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  • Question 1 - Which of the following could be an indicator of possible language delay in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following could be an indicator of possible language delay in an otherwise well child?

      Your Answer: A family history of hereditary deafness

      Explanation:

      In the first few years of life the developing sensory inputs are important. Hearing is essential for speech and language development and may be delayed when a child cannot hear. Therefore any child with a family history of hereditary deafness should be screened. From about 4-6months babies are able to laugh and babble when excited or unhappy. By the age of 9 months the child should be able to bring together groups of same sound syllables and be able to say one or two words by the 1st birthday. If a child is unable to babble by 10-12 years, it may indicate hearing impairment. By the age of 2 a child should be able to speak in 1 or 2 word phrases and often repeats phrases used by others, known as Echolalia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding the features of Graves disease?

      Your Answer: Association with HLA-DR3

      Explanation:

      Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder in which patients present with thyrotoxicosis and related ophthalmopathy, and dermopathy. Many affected patients experience hyperthyroidism. Peak incidence of graves disease is after the 3rd decade of life and is more common in women than in men. Graves susceptibility is association with HLA-DR3. Clinical features of Graves disease include an increased metabolic rate, heat intolerance, irritability, weight loss despite increasing appetite, diarrhoea palpitations, chemosis, acropachy and onycholysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 2 month old baby presents to the clinic with vomiting. On examination...

    Correct

    • A 2 month old baby presents to the clinic with vomiting. On examination he has ambiguous genitalia. The lab results are as follows: Na: 125mmol/L, K: 6mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) comprises a group of autosomal recessive defects in enzymes that are responsible for cortisol, aldosterone, and, in very rare cases, androgen synthesis. All forms of CAH are characterized by low levels of cortisol, high levels of ACTH, and adrenal hyperplasia. The exact clinical manifestations depend on the enzyme defect. The most common form of CAH, which is caused by a deficiency of 21β-hydroxylase, presents with hypotension, ambiguous genitalia, and virilization (in the female genotype), and/or precocious puberty (in both males and females). It is further characterized by hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Increased levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone confirm the diagnosis of 21β-hydroxylase deficiency. Treatment of CAH involves lifelong glucocorticoid replacement therapy. Patients with a 21β-hydroxylase deficiency also require mineralocorticoid replacement with fludrocortisone. Complications of CAH include severe hypoglycaemia, adrenal insufficiency, and/or a failure to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for...

    Incorrect

    • The use of prostaglandin to keep the ductus arteriosus open is necessary for which of the following?

      Your Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous return with obstruction

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid atresia

      Explanation:

      Tricuspid atresia is the third most common form of cyanotic congenital heart disease, with a prevalence of 0.3-3.7% in patients with congenital heart disease. The deformity consists of a complete lack of formation of the tricuspid valve with the absence of a direct connection between the right atrium and right ventricle.The following 3 considerations guide the treatment of infants with tricuspid atresia:- The amount of pulmonary blood flow must be regulated to decrease hypoxemia or symptoms of congestive heart failure.- Myocardial function, the integrity of the pulmonary vascular bed, and pulmonary vascular integrity must be preserved to optimize conditions for a later Fontan operation.- The risk of bacterial endocarditis and thromboembolism must be minimized.Infants with decreased pulmonary blood flow: encompasses most of the infants with tricuspid atresia.Marked cyanosis and hypoxemia characterize the clinical course. Acidaemia may occur if the hypoxemia is profound, and death can ensue.Promptly treat infants with severe hypoxemia with prostaglandin E infusions to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus and improve pulmonary blood flow.Infants with increased pulmonary blood flow: These infants have an associated unrestrictive ventricular septal defect and transposed great vessels.They present with severe congestive heart failure and benefit from digitalis and diuretic therapy until an operative intervention can be undertaken to restrict the pulmonary blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia?

