 hours before delivery and there are no other risk factors for infection. On examination the baby is visibly tachypnoeic with intercostal recession and nasal flaring. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are present bilaterally. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds centrally and baby has cool hands and feet. Respiratory rate is 90/min, heart rate 170/min and oxygen saturations measured on the right hand are 85% in room air. IV access has been obtained and antibiotics are being given. Enough blood was obtained for culture, blood sugar and venous blood gas. Blood sugar is 2.6 mmol/l. Blood gas shows: pH 7.25, CO2 8.5 kPa, BE –8. Despite low flow nasal cannula oxygen baby’s saturations remain around 88%. What should be the next step in this baby’s management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prepare to intubate baby

      Explanation:

      Infants may require tracheal intubation if:- direct tracheal suctioning is required- effective bag-mask ventilation cannot be provided- chest compressions are performed- endotracheal (ET) administration of medications is desired- congenital diaphragmatic hernia is suspected, or – a prolonged need for assisted ventilation exists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 125 - A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and unresponsive. He was born by emergency caesarean section. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences. Although GM/IVH can occur in term infants, haemorrhage in this group of infants remains distinct from periventricular haemorrhage (PVH)/IVH of the preterm infant. Several acquired lesions of the central nervous system (CNS) specifically affect infants born prematurely and result in long-term disability, including GM/IVH, periventricular white matter injury (e.g., cystic periventricular leukomalacia [CPVL], periventricular haemorrhagic infarction [PVHI]), haemorrhage, and diffuse injury to the developing brain.The physical examination is usually negative in germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Occasionally, severe GM/IVH may present with nonspecific systemic findings suggestive of cardiovascular collapse.One subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with the following:- A sudden unexplained drop in haematocrit levels- Possible physical findings related to anaemia (e.g., pallor, poor perfusion) or haemorrhagic shockAnother subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with extreme signs, including the following:- A sudden and significant clinical deterioration associated with anaemia, metabolic acidosis, glucose instability, respiratory acidosis, apnoea, hypotonia, and stupor is present.Physical findings related to these signs include poor perfusion, pallor or an ashen colour, irregularities of respiratory pattern, signs of respiratory distress including retractions and tachypnoea, hypotonia, and altered mental status (e.g., decreased responsiveness, coma).Additional neurologic signs, such as fullness of the fontanelles, seizures, and posturing, may also be observed. Progression can be rapid and may result in shock and death.Extradural haemorrhage also known as an epidural hematoma, is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and outer layer of the dura, which is called the endosteal layer. They are usually associated with a history of head trauma and frequently associated skull fracture. The source of bleeding is usually arterial, most commonly from a torn middle meningeal artery.A subdural haemorrhage (or hematoma) is a type of bleeding that often occurs outside the brain as a result of a severe head injury. It takes place when blood vessels burst between the brain and the leather-like membrane that wraps around the brain (the dura mater). The pooling blood creates pressure on the surface of the brain, causing a variety of problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 126 - Which among the following is the part of the nephron where ADH (antidiuretic...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is the part of the nephron where ADH (antidiuretic hormone) primarily acts?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      ADH primarily acts on the collecting ducts.Other options:- The juxtaglomerular apparatus is the site of renin production.- The proximal tubule conducts isosmotic reabsorption of about 60% of sodium chloride and volume. Most of the glucose, amino acids, potassium and phosphate are absorbed here.- The loop of Henle is the site of 25% of sodium reabsorption. Active Chloride transport provides the basis for the counter current multiplier aiding urinary concentration.- The distal convoluted tubule is impermeable to water and acts via active sodium chloride absorption to dilute urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 127 - A 16-month-old infant presented to ER with multiple bruises on his right arm....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-month-old infant presented to ER with multiple bruises on his right arm. According to his mom, he has been unable to move it since yesterday and is crying more than usual. A relative attended the child while his mother was on a night shift. X-ray revealed a fracture of the right humerus, which was put in a cast. What is the next step in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit under care of paediatrician

      Explanation:

      Certain lesions present on x-ray are suggestive of child abuse including rib, humerus and skull fractures. It is the doctors responsibility to follow up on these cases to determine whether domestic abuse has occurred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 128 - Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lyme disease

      Explanation:

      Erythema Migrans is associated with Lyme disease, a tic transmitted infection caused by the spirochete Borrelia Burgdorferi. The rash usually appears at the bite site after 7 to 10 days. It is flat or slightly raised and migrates as the name suggests. Streptococcal throat infection and Crohn’s disease are both associated with erythema nodosum.Herpes simplex and Rheumatic fever may present with Erythema Multiforme and Erythema Marginatum respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 129 - Leukocoria does NOT occur in association with which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Leukocoria does NOT occur in association with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gillespie syndrome

      Explanation:

      Leukocoria is an abnormal red reflex in which the pupil appears white. It represents various abnormalities of the visual media and is one of the primary signs of retinoblastoma. Other possible causes of leukocoria include congenital cataracts, toxocariasis, Norrie disease, retinopathy of prematurity, and Coat’s disease. Gillespie syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition characterized by congenital hypotonia, multiple ocular defects, hypoplasia of the cerebellum, and vertebral deformities. The ocular defects consist of aniridia, photophobia, reduced visual acuity, and the inability of the pupillary sphincter to contract. Leukocoria is not associated with this syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 130 - A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and working long hours. After 10 years of follow-up and for the 1050 individuals working less than 40 hours per week, 1000 patients had normal blood pressure and 50 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. For the 660 patients working more than 40 hours per week, 600 patients had normal blood pressure and 60 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. If you work more than 40 hours per week, what is the odds ratio of developing hypertension compared to the individuals working less than 40 hours per week?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of the association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 131 - A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with...

    Incorrect

    • A child on 70% O2 suddenly crouches down whilst playing to help with breathing. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), a congenital heart defect, includes the following: right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, abnormal position of the aorta and pulmonary valve stenosis. The O2 saturation in patients with TOF is typically lower than normal and the condition usually becomes symptomatic early in life. A feature of the disease with high diagnostic significance is squatting or crouching of the infant as a compensatory mechanism to increase the peripheral vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 132 - A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A young child is successfully treated for meningitis. Two months later his parents take him to their GP, worried that he isn't communicating with them like he used to.What is the most likely complication of meningitis that he developed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensorineural deafness

      Explanation:

      Possible complications include:- Hearing loss (which may be partial or total)- problems with memory and concentration- problems with coordination and balance- learning difficulties (which may be temporary or permanent)- epilepsy (Seizures)- cerebral palsy- speech problems- vision loss (which may be partial or total)As hearing loss is the most common complication of meningitis people recovering from the condition are usually given a hearing test to assess their hearing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 133 - A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was...

