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  • Question 1 - What is a true statement about phase II reactions in biotransformation? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about phase II reactions in biotransformation?

      Your Answer: Phase II reactions produce polar metabolites

      Correct Answer: Phase II reactions involve conjugation

      Explanation:

      Conjugation is involved in Phase II reactions, but it is not necessary for these reactions to occur in a specific order. They can occur in reverse order, with Phase II preceding Phase I, of as a single reaction.

      Understanding Biotransformation: A Metabolic Process for Excretion

      Biotransformation is a metabolic process that occurs primarily in the liver, but also in other organs such as the kidneys, intestine, adipose, skin, and lungs. Its main function is to facilitate the excretion of both exogenous and endogenous substances by altering their chemical structures through a series of reactions. Enzymes found in the cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, and mitochondria of cells catalyze these reactions, which can cause the substrate to become inactive, active, of even toxic.

      Biotransformation is divided into three phases. Phase I reactions involve oxidation, reduction, of hydrolysis of the drug, yielding a polar, water-soluble metabolite that is often still active. Phase II reactions consist of adding hydrophilic groups to the original molecule, a toxic intermediate, of a nontoxic metabolite formed in phase I, to increase its polarity. The most common method is conjugation with glucuronic acid, but other groups such as sulphate, amino acids, acetate, and methyl can also be added. Phase III reactions occur post-phase II, where a chemical substance can undergo further metabolism and excretion through active transport into the urinary of hepatobiliary system.

      Understanding biotransformation is crucial in pharmacology and toxicology, as it affects the efficacy and toxicity of drugs and other substances. By facilitating the excretion of these substances, biotransformation helps maintain homeostasis in the body and prevent accumulation of potentially harmful compounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) has the most extended half-life? ...

    Correct

    • Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) has the most extended half-life?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      The half life of fluoxetine, the longest lasting SSRI, is four to six days, while its active metabolite, norfluoxetine, has a half life of four to 16 days. Citalopram has a half life of 33 hours, escitalopram has a half life of 30 hours, paroxetine has a half life of 24 hours, and sertraline has a half life of 26 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a true statement about alcohol use disorder as defined by the...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about alcohol use disorder as defined by the DSM-5?

      Your Answer: Alcohol use disorder cannot be diagnosed unless there is evidence of recurrent alcohol use in situations in which it is physically hazardous

      Correct Answer: Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) levels return toward normal within days to weeks of stopping drinking

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of alcohol use disorder only requires the presence of two or more of the 11 elements, including withdrawal and recurrent alcohol use in physically hazardous situations. Ongoing craving for alcohol does not prevent someone from being considered in sustained remission, which is defined as not meeting any criteria for alcohol use disorder for 12 months of longer, except for craving. Monitoring abstinence can be done using state markers such as GGT and CDT levels, which return to normal within days to weeks of stopping drinking, but MCV is a poor method due to the long half-life of red blood cells. Increases in GGT and CDT levels over time may indicate a return to heavy drinking.

      Alcohol Dependence Syndrome: ICD-11 and DSM 5 Criteria

      The criteria for diagnosing alcohol dependence syndrome in the ICD-11 and DSM 5 are quite similar, as both are based on the original concept developed by Edwards and Gross in 1976. The original concept had seven elements, including narrowing of the drinking repertoire, salience of drink seeking behavior, tolerance, withdrawal symptoms, relief of withdrawal by further drinking, compulsion to drink, and rapid reinstatement of symptoms after a period of abstinence.

      The DSM-5 Alcohol Use Disorder criteria include a problematic pattern of alcohol use leading to clinically significant impairment of distress, as manifested by at least two of the following occurring within a 12-month period. These include taking alcohol in larger amounts of over a longer period than intended, persistent desire of unsuccessful efforts to cut down of control alcohol use, spending a great deal of time in activities necessary to obtain alcohol, craving of a strong desire of urge to use alcohol, recurrent alcohol use resulting in a failure to fulfill major role obligations, continued alcohol use despite having persistent or recurrent social of interpersonal problems, giving up of reducing important social, occupational, of recreational activities due to alcohol use, recurrent alcohol use in physically hazardous situations, and continued alcohol use despite knowledge of having a persistent or recurrent physical or psychological problem caused or exacerbated by alcohol. Tolerance and withdrawal symptoms are also included in the criteria.