      Your Answer: Venous blood haemoglobin >17g/dL

      Correct Answer: Venous blood haematocrit > 65%

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is described as an abnormal increase in the red cell mass. As this influences hyper-viscosity, a peripheral venous sample of blood haematocrit can be used to determine the packed cell volume. Polycythaemia is present if the venous haematocrit is >65% or <22g/dl if converted into a haemoglobin value. Though it is the method of choice for screening, capillary blood samples obtained though heel pricks in new-born may be as much as 15% higher than venous samples and thus high values must be confirmed with a venous sample.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Orbital involvement

      Correct Answer: Inflammation of fat cells under the skin

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme is a skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like lesions. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting, mostly appearing on the distal extremities along with palmoplantar involvement. The disease affects the mucous membrane and orbits as well. The most common infectious cause is herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Inflammation of the adipocytes underlying the skin is referred to as erythema nodosum, and it is not a feature of EM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents to the emergency after being involved in a fight outside a club and being beaten with a baseball bat. Under observation his GCS deteriorates, and he becomes comatose. Which of the following parameters are most likely to be present during this condition?

      Your Answer: Hypertension and bradycardia

      Explanation:

      Cushing reflex is a physiological nervous system response to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that results in Cushing’s triad of increased blood pressure, irregular breathing, and bradycardia. It is usually seen in the terminal stages of acute head injury and may indicate imminent brain herniation. It can also be seen after the intravenous administration of epinephrine and similar drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In a premature infant boy, an inguinal hernia will most likely: ...

    Correct

    • In a premature infant boy, an inguinal hernia will most likely:

      Your Answer: Recur after surgery

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias are a common surgical condition in preterm male infants. Surgical repair is usually suggested shortly after birth due to a fear of incarceration or strangulation. These hernias are often indirect as they pass though the processes vaginalis, rather than the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Recurrence of the hernia is the most common post operative complication. While other complications can occur if left un-repaired, hydrocele and testicular atrophy are not as common, neither is spontaneous resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 5 week old baby presents to the ward with a history of...

    Correct

    • A 5 week old baby presents to the ward with a history of projectile, non-bilious vomiting which takes place after feeding. The baby seems to have a normal appetite but hasn’t gained weight. You suspect pyloric stenosis. What initial test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Capillary blood gas

      Explanation:

      One of the features of pyloric stenosis is hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. In emergency settings, capillary blood gas is the easiest and fastest way to establish a sustainable suspicion of pyloric stenosis. However, all tests are useful for the diagnosis of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?...

    Correct

    • Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?

      Your Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. The consequences of this deficiency are numerous electrolyte and acid-base imbalances, which include hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, and dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 5 year old boy took a fall on his outstretched hand and...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old boy took a fall on his outstretched hand and presents to the emergency with pain around his elbow. On examination, the radial pulse is found to be absent on the affected side. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Angulated supracondylar fracture

      Explanation:

      A supracondylar humerus fracture is a fracture of the distal humerus just above the elbow joint. The fracture is usually transverse or oblique and above the medial and lateral condyles and epicondyles. This fracture pattern is relatively rare in adults, but is the most common type of elbow fracture in children. They are historically associated with morbidity due to malunion, neurovascular complications, and compartment syndrome. Important arteries and nerves ( median nerve, radial nerve, brachial artery, and ulnar nerve) are located at the supracondylar area and can give rise to complications if these structures are injured. Most vulnerable structure to get damaged is Median Nerve. Damage/occlusion of the brachial artery is the cause of an absent radial pulse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to...

    Correct

    • What is the optimal pressure to be used when providing inflation breaths to a term new-born who is unable to breathe spontaneously?

      Your Answer: 30 cmH2O

      Explanation:

      According per the national guidelines, 5 inflation breaths should be given with a gas pressure of 30cmH2O for term babies. Each breath should be given for 2-3 seconds. Pre-term babies should be aerated with a lower pressure of 20-25cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following is true regarding erythema nodosum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding erythema nodosum?