    Incorrect

    • A 11 year old girl with a history of recurrent chest infections, was admitted with a fever, productive cough, anorexia and weight loss. On examination she was febrile and tachycardic. Her mother said that the girl was not thriving well. Which of the following organisms is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas

      Explanation:

      History of recurrent infections and failure to thrive (probably due to pancreatic enzyme insufficiency) is highly suggestive of cystic fibrosis. Pseudomonas has been identified as an important respiratory pathogen in patients with cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 134 - Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Association with HLA-DR3

      Explanation:

      Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder in which patients present with thyrotoxicosis and related ophthalmopathy, and dermopathy. Many affected patients experience hyperthyroidism. Peak incidence of graves disease is after the 3rd decade of life and is more common in women than in men. Graves susceptibility is association with HLA-DR3. Clinical features of Graves disease include an increased metabolic rate, heat intolerance, irritability, weight loss despite increasing appetite, diarrhoea palpitations, chemosis, acropachy and onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 135 - Which of the following best describes odds ratios? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes odds ratios?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The odds of an event in one group divided by the odds of the event in another

      Explanation:

      Odds ratios are best described as the odds of an event in one group divided by the odds of the event in another. They form an alternative to the relative risk in case–control studies and are close to the relative risk when events are rare. The odds are the number of the event divided by the number without the event, which is less intuitive than the risk, which is the number with the event divided by the total. Odds ratios are therefore less intuitive than relative risks. Logistic regression analysis outputs variable coefficients which are the log of the odds ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 136 - A 2-week-old infant is suffering from hydrocephalus that has developed secondary to congenital...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-week-old infant is suffering from hydrocephalus that has developed secondary to congenital spina bifida. Where in the brain is the CSF formed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Choroid plexuses

      Explanation:

      CSF is produced mainly by a structure called the choroid plexus in the lateral, third and fourth ventricles. CSF flows from the lateral ventricle to the third ventricle through the interventricular foramen (also called the foramen of Monro). The third ventricle and fourth ventricle are connected to each other by the cerebral aqueduct (also called the Aqueduct of Sylvius). CSF then flows into the subarachnoid space through the foramina of Luschka (there are two of these) and the foramen of Magendie (only one of these).Absorption of the CSF into the blood stream takes place in the superior sagittal sinus through structures called arachnoid villi . When the CSF pressure is greater than the venous pressure, CSF will flow into the blood stream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 137 - Which is the most common cardiac defect in babies with Down’s syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most common cardiac defect in babies with Down’s syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart defects are common (40-50%)| they are frequently observed in patients with Down syndrome who are hospitalized (62%) and are a common cause of death in this aneuploidy in the first 2 years of life.The most common congenital heart defects are the following:- Endocardial cushion defect (43%), which results in atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)/AV canal defect- Ventricular septal defect (32%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (6%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (4%).About 30% of patients have more than one cardiac defect. The most common secondary lesions are patent ductus arteriosus (16%), atrial septal defect, and pulmonic stenosis (9%). About 70% of all endocardial cushion defects are associated with Down syndrome.Valve abnormalities, such as mitral valve prolapse or aortic regurgitation may develop in up to 40-50% of adolescents and adults who were born without structural heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 138 - Which of the given neural tube defects occur in association with Arnold-Chiari malformation...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given neural tube defects occur in association with Arnold-Chiari malformation type II?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myelomeningocele

      Explanation:

      Arnold-Chiari malformation type II is one of the congenital hindbrain abnormalities that leads to a disruption of the relationship between different hindbrain structures. It is characterized by congenital hydrocephalus, herniation of cerebellar tonsils into the pinal canal with an enlarged 4th ventricle, spina bifida associated with myelomeningocele, and various levels of denervation atrophy of the muscles of the lower limb. The association of type II Arnold-Chiari with myelomeningocele carries importance from an etiological perspective, forming the basis of CSF escape theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 139 - A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 140 - A 16-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are located in the scrotum and are small and soft. What is the most likely diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is Kallmann’s syndrome.Kallmann’s syndrome is due to isolated gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency. It is often inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. Other options:- While Klinefelter’s syndrome is also associated with hypogonadism, the other clinical features of Klinefelter’s are not seen. – Cryptorchidism is ruled out by the presence of testes in the scrotum. – The presentation of the child is not suggestive of mumps orchitis or hyperprolactinaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 141 - A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningococcaemia

      Explanation:

      Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 142 - A 13-year-old boy complains of chest pain. Examination reveals hypotension and tachycardia with...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy complains of chest pain. Examination reveals hypotension and tachycardia with distended neck veins and a displaced trachea. What is the next appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Needle thoracocenthesis

      Explanation:

      The patient history suggests a spontaneous tension pneumothorax which is a life-threatening situation in which excess air is introduced into the pleural space surrounding the lung. When there is a significant amount of air trapped in the pleural cavity, the increasing pressure from this abnormal air causes the lung to shrink and collapse, leading to respiratory distress. This pressure also pushes the mediastinum (including the heart and great vessels) away from its central position, e.g. deviated trachea, and diminishing the cardiac output. Tension pneumothoraxes cause chest pain, extreme shortness of breath, respiratory failure, hypoxia, tachycardia, and hypotension. These are definitively managed by insertion of a chest tube. However, in the emergency setting temporizing measures are needed while chest tube materials are being gathered. In these situations, urgent needle thoracostomy (also called needle decompression) is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 143 - A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is admitted to hospital following a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. She comes from a family of Jehovah's Witnesses. Her haemoglobin on admission is 6.7 g/dl. She consents to a blood transfusion but her mother refuses. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give the blood transfusion

      Explanation:

      People aged 16 or over are entitled to consent to their own treatment. This can only be overruled in exceptional circumstances. Children under the age of 16 can consent to their own treatment if they’re believed to have enough intelligence, competence and understanding to fully appreciate what’s involved in their treatment. This is known as being Gillick competent.Otherwise, someone with parental responsibility can consent for them.This could be:the child’s mother or fatherthe child’s legally appointed guardiana person with a residence order concerning the childa local authority designated to care for the childa local authority or person with an emergency protection order for the child.Giving the blood transfusion is therefore both clinically and ethically the right course of action.Jehovah’s Witnesses frequently carry a signed and witnessed Advance Decision Document listing the blood products and autologous procedures that are, or are not, acceptable to them It is appropriate to have a frank, confidential discussion with the patient about the potential risks of their decision and the possible alternatives to transfusion, but the freely expressed wish of a competent adult must always be respected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 144 - A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented with bed-wetting. Which of the following is the best approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sleep alarms