      The ICD-11 Alcohol Dependence criteria include a pattern of recurrent episodic of continuous use of alcohol with evidence of impaired regulation of alcohol use, manifested by impaired control over alcohol use, increasing precedence of alcohol use over other aspects of life, and physiological features indicative of neuroadaptation to the substance, including tolerance to the effects of alcohol of a need to use increasing amounts of alcohol to achieve the same effect, withdrawal symptoms following cessation of reduction in use of alcohol, of repeated use of alcohol of pharmacologically similar substances to prevent of alleviate withdrawal symptoms. The features of dependence are usually evident over a period of at least 12 months, but the diagnosis may be made if use is continuous for at least 3 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Under normal circumstances, which stage of sleep is responsible for the largest portion...

    Incorrect

    • Under normal circumstances, which stage of sleep is responsible for the largest portion of total sleep time?

      Your Answer: REM

      Correct Answer: Stage II

      Explanation:

      Sleep Stages

      Sleep is divided into two distinct states called rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM). NREM is subdivided into four stages.

      Sleep stage
      Approx % of time spent in stage
      EEG findings
      Comment

      I
      5%
      Theta waves (4-7 Hz)
      The dozing off stage. Characterized by hypnic jerks: spontaneous myoclonic contractions associated with a sensation of twitching of falling.

      II
      45%
      Theta waves, K complexes and sleep spindles (short bursts of 12-14 Hz activity)
      Body enters a more subdued state including a drop in temperature, relaxed muscles, and slowed breathing and heart rate. At the same time, brain waves show a new pattern and eye movement stops.

      III
      15%
      Delta waves (0-4 Hz)
      Deepest stage of sleep (high waking threshold). The length of stage 3 decreases over the course of the night.

      IV
      15%
      Mixed, predominantly beta
      High dream activity.

      The percentage of REM sleep decreases with age.

      It takes the average person 15-20 minutes to fall asleep, this is called sleep latency (characterised by the onset of stage I sleep). Once asleep one descends through stages I-II and then III-IV (deep stages). After about 90 minutes of sleep one enters REM. The rest of the sleep comprises of cycles through the stages. As the sleep progresses the periods of REM become greater and the periods of NREM become less. During an average night’s sleep one spends 25% of the sleep in REM and 75% in NREM.

      REM sleep has certain characteristics that separate it from NREM

      Characteristics of REM sleep

      – Autonomic instability (variability in heart rate, respiratory rate, and BP)
      – Loss of muscle tone
      – Dreaming
      – Rapid eye movements
      – Penile erection

      Deafness:

      (No information provided on deafness in relation to sleep stages)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the standard test used to measure digit span? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the standard test used to measure digit span?

      Your Answer: Orientation

      Correct Answer: Short-term memory

      Explanation:

      The mental state exam assesses various areas of cognition, including orientation, attention/concentration, short term memory, long term memory, and executive function. Standard tests for each area include asking about time, place, and person for orientation, serial 7’s for attention/concentration, digit span for short term memory, delayed recall of name and address for long term memory, and various tasks such as proverbs, similarities, differences, verbal fluency, and cognitive estimates for executive function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What type of bias is present in a study evaluating the accuracy of...

    Incorrect

    • What type of bias is present in a study evaluating the accuracy of a new diagnostic test for epilepsy if not all patients undergo the established gold-standard test?

      Your Answer: Instrument bias

      Correct Answer: Work-up bias

      Explanation:

      When comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, work-up bias can be a concern. Clinicians may be hesitant to order the gold standard test unless the new test yields a positive result, as the gold standard test may involve invasive procedures like tissue biopsy. This can significantly skew the study’s findings and affect metrics such as sensitivity and specificity. While it may not always be possible to eliminate work-up bias, researchers must account for it in their analysis.

      Types of Bias in Statistics

      Bias is a systematic error that can lead to incorrect conclusions. Confounding factors are variables that are associated with both the outcome and the exposure but have no causative role. Confounding can be addressed in the design and analysis stage of a study. The main method of controlling confounding in the analysis phase is stratification analysis. The main methods used in the design stage are matching, randomization, and restriction of participants.

      There are two main types of bias: selection bias and information bias. Selection bias occurs when the selected sample is not a representative sample of the reference population. Disease spectrum bias, self-selection bias, participation bias, incidence-prevalence bias, exclusion bias, publication of dissemination bias, citation bias, and Berkson’s bias are all subtypes of selection bias. Information bias occurs when gathered information about exposure, outcome, of both is not correct and there was an error in measurement. Detection bias, recall bias, lead time bias, interviewer/observer bias, verification and work-up bias, Hawthorne effect, and ecological fallacy are all subtypes of information bias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the least dependable indicator of long-term alcohol misuse? ...