      Explanation:

      As this boy didn’t have a previous history, a structural abnormality is unlikely. Parents should be asked to take the child to the bathroom to void before bedtime. Either alarm therapy or pharmacologic therapy should be considered if the above method doesn’t work after 3 months. From the above 2 therapies, neither one is superior than the other, so alarm therapy should be tried first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
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  • Question 145 - An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but is afebrile. Clinical examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen, however, the doctor does not detect any palpable masses. Which of the following should you exclude first?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is an urgent condition that must be excluded first as it may lead to life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 146 - A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the emergency department with icterus. Although she's had a good appetite, and breast-feeding well, she hasn't gained any weight. Her mother noticed that her stools are pale while her urine is noticeably dark. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Biliary atresia is a rare condition that usually becomes symptomatic 2 to 8 weeks after birth. It can be congenital or acquired. Typical symptoms include jaundice, weight loss, dark urine and pale stools.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 147 - A 15-year-old girl presents with complaints of right-sided earache. She says that the...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl presents with complaints of right-sided earache. She says that the ear has been itchy over the past few days but has become excruciatingly painful today. On examination, she appears uncomfortable at rest but otherwise well. Her observations are within normal limits. Otoscopy is difficult as the girl flinches in pain, the ear canal appears oedematous. The tympanic membrane is difficult to see with oedema and discharge present in the external canal. The oropharynx seems normal with no erythema or tonsillar exudate. What is the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the patient has features suggestive of acute otitis externa, which can be managed with topic antibiotics.Otitis externa:It can be classified as acute (< 3 weeks) or chronic (> 3 months). Frequent exposure to water, e.g. swimming, is a risk factor for the condition. Itching, pain, hearing loss and discharge are common complaints. Examination demonstrates oedema of the external auditory canal with discharge. Pain may be elicited on the movement of the tragus or pinna. First-line treatment is with topical drops/sprays for one week. Acidic preparations such as 2% acetic acid, antibiotic or combined antibiotic and corticosteroid preparations may be used (1% hydrocortisone and 0.3% gentamicin). Acetic acid can be used as the first-line treatment for mild cases without discharge or hearing impairment. On selecting an appropriate topical preparation remember that topical aminoglycosides are contraindicated if the tympanic membrane is perforated and that chloramphenicol ear drops cause contact dermatitis in approximately 10% of people. Clinoquinol, a combination of antibacterial and antifungal, may be preferred over aminoglycoside containing preparations due to the theoretical lower risk of ototoxicity and dermatitis. However, there is no clear evidence to support the use of one topical preparation over another.Other options:- Admit for IV antibiotics: First line management is with analgesia and topical antibiotic or combined antibiotic and corticosteroid preparations. Thus, IV antibiotics is not an appropriate action.- Oral antibiotics: Oral antibiotics like flucloxacillin or erythromycin are considered only for severe infections such as the spread of cellulitis beyond the ear canal. – Reassurance is not sufficient to treat these patients. They require topic antibiotic therapy.- Referral to ENT: Should be considered only in case of treatment failure. ENT referral can also be considered if there is cellulitis extending past the margin of the external ear canal, extreme pain or extensive swelling and discharge likely to require suction or the insertion of an ear wick. Urgent ENT referral is reserved for suspected cases of malignant otitis externa (with the extension of the condition into the adjacent bone and spreading osteomyelitis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 148 - Which of the following segments of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following segments of the ECG represents ventricular repolarization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T wave

      Explanation:

      The T wave represents ventricular repolarization. Other options:- P wave:Depolarization that spreads from the SA node throughout the atria. The wave lasts 0.08 to 0.1 seconds (80-100 ms).The isoelectric period after the P wave represents the time in which the impulse is travelling within the AV node.- P-R interval:Time from the onset of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex. The wave ranges from 0.12 to 0.20 seconds in duration.Represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization- QRS complex:It represents ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds.- ST-segment:The isoelectric period following the QRS. It represents the period in which the entire ventricle is depolarized and roughly corresponds to the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential- U wave: It is a small positive wave which may follow the T wave. It represents the last remnants of ventricular repolarization.- Q-T intervalIt represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur, and therefore roughly estimates the duration of an average ventricular action potential.The interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate.At high heart rates, ventricular action potentials shorten in duration, which decreases the Q-T interval. Therefore the Q-T interval is expressed as a corrected Q-T (QTc) by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval (interval between ventricular depolarizations). This allows an assessment of the Q-T interval that is independent of heart rate.The normal corrected Q-Tc interval is less than 0.44 seconds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 149 - A 15-year-old boy presents with difficulty using his left hand ever since he...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with difficulty using his left hand ever since he sustained a distal humerus fracture at the age of 12. On examination, there was diminished sensation overlying the hypothenar eminence and medial one and half fingers. What is the most likely nerve injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely nerve injured in this case is the ulnar nerve.Ulnar Nerve:It arises from the medial cord of brachial plexus (C8, T1).It supplies motor fibres to the following structures:- Medial two lumbricals- Adductor pollicis- Interossei- Hypothenar muscles: abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimiflexor carpi ulnarisIt carries sensation from the palmar and dorsal aspects of the medial 1 1/2 fingers.Patterns of damageIf the nerve is damaged at the wrist, the following features are observed:- Claw hand’: Hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits.- Wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals)- Wasting and paralysis of hypothenar muscles- A sensory loss in the medial 1 1/2 fingers (palmar and dorsal aspects)If the nerve is damaged at the elbow or above the ulnar paradox is observed – the fourth and fifth fingers are simply paralyzed and claw hand is less severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 150 - Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CO combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Carbon monoxide is a colourless gas, which is toxic to animals. It has a high affinity for haemoglobin (around 250 times greater than oxygen). It combines with haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin, which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to a left-shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve. CO is produced endogenously in limited amounts (0.4ml per hour), but the toxic levels are higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 151 - What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Also known as the hyoid arch, it forms the side and front of the neck. From its cartilage develops the styloid process, stylohyoid ligament and lesser cornu of the hyoid bone. The muscular derivatives include the muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid and the posterior belly of the digastric. All these are innervated by cranial nerve VII but migrate into the area of the mandibular arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
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  • Question 152 - A 15-year-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother with complaints of an acute onset of oliguria and gross haematuria. On examination, she was found to have pedal oedema and a blood pressure of 164/112 mmHg. Given the likely diagnosis, what would be the most characteristic finding on urine microscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red blood cell casts

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, the most characteristic finding that can be expected in his patient’s urine microscopy is RBC casts. Red cell casts are a characteristic feature of acute nephrotic syndrome. Other options:- Hyaline casts may be seen in normal urine, particularly after exercise. – Coarse granular casts occur in glomerular and tubular disease. – Tubular cell casts may be seen in patients with acute tubular necrosis. – The presence of 10 or more white blood cells/mm3 is abnormal and indicates an inflammatory reaction, most commonly due to infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 153 - A 12-week antenatal scan reveals a massive neck swelling in the foetus. While...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-week antenatal scan reveals a massive neck swelling in the foetus. While assessing the mother, she is found to have mild learning difficulties, short stature and a heart murmur. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Noonan syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is Noonan syndrome.Noonan syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterised by short stature, heart defects (mainly pulmonary stenosis) and learning difficulties. An affected foetus can present with a significant increase in the nuchal thickness or a cystic hygroma of the neck. The condition is variable, and an affected parent is often only diagnosed after the diagnosis in the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 154 - A young boy presents with signs of kidney disease. He has a long-standing...

    Incorrect

    • A young boy presents with signs of kidney disease. He has a long-standing history of proteinuria and hypocomplementemia which were not responsive to steroid treatment. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis primarily affects children and young adults, with patients presenting with nephrotic or nephritic syndrome or with asymptomatic renal disease. There are 3 types defined by pathologic features. All three types are associated with hypocomplementemia, but they manifest somewhat different mechanisms of complement activation. This type of glomerulonephritis often progresses slowly to end-stage renal disease, and it tends to recur after renal transplantation, especially type II.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 155 - An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. This infection is most likely caused by which of the following organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
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  • Question 156 - Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the standard method for comparing distributions in data sets (such as between the expected frequency of an event and the observed frequency of an event) from the list of options.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chi squared (X²) test

      Explanation:

      The Chi-squared test evaluates if two variables are related. The other statistical tests mentioned do not perform this function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 157 - A 7 year old boy who had significant dry spells in the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 year old boy who had significant dry spells in the past presented with a recent history of wetting himself. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin

      Explanation:

      As this boy has experienced significant dry spells in the past, it is unlikely that a structural abnormality is causing the enuresis. The only therapies that have been shown to be effective in randomized trials are alarm therapy and treatment with desmopressin acetate or imipramine. Bladder training exercises are not recommended. Desmopressin acetate is the preferred medication for treating children with enuresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
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  • Question 158 - A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 37.2℃ and acute abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy presents with a temperature of 37.2℃ and acute abdominal pain. He has previously undergone a splenectomy secondary to sickle cell disease. Clinically he is jaundiced. An ultrasound scan demonstrates a common bile duct diameter of 10mm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impacted Gall Stone

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, this patient most probably has impacted gall stones. Gall stones in children can be caused by haematological diseases such as sickle cell anaemia and thalassemia. Cholesterol stones are also becoming more prevalent. A dilated common bile duct (> 10mm in adults) suggests gall stone impaction. The presence of pyrexia indicates cholecystitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 159 - A 17 year old boy who was previously well and healthy presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 17 year old boy who was previously well and healthy presents to the physician after his teachers complained of his dropping grades. On clinical examination, there are signs of chronic liver disease. The ultrasound reveals cirrhosis and the blood ceruloplasmin levels are low. Wilsons disease is suspected. Which of the following findings is most likely to be present in addition to the above findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kayser–Fleischer rings

      Explanation:

      A minority of affected individuals may experience severe liver failure. This happens most frequently in people with Wilson’s disease during adolescence and more commonly in women. These individuals may rapidly develop signs and symptoms of liver disease, often associated with anaemia due to breakdown of red blood cells (haemolysis) and mental confusion. In some patients, liver disease does not reveal itself, and the patient develops neurologic (brain-related) symptoms. Common neurological symptoms of Wilson disease that may appear and progress with time include tremor, involuntary movements, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), difficulty speaking and poor articulation (dysarthria), lack of coordination, spasticity, dystonic postures, and muscle rigidity. Almost all affected individuals with the neurological symptoms of Wilson’s disease have Kayser-Fleischer rings in their eyes that can be identified by a slit lamp examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 160 - Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thinning and reddening of scrotal skin is typical of Tanner stage 2

      Explanation:

      Puberty is a period of transitioning into adulthood by developing full reproductive potential by undergoing drastic physiological and psychological changes. For boys, it occurs around 9-16 years of age typically. The process of pubertal changes is usually divided into stages called tanner’s stages. The physiologic changes of puberty are initiated by the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, which then interact with numerous endogenous and environmental stimuli to bring about the physical pubertal features. Tanner stage 2 in boys is characterized by the thinning and reddening of the scrotal skin.The growth spurt of around 9cm per year is expected in boys, at the peak velocity.Testicular enlargement of >3cm commences puberty.Pubarche, in the absence of other secondary sexual characteristics, is pathological.Adrenarche is the increase in the secretion of adrenal androgens, occurring prior to increased gonadotropin release.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 161 - A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl presents with polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, and new-onset nocturnal enuresis. A urine dipstick reveals no glucose or ketones, but her pregnancy test is positive.What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gestational diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      The presenting features with the positive pregnancy test are highly suggestive of gestational diabetes mellitus.Diabetes Insipidus:It is much less common than gestational diabetes mellitus. It is characterised by the inability to concentrate urine, with marked thirst.Presenting symptoms include polydipsia (>3L daily), polyuria, nocturia, nocturnal enuresis.Physical examination may reveal features of dehydration and an enlarged bladder.Investigations include biochemical analysis for electrolytes, urine and plasma osmolality, fluid deprivation test, and cranial MRI.The main differential diagnosis is for diabetes insipidus is psychogenic polydipsia.There are three broad categories of diabetes insipidus (DI): – Central (cranial) DI: It is the most common form of diabetes insipidus.It occurs due to decreased secretion of ADH. It usually occurs due to hypothalamic disease and may show response to low-dose desmopressin.- Peripheral (nephrogenic) DI:It is characterised by the resistance of the kidney to ADH.It usually does not respond to low-dose desmopressin.- Gestational DI:It is rare and is mostly seen in teenage pregnancy.It usually presents in the third trimester and often resolves 4-6 weeks post-partum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 162 - A 10-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. His family is...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presents with severe abdominal pain and jaundice. His family is originally from Ghana.An ultrasound shows evidence of gallstones. What is the most likely risk factor for the child to develop gallstones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario, the most likely risk factor in this child to develop gallstones is sickle cell disease.Note:Haemolysis is the most frequent cause for gallstones in children and the likeliest cause because of his ethnicity would be sickle cell disease. The gallstones are pigmented which form from bilirubin. 70% of patients with sickle cell disease will develop gallstones| the prevalence of gallstones is related to the rate of haemolysis.Other options:- Gilbert’s syndrome: it is a common condition in which bilirubin glucuronidation (i.e. converting bilirubin into a water-soluble form) is affected. During times of stress (viral illness, fasting, etc.) there is an excess bilirubin production, and jaundice may develop. It is a benign condition but there is some evidence of an increased risk of developing gallstones. However, sickle cell disease is a more likely risk factor in this case.- Hereditary spherocytosis: Hereditary spherocytosis is a disease of the white population and is less likely to be the underlying cause in this case.- Male gender: After puberty, the incidence of gallstones is higher in women. Before puberty, the incidence is equal.- Obesity: Obesity is a risk factor for gallstones and is thought to be behind the rising incidence among young adults. Nevertheless, haemolytic states remain the most common reason for gallstones in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 163 - A 21-day old infant is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-day old infant is brought to the paediatric clinic by his mother with complaints of fever, lethargy and a reduction in feeds. On examination, the infant is hypotonic, tachypnoeic and has a CRT of 4 seconds, with the femoral pulse being barely palpable. Venous access is obtained with difficulty by inserting an interosseous needle and blood sugar level is 13. His saturation is found to be 98%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      Sepsis is a medical emergency that describes the body’s systemic immunological response to an infectious process that can lead to end-stage organ dysfunction and death. The fever, alongside the clinical presentation, make sepsis the likely diagnosis. A temperature >38 degrees in an infant <3months of age warrants investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 164 - Children can be offered cow's milk starting from what age? ...