    Correct

    • What is the least dependable indicator of long-term alcohol misuse?

      Your Answer: Abdominal striae

      Explanation:

      Hepatomegaly

      Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to hepatomegaly, which is an enlargement of the liver. This can be detected on physical examination by palpating the liver below the right ribcage. Hepatomegaly can also be associated with other signs of liver disease, such as jaundice, spider naevi, and caput medusa. It is important for psychiatrists to be aware of these physical findings in patients with alcohol use disorder, as they may indicate the need for further medical evaluation and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is a characteristic physical trait of individuals with bulimia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic physical trait of individuals with bulimia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Lanugo hair

      Correct Answer: Bilateral parotid gland swelling

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is a condition characterized by recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors such as vomiting, laxative use, of excessive exercise. One of the hallmark physical symptoms of bulimia nervosa is bilateral swelling of the parotid glands, which are located on either side of the face near the ears. This swelling is caused by repeated vomiting and can be a visible sign of the disorder. Other symptoms of bulimia nervosa may include dental problems, gastrointestinal issues, and electrolyte imbalances. The International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision (ICD-10) classifies bulimia nervosa as F50.2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History And Mental State
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is a true statement about Torsades de pointes? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Torsades de pointes?

      Your Answer: It is associated with PR interval prolongation

      Correct Answer: It is often transient

      Explanation:

      Torsades de pointes may not be present on an ECG even if the patient experiences recurring episodes, as it has a tendency to appear and disappear.

      QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification

      The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.

      Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - How can the effectiveness of executive function be tested, and which test is...

    Incorrect

    • How can the effectiveness of executive function be tested, and which test is the least effective?

      Your Answer: Similarities and differences

      Correct Answer: Digit span

      Explanation:

      While digit span is primarily used to assess working memory, it also involves executive attention, which is a component shared by tests of working memory capacity and executive function. Therefore, digit span cannot be considered solely a test of working memory.

      The mental state exam assesses various areas of cognition, including orientation, attention/concentration, short term memory, long term memory, and executive function. Standard tests for each area include asking about time, place, and person for orientation, serial 7’s for attention/concentration, digit span for short term memory, delayed recall of name and address for long term memory, and various tasks such as proverbs, similarities, differences, verbal fluency, and cognitive estimates for executive function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - As the liaison psychiatry doctor on-call, you are requested to assess a 42-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • As the liaison psychiatry doctor on-call, you are requested to assess a 42-year-old male patient in the early hours of the morning on a general medical ward. He was admitted with pancreatitis twelve hours ago and has been medically cleared. The patient has no significant past medical of psychiatric history, but he has become paranoid and delusional, believing that there are bugs crawling under his skin. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Illicit drug induced psychosis

      Correct Answer: Delirium tremens (DTs)

      Explanation:

      The presence of acute psychosis, visual hallucinations, and formications in an individual with pancreatitis likely caused by alcohol suggests severe alcohol withdrawal of DTs, which should have been prevented with prophylactic treatment using Librium (chlordiazepoxide). Schizophrenia is improbable due to the patient’s age, sudden onset of symptoms, and lack of first rank symptoms. Korsakoff’s of amnesic syndrome typically precedes Wernicke’s, and parenteral Pabrinex (thiamine) is usually administered prophylactically. Since the patient was an inpatient, it is unlikely that he had access to illicit drugs, and the absence of post-seizure psychosis rules out that possibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      44.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A middle-aged man named John presents to the Emergency department with self-harm. The...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man named John presents to the Emergency department with self-harm. The trigger for this was his wife asking him for a divorce.
      John informs you that he could have been a successful businessman himself had he chosen and wants to know your exact income. He then asks to speak to your supervisor instead, and when you explain this is not possible, he refuses to continue the interview, saying that he is a financial expert and can be treated only by professionals.
      His wife, who brought him in, explains that she can no longer cope with the patient's selfishness and lack of consideration. Things came to a head last night when she was upset and was crying. John stormed into her room to complain that the noise was keeping him awake. He then accused his wife of doing this purposively because she envied John's financial success. One of her friends went to college with John and says he has always been like this.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Based on the collateral history provided, it is more likely that the individual is exhibiting a personality disorder rather than a mental illness. Specifically, the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for narcissistic personality disorder may be applicable. This disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy, which typically begins in early adulthood and is present in various contexts. To meet the diagnostic criteria, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following: a grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success of power, a belief that they are special and unique, a need for excessive admiration, a sense of entitlement, interpersonal exploitation, a lack of empathy, envy of others, and arrogant or haughty behaviors or attitudes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Who first recognized the four principles of therapeutic communities as democracy, permissiveness, reality...