    Incorrect

    • Children can be offered cow's milk starting from what age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 months

      Explanation:

      Cow’s milk differs in composition to human breast milk. The sodium content of cows milk is too high, which can easily overwhelm a baby’s developing kidneys and lead to hypernatremia and dehydration. In addition to its iron content being too low, cows milk can cause further increase iron deficiency anaemia by irritating the baby’s intestinal lumen and causing blood loss per rectum. After 12 months a baby’s gastrointestinal tract and organs are able to tolerate cows milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 165 - The following is true about the constituents of breast milk: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following is true about the constituents of breast milk:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Main protein in breast-milk is whey, which is more digestible than cow’s milk protein casein.

      Explanation:

      Mature human breast milk is nutrient and enzyme rich, optimal for human infants. The average calorie requirement for a one month old infant is about 100kcal/kg/day. Lactose, the most abundant carbohydrate, is beneficial for the baby’s developing gastro intestinal system. The proteins in mature milk are mostly whey (as compared to a high proportion of casein in cows milk), which digests easily. Other proteins found in breast milk include immunoglobulin, lysozyme, lactoferrin and lactalbumin. In terms of micronutrients, while Vitamin K levels are low in breast milk, Vitamin A, C and E are found in higher concentrations than in cow’s milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
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  • Question 166 - A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 year old girl suffers from haemophilia A and chronic knee pain with progressive swelling and deformity over the last 4 years. Test results reveal a significantly reduced factor VIII activity. Which of the following is seen in the knee joint space after an acute painful episode?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesterol crystals

      Explanation:

      Due to breakdown of the red blood cell membrane in haemophilic patients, cholesterol crystals are formed by the lipids. On the other hand lipofuscin deposition does not occur in haemolysis or haemorrhage. Neutrophil accumulation suggests acute inflammation. Anthracotic pigment is an exogenous carbon pigment that deposits in the lung from dust. Russell bodies are intracellular accumulations of immunoglobins in plasma cells. Curschmann’s spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are pathognomonic of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 167 - A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents with episodes of feeling her heart racing and pounding, dizziness, and sweating. Her mother reports that she appears slightly pale and feels frightened during these episodes. These episodes occur at different times during the day and a few times a week. There is no clear history suggestive of a trigger. She has no other known medical problems. Which of the following is the most probable underlying cause for these episodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT)

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the patient in question is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia (AVNRT).The presenting features of the patient are suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The most common form of SVT in children over 8 years old is atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia. It occurs as a result of an additional electrical circuit in or near the AV node itself.Other options:- Atrial Flutter: is a form of re-entry tachycardia within the atria which then becomes unsynchronised with the ventricles, which is not the case here. Furthermore, it is most common in babies and children with congenital heart disease.- Atrial tachycardia: is a condition where an area of atrium takes over the pacemaker activity of the heart. However, it is relatively uncommon.- Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT): occurs due to an accessory electrical pathway between the atria and ventricles forming a re-entry circuit. This is the most common cause of SVT in children < 8 years old. One of the specific diagnoses of AVRT is Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. However, WPW syndrome is much rarer than AVNRT.- Premature atrial contractions (PACs): are very common in normal, healthy children and adolescents. Occasionally, they can give rise to the feeling of a 'skipped beat'. Fortunately, they are rarely associated with any significant underlying pathology or need to be treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 168 - A 6 year old child underwent an emergency splenectomy following trauma. After full...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child underwent an emergency splenectomy following trauma. After full recovery he is dismissed from the hospital and returns home. On re-examination, eight weeks later, the GP performs a full blood count with a film. What would you expect to see?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies

      Explanation:

      Howell-Jolly bodies are often seen in post-splenectomy cases, together with Pappenheimer bodies, target cells and irregular contracted red blood cells. The loss of splenic tissue results in the inability to readily remove immature or abnormal red blood cells from the circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 169 - A 3-year-old child choked on a foreign object, which was removed at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child choked on a foreign object, which was removed at the hospital. The parents are now asking for advice on how to manage future occurrences at home. What do you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turn the child on his back and give thumps

      Explanation:

      Give up to five back blows: hit them firmly on their back between the shoulder blades. Back blows create a strong vibration and pressure in the airway, which is often enough to dislodge the blockage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 170 - A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old autistic boy who has had learning difficulties is found to have large testes. Which condition does the child most likely have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic condition that causes a range of developmental problems including learning disabilities and cognitive impairment. Usually, males are more severely affected by this disorder than females.Affected individuals usually have delayed development of speech and language by age 2. Most males with fragile X syndrome have mild to moderate intellectual disability, while about one-third of affected females are intellectually disabled. Children with fragile X syndrome may also have anxiety and hyperactive behaviour such as fidgeting or impulsive actions. They may have attention deficit disorder (ADD), which includes an impaired ability to maintain attention and difficulty focusing on specific tasks. About one-third of individuals with fragile X syndrome have features of autism spectrum disorder that affect communication and social interaction. Seizures occur in about 15 percent of males and about 5 percent of females with fragile X syndrome.Most males and about half of females with fragile X syndrome have characteristic physical features that become more apparent with age. These features include a long and narrow face, large ears, a prominent jaw and forehead, unusually flexible fingers, flat feet, and in males, enlarged testicles (macroorchidism) after puberty.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 171 - A 16 year old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of football. He couldn't recall any trauma to groin. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: USG of the scrotum

      Explanation:

      USG of the scrotum is important to exclude any abnormality with testicles, epididymis and scrotum. This presentation can be acute epididymo-orchitis or testicular torsion. USG of the scrotum will help to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
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  • Question 172 - A 6 year old child presents with secondary nocturnal enuresis. He is otherwise...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child presents with secondary nocturnal enuresis. He is otherwise healthy and with a clear family history. He drinks sufficient amounts of fluids but is a fussy eater. Clinical examination reveals a mass in the left iliac fossa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Constipation

      Explanation:

      Constipation is often associated with nocturnal enuresis in children. The palpable mass is the impacted stool. The decreased appetite is common in those with constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 173 - Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Advanced paternal age is NOT a risk factor for which of the following diseases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Advanced paternal age is associated with poor quality sperm leading to a reduction in overall fertility along with an increase in the occurrence of various medical disorders in the fetus. Advanced paternal age has been implicated as a risk factor for diseases like retinoblastoma, Marfan’s syndrome, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, autism spectrum disorders, schizophrenia, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Down’s syndrome is mostly considered a consequence of advanced maternal age, but advanced paternal age has also been implicated as a risk factor. Turner syndrome is not found to be caused by advanced paternal age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 174 - A 17-year-old boy is brought to the endocrinologist by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy is brought to the endocrinologist by his parents who are worried that he might have delayed growth as all his friends are taller than him. On examination, he has a preadolescent body habitus and no evidence of development of secondary sexual characteristics. Serum LH, FSH, and testosterone all match prepubertal range. Following an injection of GnRH, the LH and FSH concentrations increase only slightly. However, when the GnRH is given daily for 7 days, a normal response is elicited. Which of the following is the most likely causing this boy's delayed puberty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A hypothalamic disorder

      Explanation:

      Hypogonadotropic hypogonadismIn Kallmann syndrome: impaired migration of GnRH cells and defective olfactory bulb → ↓ GnRH in hypothalamus → ↓ FSH and ↓ LH → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogenIn hypothalamic and/or pituitary lesions: ↓ pituitary gonadotropins (↓ FSH and ↓ LH) → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogen

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 175 - A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a fire at home. She was transferred to the critical care unit after the wound was cleaned and dressed. She became tachycardic and hypotensive one day after skin grafts were done. She has vomited three times and blood was seen in it. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Curling's ulcers

      Explanation:

      Answer: Curling’s ulcersCurling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness. A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 176 - In X linked dominant inheritance, what is the chance of an affected father's...

    Incorrect

    • In X linked dominant inheritance, what is the chance of an affected father's daughter inheriting the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      In the pattern of mendelian inheritance, X- linked dominant inheritance means that all who inherit the X chromosome will present with the condition. In the case of maternal x-linked inheritance sons and daughters have an equal chance of inheriting the condition as there is a 50% chance of inheriting the defective X chromosome from their mother as opposed to a non affected X chromosome from their father. However in paternal X-linked dominant inheritance, sons will be unaffected as they inherit a Y chromosome from their father while daughters are sure to inherit the defective X-chromosome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 177 - A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old male was brought to the A&E following an car accident. On examination bowel sounds were heard in the chest. A nasogastric tube was inserted and a chest x-ray showed a curved NG tube. Which of the following is the most probable reason for it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diaphragm rupture

      Explanation:

      Bowel sounds in the chest and curved NG tube are suggestive of a diaphragm rupture, which has caused herniation of bowel into the thoracic cavity through the defect in the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 178 - A 16 year old female has been admitted to hospital after overdosing on...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year old female has been admitted to hospital after overdosing on paracetamol 4 hours ago. She has also consumed a large amount of alcohol. Her plasma paracetamol concentration is only just below a level which requires treatment. From the list of options, choose the most appropriate treatment option for this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to psychiatry ward

      Explanation:

      As her paracetamol level is under the required treatment threshold, she requires no medical treatment. However, she has taken a simultaneous drug overdose and excessive alcohol consumption. These two factors together require psychiatric evaluation and so she should be referred to the psychiatry ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
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  • Question 179 - A 14-year-old male was involved in a bicycle accident. He was brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old male was involved in a bicycle accident. He was brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain. On the CT scan of the abdomen, a hematoma was present beneath the capsule of the spleen. His BP and pulse were normal. What is the next step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to surgeons for observation

      Explanation:

      A surgeon will observe the patient and will decide which procedure he needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
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  • Question 180 - Damage to which of the following nerves may cause an absent jaw jerk...

    Incorrect

    • Damage to which of the following nerves may cause an absent jaw jerk reflex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal

      Explanation:

      The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the motor innervation of the muscles of mastication and well as providing sensory input for most of the head. In testing the function of this nerve, the jaw jerk reflex may be brisk in cases of upper motor neuron lesions, but is however absent in nuclear or infra nuclear lesions involving the trigeminal nerve. Other nerve reflexes include the gag reflex of the glossopharyngeal nerve, and the pupillary light reflex of the optic nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 181 - A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born baby is born with a midline lumbosacral cystic lesion. Occipitofrontal circumference was above the 90th percentile.The next best step is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranial ultrasound

      Explanation:

      The baby may have hydrocephalus and no surgery can be done until it is excluded.Cranial sonography is an important part of neonatal care in general, and high-risk and unstable premature infants, in particular. It allows rapid evaluation of infants in the intensive care units without the need for sedation and with virtually no risk. Expectedly, sonography represents an ideal imaging modality in neonates due to its portability, lower cost, speed, and lack of ionizing radiations. Although there are numerous indications for cranial sonography, it appears to be most useful for detection and follow-up of intracranial haemorrhage, hydrocephalus, and periventricular leukomalacia (PVL).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 182 - A severe asthma exacerbation according to the British Thoracic Society suggests an oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • A severe asthma exacerbation according to the British Thoracic Society suggests an oxygen saturation that is less than:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.92

      Explanation:

      In an acute and severe asthma attack the child cannot complete sentences in one breath because they are too breathless. The O2 saturation is less than 92% and PEF is between 33-50% best or predicted. In children that are 2-5 years old, HR is more than 140 bpm and more than 125 bpm in those older than 5 years old. The RR in children between 2-5 years old is more than 40/min, and more than 30/min in those older than 5 years old.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 183 - A 13-year-old boy presents with a two-week history of malaise, sore throat, odynophagia,...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy presents with a two-week history of malaise, sore throat, odynophagia, and dysphagia. On examination, patchy white spots were noted in his oropharynx. An upper GI endoscopy revealed similar lesions in the oesophagus. Which of the following is most likely to identify the underlying pathology in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral serology

      Explanation:

      Based on the given scenario, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Thus, the most appropriate investigation to confirm the underlying pathology in this patient would be viral serology. Rationale:The presence of oesophageal candidiasis is highly suggestive of severe immunosuppression. The causes of immunosuppression can be chemotherapy, with haematological malignancy, HIV or inhaled steroids. In patients with HIV, oesophageal candidiasis is part of the spectrum of AIDS-defining illnesses and usually occurs when the CD4 count is < 200 cells/microL. Other AIDS-defining illnesses include PCP pneumonia and CMV infections.Oesophageal Candidiasis:It is characterised by white spots in the oropharynx with extension into the oesophagus. It seldom occurs without an associated underlying risk factor like broad-spectrum antibiotic usage, immunosuppression and immunological disorders.Patients may present with oropharyngeal symptoms, odynophagia and dysphagia.Treatment is directed both at the underlying cause (which should be investigated for) and with oral antifungal agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 184 - Which of the following chemical substances is NOT a component of amniotic fluid?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following chemical substances is NOT a component of amniotic fluid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-1

      Explanation:

      Amniotic fluid is the protective liquid that surrounds the fetus in utero. It prevents the fetus from injury, protects the umbilical cord from compression, and provides necessary nutrients and a medium for growth and movement. Amniotic fluid originates from the maternal plasma initially, but by 16th week of gestation, fetal kidneys start making urine which contributes to further production of the amniotic fluid. Amniotic fluid contains a number of chemical substances including hormones, tumour markers, nutrients, electrolytes, and immunoglobulins. Main substances found in amniotic fluid include carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, lactoferrin, insulin-like growth factor, granulocyte colony-stimulating factor, erythropoietin, etc. Interleukin-1 is not a component of AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 185 - Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Patent ductus arteriosus is found in which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

      Explanation:

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a heart defect that occurs in around 50% of the preterm or low birth weight infants. It is characterized by the failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus to close after birth. There are certain risk factors which predispose an infant to a patent ductus arteriosus. The most important risk factor is trisomy 21 or Down’s syndrome, which is associated with multiple cardiac defects. Other factors are congenital rubella syndrome, birth at high altitudes, and female gender.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 186 - Which of the following cellular components is neuron-specific? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cellular components is neuron-specific?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nissl substance

      Explanation:

      Nissl body is a neuron-specific cellular structure. It is composed of rough endoplasmic reticulum and fine granules. The rough endoplasmic reticulum contains free ribosomes, and are the hub of protein synthesis. When these substances are exposed to a cresyl violet solution, they show selective-staining by turning purple-blue. In pathologic processes, they may undergo chromatolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 187 - At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid? ...

    Incorrect

    • At term, what is the normal amount of amniotic fluid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 600ml

      Explanation:

      In the first trimester of pregnancy, amniotic fluid is produced from maternal plasma where there is a rapid bi-directional diffusion across the foetal skin. At 10 weeks the volume is about 25ml. By 16th weeks of gestation the foetal kidneys make urine that contributes to the increasing volume of amniotic fluid, along with nasal secretions. At 20 weeks, the level is 400ml and increases to 800ml at 28weeks, after which it reduces to 600ml at term.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 188 - A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-month-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother with complaints of recurrent urinary tract infections. As part of the diagnostic work-up, he was noted to have abnormal renal function. An ultrasound scan is performed and shows bilateral hydronephrosis.What is the most probable underlying condition giving rise to the child's symptoms and bilateral hydronephrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urethral valves

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the child’s presenting symptoms and the findings in ultrasound would be the presence of an abnormal posterior urethral valve. A posterior urethral valve is a developmental anomaly that usually affects male infants (incidence 1 in 8000) leading to obstructive uropathy. Diagnostic features include bladder wall hypertrophy, hydronephrosis and bladder diverticula.Note:Posterior urethral valves are the most common cause of infra-vesical outflow obstruction in males. They can be diagnosed on antenatal ultrasonography. Due to the necessity of the fetal bladder to develop high emptying pressures in utero secondary to this anomaly, the child may develop renal parenchymal damage. This leads to renal impairment noted in 70% of boys at the time of presentation. Management:The immediate treatment would be to place a bladder catheter to relieve the acutely retained urine. The definitive treatment of choice would be an endoscopic valvotomy with a cystoscopic and renal follow up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 189 - A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy has been taken to his local hospital for his third sore throat in one month. Doctors have discovered bleeding from his gums and nose. He is also presenting with pale conjunctiva. From the list of options, what is the single cell type most likely to be seen on microscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blast cells

      Explanation:

      Many of the symptoms favour blast cells: the patient’s young age| a reoccurring sore throat caused by neutropenia and abnormal lymphoblasts| pale conjunctiva due to reduced production of red blood cells (this is because the marrow has been occupied by blast cells). There are no risk factors present for aplastic anaemia, and congenital aplastic anaemia would present itself earlier in life. A bone marrow aspiration would be needed to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 190 - Which of the following is NOT a gonadal or sexual differentiation disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a gonadal or sexual differentiation disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: XXX (Triple X Syndrome)

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is triple X syndrome with a genotype of XXX and an almost normal female phenotype. The extra X chromosome is inactive. The final phenotype of an individual is determined after normal sexual and gonadal differentiation, a process that involves several genes located on chromosomes X and Y. Disorders of sexual differentiation result in cases of ambiguous genitalia and are caused by a number of genetic abnormalities. Among these disorders is the turner syndrome with a genotype of 45X0, characterized by gonadal dysgenesis and ovarian failure. DAX-1 gene mutation leads to congenital adrenal hypoplasia and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, which results in virilization of female external genitalia. Campomelic dysplasia results from mutation of the SOX-9 gene, leading to 46XY sex reversal. Danys-Drash syndrome is characterized by disordered sexual development in affected males due to the mutated WT-1 gene, which also causes Wilm’s tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
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  • Question 191 - A 7-year-old girl is given cephalexin to treat an infection and develops hives,...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is given cephalexin to treat an infection and develops hives, with localised facial oedema. Which of the following conditions will cause localised oedema?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angio-oedema