    Incorrect

    • Who first recognized the four principles of therapeutic communities as democracy, permissiveness, reality confrontation, and communalism?

      Your Answer: Tom Main

      Correct Answer: Robert Rapoport

      Explanation:

      Important Figures in the Development of Therapeutic Communities

      Therapeutic communities have been an important approach to treating mental health and addiction issues for decades. Robert Rapoport introduced the four principles of therapeutic communities in his 1960 book Community as Doctor: New Perspectives on Therapeutic Community. These principles include reality confrontation, permissiveness, democracy, and communalism. In the late 1990s, Rex Haigh updated Rapoport’s four themes and added a fifth principle, attachment.

      Wilfred Bion led some of the earliest experiments in the 1940s into therapeutic communities in the UK. The Northfield experiments were an attempt to rehabilitate soldiers into the army. However, at the time, these experiments were viewed as unsuccessful and were stopped after six weeks.

      Tom Main is credited with coining the term ‘therapeutic community’ in his 1946 paper The hospital as a therapeutic institution. It is important to note that Donald Winnicott, who coined the term a good enough mother, is not directly related to the development of therapeutic communities.

      These figures have played a significant role in the development and evolution of therapeutic communities, which continue to be an important approach to mental health and addiction treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing SIADH?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing SIADH?

      Your Answer: Male gender

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which structure is responsible for the secretion of glucocorticoids in the HPA axis?...

    Correct

    • Which structure is responsible for the secretion of glucocorticoids in the HPA axis?

      Your Answer: The adrenal gland

      Explanation:

      HPA Axis Dysfunction in Mood Disorders

      The HPA axis, which includes regulatory neural inputs and a feedback loop involving the hypothalamus, pituitary, and adrenal glands, plays a central role in the stress response. Excessive secretion of cortisol, a glucocorticoid hormone, can lead to disruptions in cellular functioning and widespread physiologic dysfunction. Dysregulation of the HPA axis is implicated in mood disorders such as depression and bipolar affective disorder.

      In depressed patients, cortisol levels often do not decrease as expected in response to the administration of dexamethasone, a synthetic corticosteroid. This abnormality in the dexamethasone suppression test is thought to be linked to genetic of acquired defects of glucocorticoid receptors. Tricyclic antidepressants have been shown to increase expression of glucocorticoid receptors, whereas this is not the case for SSRIs.

      Early adverse experiences can produce long standing changes in HPA axis regulation, indicating a possible neurobiological mechanism whereby childhood trauma could be translated into increased vulnerability to mood disorder. In major depression, there is hypersecretion of cortisol, corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), and ACTH, and associated adrenocortical enlargement. HPA abnormalities have also been found in other psychiatric disorders including Alzheimer’s and PTSD.

      In bipolar disorder, dysregulation of ACTH and cortisol response after CRH stimulation have been reported. Abnormal DST results are found more often during depressive episodes in the course of bipolar disorder than in unipolar disorder. Reduced pituitary volume secondary to LHPA stimulation, resulting in pituitary hypoactivity, has been observed in bipolar patients.

      Overall, HPA axis dysfunction is implicated in mood disorders, and understanding the underlying mechanisms may lead to new opportunities for treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the most effective tool to use when suspecting a brain hemorrhage...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective tool to use when suspecting a brain hemorrhage in an emergency situation?

      Your Answer: CT

      Explanation:

      Neuroimaging techniques can be divided into structural and functional types, although this distinction is becoming less clear as new techniques emerge. Structural techniques include computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which use x-rays and magnetic fields, respectively, to produce images of the brain’s structure. Functional techniques, on the other hand, measure brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow of oxygen consumption. These include functional MRI (fMRI), emission tomography (PET and SPECT), perfusion MRI (pMRI), and magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS). Some techniques, such as diffusion tensor imaging (DTI), combine both structural and functional information to provide a more complete picture of the brain’s anatomy and function. DTI, for example, uses MRI to estimate the paths that water takes as it diffuses through white matter, allowing researchers to visualize white matter tracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is a true statement about Argyll Robertson pupils? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Argyll Robertson pupils?