      Explanation:

      Angio-oedema, is the rapid swelling of the skin, mucosa and submucosal tissues. The underlying mechanism typically involves histamine or bradykinin. The version related to histamine is to due an allergic reaction to agents such as insect bites, food, or medications. The version related to bradykinin may occur due to an inherited C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, medications e.g. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, or a lymphoproliferative disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 192 - A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no menstrual bleeding. Menarche was at 11 years of age. She denies experiencing any headache or visual disturbances. Physical examination shows an overweight girl, with facial hair, acne vulgaris on the face and a deep voice. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities and a pregnancy test is negative. Diagnosis can be confirmed with which of the following lab test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised Testosterone

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic criteria of PCOsAccording to the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists, at least two of three of the criteria below are required for diagnosis of PCOS after excluding other causes of irregular bleeding and elevated androgen levels.Hyperandrogenism (clinical or laboratory)Oligo- and/or anovulationPolycystic ovaries on ultrasoundDiagnosis of PCOS is possible without the presence of ovarian cysts.Rule out any other causes of hyperandrogenism and anovulation.Blood hormone levels↑ Testosterone (both total and free) or free androgen index↑ LH (LH:FSH ratio > 2:1)Oestrogen is normal or slightly elevated A clinical picture of hyperandrogenism overrules any normal hormone levels and can fulfil a diagnostic criterium of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
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  • Question 193 - A healthy 8 month old baby boy was brought in by his parents,...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 8 month old baby boy was brought in by his parents, who claimed that the baby had come into close contact with another child with measles two days ago. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should receive the MMR vaccination now

      Explanation:

      People who are at risk for severe illness and complications from measles, such as infants younger than 12 months of age, pregnant women without evidence of measles immunity, and people with severely compromised immune systems, should receive immunoglobulin. Intramuscular immunoglobulin should be given to all infants younger than 12 months of age who have been exposed to measles. For infants aged 6 through 11 months, MMR vaccine can be given in place of IG, if administered within 72 hours of exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 194 - Phagocytosis is the function of which of the following glial cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Phagocytosis is the function of which of the following glial cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      The central nervous system comprises of two types of cells| neurons and neuroglial cells. Glial cells are the support cells that serve a number of important functions. Three types of neuroglia comprise the mature nervous system, which are ependymal cells, microglia, and macroglia. The macroglia are of two types oligodendrocytes and astrocytes. Microglia are the neuroglial cells that serve the function of phagocytosis since they are derived from the hematopoietic stem cells and share properties with tissue macrophages. They remove the cellular debris from the site of injury or normal cellular turnover by performing scavenger function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 195 - Consider the following study:Healthy individuals are assessed according to their current body mass...

    Incorrect

    • Consider the following study:Healthy individuals are assessed according to their current body mass index (BMI). Two years later, their health status is reassessed, and the relationships with their earlier BMI were determined.What is the type of epidemiological study described above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cohort

      Explanation:

      The study described in the question is a ‘cohort’ study.Other options:A prospective observational study – When groups are classified according to one or more factors at a given time and followed forward to determine outcomes (usually some health status)- Although there is in one sense a control group (those who do not develop the health problem), this is not generally called a ‘controlled’ trial. – An ecological study would look at outcomes in different groups (countries or regions usually) who follow different practices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 196 - What is the average age that puberty starts in boys? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average age that puberty starts in boys?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 years

      Explanation:

      Puberty is when a child’s body begins to develop and change as they become an adult.The average age for girls to begin puberty is 11, while for boys the average age is 12.It’s completely normal for puberty to begin at any point from the ages of 8 to 14. The process can take up to 4 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 197 - A 12-year-old boy sustains a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy sustains a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle following a fall from his bicycle.Which vessel is at the highest risk of injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subclavian vein

      Explanation:

      Being anatomically situated immediately posterior to the subclavius muscle and the medial part of the clavicle, the subclavian vein is at the highest risk of injury in the above patient.As a direct tributary of the brachiocephalic vein, it’s injury poses a high risk of massive bleeding.The brachiocephalic vein rests on the first rib, below and in front of the third part of the subclavian artery, and then on scalenus anterior which separates it from the second part of the artery (posteriorly).Anatomy of the clavicle:The clavicle extends from the sternum to the acromion and helps prevent the shoulder falling forwards and downwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 198 - A female 4-week-old baby was admitted with jaundice. Her appetite for breast milk...

    Incorrect

    • A female 4-week-old baby was admitted with jaundice. Her appetite for breast milk is preserved and she is playing actively and well without any other disturbances. What is the most probable cause of jaundice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast milk Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Breast milk jaundice is thought to be associated with one or more abnormalities in the maternal milk itself. Breast milk jaundice syndrome generally needs no therapy if serum bilirubin concentrations remain below 270 mmol/l in healthy full-term infants. When the serum bilirubin concentration is above 270 mmol/l and rising, temporary interruption of breastfeeding may be indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 199 - A 5 month old boy presents with unilateral jerking of the arm, followed...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old boy presents with unilateral jerking of the arm, followed by generalised shaking. Doctors suspect he might have experienced a fit. History taking and clinical examination shows he has a macular erythematous lesion under the right lower eyelid which has been present since birth. The lesion has not changed in size and aspect. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sturge–Weber syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sturge-Weber syndrome is a genetic condition affecting various blood vessels. I causes brain, eye, and skin abnormalities, including three major features: port-wine birthmark, leptomeningeal angioma, and glaucoma. Most people are born with a port-wine birthmark that is usually located on the face, including the eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 200 - A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 years old girl was brought to the hospital with complaints of multiple red lesions, elevated temperature and pain in multiple joints all over the body. Her symptoms started after her return from a school summer camp. On examination, she was found to have features of facial nerve injury. Her mother observes that the rash was initially small but later transformed into a ring-like lesion. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism for the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi

      Explanation:

      The presentation of the patient and the characteristic ring-like (Bull’s eye) rash are highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. The spirochete is transmitted by Ixodid ticks. The initial presentation of this infection includes an erythema migrans rash that starts from the site of tick bite and gradually expands. Other features supporting the diagnosis are the history of camping, fever, joint pain, and the neurological symptoms presenting as facial nerve palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/4) 25%
Neonatology (2/3) 67%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Child Development (3/3) 100%
Dermatology (3/6) 50%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (1/3) 33%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (2/2) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/3) 33%
Adolescent Health (3/3) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Passmed