      Your Answer: They show a reduced or absent response to accommodation

      Correct Answer: They are a feature of late-stage syphilis

      Explanation:

      Argyll Robertson Pupil: Accommodation Retained

      The Argyll Robertson pupil is a notable topic in medical exams, as it is associated with tertiary syphilis, which is a crucial differential diagnosis for various psychiatric conditions like mood disorders, dementia, and psychosis. This type of pupil reacts poorly to light but normally to near stimuli, such as accommodation and convergence. They are typically small and irregular in shape, but they do not usually affect visual acuity. Mydriatic agents are not effective in dilating the Argyll Robertson pupil. Although this type of pupil is often considered pathognomonic of tertiary syphilis, it has also been observed in diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A toy company is assessing a new product for children's cognitive development. What...

    Incorrect

    • A toy company is assessing a new product for children's cognitive development. What scale would be the most effective in evaluating the impact of the new educational toy?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Scale for assessment of positive (SAPS) and assessment of negative symptoms (SANS)

      Explanation:

      Several scales are utilized to assess the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia, including the assessment of positive symptoms (SAPS) and assessment of negative symptoms (SANS). These scales are commonly used in research to evaluate the effectiveness of new medications. The global assessment of functioning scale is used by clinicians to determine a patient’s overall level of functioning. The Hamilton rating scale for depression (HAM-D) is a useful tool for monitoring the severity of depression and measuring the impact of treatment. Additionally, the schedule for affective disorders and schizophrenia (SADS) was created to standardize the diagnostic evaluation of psychiatric symptoms and reduce variability in information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - This is an example of automatic obedience. We can provide more details as...

    Incorrect

    • This is an example of automatic obedience. We can provide more details as the psychiatrist uses only a minimal amount of force to move the patient's arm, which is an instance of mitgehen. Mitgehen is an extreme form of automatic obedience.

      Your Answer: Waxy flexibility

      Correct Answer: Mitgehen

      Explanation:

      The examiner’s use of minimal force to move the patient’s arm is an instance of automatic obedience, but it can be categorized more precisely as mitgehen, which represents a heightened form of automatic obedience.

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A young adult presents with a 2 year history of an unusual movement...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult presents with a 2 year history of an unusual movement disorder associated with memory problems. He denies any past psychiatric history but does recall that one of his parents died early from a similar movement problem. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gilles de la Tourette's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Huntington's disease

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s Disease: Genetics and Pathology

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. It is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which is located on chromosome 4. The mutation involves an abnormal expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence (CAG), which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells.

      The severity of the disease and the age of onset are related to the number of CAG repeats. Normally, the CAG sequence is repeated less than 27 times, but in Huntington’s disease, it is repeated many more times. The disease shows anticipation, meaning that it tends to worsen with each successive generation.

      The symptoms of Huntington’s disease typically begin in the third of fourth decade of life, but in rare cases, they can appear in childhood of adolescence. The most common symptoms include involuntary movements (chorea), cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances.

      The pathological hallmark of Huntington’s disease is the gross bilateral atrophy of the head of the caudate and putamen, which are regions of the brain involved in movement control. The EEG of patients with Huntington’s disease shows a flattened trace, indicating a loss of brain activity.

      Macroscopic pathological findings include frontal atrophy, marked atrophy of the caudate and putamen, and enlarged ventricles. Microscopic findings include neuronal loss and gliosis in the cortex, neuronal loss in the striatum, and the presence of inclusion bodies in the neurons of the cortex and striatum.

      In conclusion, Huntington’s disease is a devastating genetic disorder that affects the brain and causes a range of motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. The disease is caused by a mutation in the Huntington gene, which leads to the production of a toxic protein that damages brain cells. The pathological changes in the brain include atrophy of the caudate and putamen, neuronal loss, and the presence of inclusion bodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is the mechanism of action of memantine? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of memantine?

      Your Answer: Antiamyloid aggregation

      Correct Answer: NMDA receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Although cholinergic agents have been tested in Alzheimer’s disease, they have shown limited effectiveness. On the other hand, memantine, a N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor antagonist, works by reducing the impact of glutamate mediated toxicity and has shown promise in treating the disease. Additionally, anti-amyloid strategies are currently being developed and, if successful, could directly target the disease process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the most frequently occurring genetic mutation in individuals with early onset...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently occurring genetic mutation in individuals with early onset familial Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: PSEN1

      Explanation:

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Who is considered the foremost advocate of phenomenological psychopathology? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is considered the foremost advocate of phenomenological psychopathology?

      Your Answer: Kurt Schneider

      Correct Answer: Karl Jaspers

      Explanation:

      In the late 19th and early 20th Century, Karl Jaspers was among a group of renowned German psychiatrists based in Heidelberg. His 1913 work, General Psychopathology, was a significant contribution to the field of clinical psychiatry. Meanwhile, Kraepelin advocated for the separation of ‘dementia praecox’ and manic-depression, while Bleuler introduced the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - At what age and in what form does the earliest developmental fear typically...

    Correct

    • At what age and in what form does the earliest developmental fear typically manifest?

      Your Answer: Strangers

      Explanation:

      The fear of new things, such as unfamiliar people, can be observed in infants as young as 6 months old. Children between the ages of 3-5 years may develop fears of animals, monsters, and the dark. Around 6-11 years old, children may start to fear social embarrassment. Adolescents may begin to experience fear of death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which renowned French doctor is attributed with implementing kinder care for patients in...

    Incorrect

    • Which renowned French doctor is attributed with implementing kinder care for patients in mental institutions in Paris during the year 1793?

      Your Answer: de Clérambault

      Correct Answer: Pinel

      Explanation:

      In 1793, Philippe Pinel was entrusted with the care of inmates at the Bicêtre Hospital in Paris, where he is renowned for his efforts in liberating patients from their chains and introducing a new approach to treatment known as ‘moral treatment’. This progressive method had already been adopted by a handful of other reformers in Britain and other countries. Bleuler, a Swiss psychiatrist, is credited with coining the term ‘schizophrenia’, while de Clérambault’s name is associated with a syndrome characterized by delusions of love (erotomania). Esquirol, on the other hand, was a student of Pinel, and Mesmer was a German physician who gained notoriety for his belief in ‘animal magnetism’ of ‘mesmerism’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old bipolar patient tells his therapist that he plans to harm his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old bipolar patient tells his therapist that he plans to harm his ex-girlfriend who he believes is stalking him. He claims that his delusions are telling him to take action. The therapist decides to notify the ex-girlfriend and the authorities. What legal obligation does the therapist have to warn and protect the potential victim?

      Your Answer: Tarasoff I

      Correct Answer: Tarasoff II

      Explanation:

      The Durham rule states that an individual cannot be held criminally responsible if their unlawful actions were a result of a mental disease of defect. The M’Naghten rule, on the other hand, states that a person is not guilty by reason of insanity if they were unaware of the nature and quality of their actions due to a mental disease, of if they knew their actions were wrong. Additionally, the common law principle of necessity allows for reasonable force and necessary treatment to be used on individuals who lack capacity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What is the term used to describe the process of replacing gaps in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the process of replacing gaps in memory with inaccurate details?

      Your Answer: Jamais vu

      Correct Answer: Confabulation

      Explanation:

      The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 28 - What is the term used to describe the defense mechanism that involves forgetting...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe the defense mechanism that involves forgetting certain memories due to motivation?

      Your Answer: Repression

      Explanation:

      Motivated forgetting refers to the intentional or unintentional act of suppressing or repressing distressing memories. Suppression is a conscious form of motivated forgetting, while repression is a subconscious form.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      14.1
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  • Question 29 - What kind of hallucination is it when a man hears a woman scream...

    Incorrect

    • What kind of hallucination is it when a man hears a woman scream every time the light turns on?

      Your Answer: Hypnagogic

      Correct Answer: Reflex

      Explanation:

      Functional refers to the use of the same type of sensory input.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 30 - You are requested to assess a 40-year-old male patient who is currently admitted...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a 40-year-old male patient who is currently admitted to the hospital for treatment of severe depression. The nursing staff reports that he is experiencing tachycardia, hypertension, and has a fever of 38°C. Upon examination, you observe that the patient is confused and exhibiting myoclonus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serotonin syndrome is a serious condition that can be life-threatening and presents with a variety of symptoms affecting cognitive, autonomic, and somatic functions. It can be mistaken for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), but the presence of myoclonus can help differentiate between the two conditions. Treatment involves discontinuing medications and, in severe cases, using a serotonin antagonist. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage agitation. Akathisia is a type of movement disorder, while hyperthermia can occur in both serotonin syndrome and NMS. Encephalopathy refers to a general dysfunction of the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (3/6) 50%
Substance Misuse/Addictions (0/1) 0%
Neurosciences (2/3) 67%
Classification And Assessment (2/8) 25%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (0/1) 0%
History And Mental State (0/1) 0%
Diagnosis (0/2) 0%
History Of Psychiatry (0/3) 0%
Description And Measurement (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (1/1) 100%
Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
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