      Your Answer: The nodules nearly always ulcerate, often causing scarring

      Correct Answer: It is associated with streptococcal infections

      Explanation:

      Erythema nodosum (EN) is an acute, nodular, erythematous eruption that usually is limited to the extensor aspects of the lower legs. Chronic or recurrent erythema nodosum is rare but may occur.Currently, the most common cause of erythema nodosum is streptococcal infection in children and streptococcal infection and sarcoidosis in adults.The eruptive phase of erythema nodosum begins with flulike symptoms of fever and generalized aching. Arthralgia may occur and precedes the eruption or appears during the eruptive phase. Most lesions in infection-induced erythema nodosum heal within 7 weeks, but active disease may last up to 18 weeks. In contrast, 30% of idiopathic erythema nodosum cases may last more than 6 months. Febrile illness with dermatologic findings includes abrupt onset of illness with initial fever, followed by a painful rash within 1-2 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following signs suggests an absence seizure instead of a partial...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following signs suggests an absence seizure instead of a partial complex seizure?

      Your Answer: The presence of aura

      Correct Answer: Induction by hyperventilation

      Explanation:

      Absence seizures are induced by over breathing or hyperventilation, while the other features suggest partial seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents with an enlarging penis, testes...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought by his parents with an enlarging penis, testes volumes of 4 ml bilaterally, and some sparse hair in his pubic region. His height remains on his usual (2nd) centile. His doctor thinks this is most likely to be due to a pathological cause and investigates further. He finds a delayed bone age.What is the most probable diagnosis for this boy?

      Your Answer: Primary hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this boy is primary hypothyroidism.Rationale:The development of secondary sexual characteristics in a boy aged less than 9 years of age is highly suggestive of precocious puberty.Around 80% of boys with precocious puberty have pathological causes and require detailed investigation. In this case, the child has long-standing short stature but coupled with the early puberty and delay in bone age, the diagnosis is primary hypothyroidism, which is the only cause of this clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 14-year-old female was found to have a 1/6 systolic ejection murmur on...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old female was found to have a 1/6 systolic ejection murmur on regular check-up and was subsequently referred to a cardiologist. A thorough physical examination reveals long upper extremities with thin slender fingers, with a high arched palate and excessive ligamentous laxity. Her thumb can be bent back easily to touch her radius. ECG reveals sinus bradycardia that is consistent with aerobic conditioning. She also had an echo done. In reference to her most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most serious cardiac complication associated to this condition?

      Your Answer: Long QT syndrome

      Correct Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue found throughout the body, Marfan syndrome can affect many systems, often causing abnormalities in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, bones, and joints. The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and aortic root disease, leading to aneurysmal dilatation, aortic regurgitation and dissection is the main cause of morbidity and mortality in Marfan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following movements will most likely be lost following an injury...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following movements will most likely be lost following an injury to the spinal part of the accessory nerve?

      Your Answer: Protraction of the scapula

      Correct Answer: Upward rotation of the scapula

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve XI is also known as the accessory nerve. The accessory nerve innervates the trapezius muscle which retracts the scapula. The upper and lower fibres act together to also upwardly rotate it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In males, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual...

    Incorrect

    • In males, precocious puberty may be defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics before which of the following ages?

      Your Answer: 8 years of age

      Correct Answer: 9 years of age

      Explanation:

      Precocious Puberty is the development of secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 in females, and 9 in males. The first sign of early puberty in males is testicular enlargement, followed by growth of the penis and the scrotum at least a year after. Precocious puberty in boys in uncommon and usually has an organic cause leading to excess secretion of testosterone. These can be gonadotrophin dependent in the case of an inter cranial lesion, where the testes would be bilaterally enlarged, or from excess production from the adrenal gland in the case of adrenal hyperplasia or a tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - In term babies with persistent jaundice, what is the time period over which...

    Incorrect

    • In term babies with persistent jaundice, what is the time period over which one must consider biliary atresia as the probable cause?

      Your Answer: 21 days

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      After a period of 14 days, if jaundice persists in a term new-born, having ruled out the other possibilities, biliary atresia should be considered as a possible diagnosis.Biliary atresia is a rare but serious condition. Symptoms include obstructive jaundice (dark urine and pale stool). Management:Surgery within 8 weeks is recommended. Survival is around 90% using current treatment regimes. Without treatment, children will survive to around 18 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 8 year old boy presented with easy bruising following falls. FBC showed...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old boy presented with easy bruising following falls. FBC showed leucocytosis and thrombocytopenia with normal haemoglobin levels. His ESR was high and Paul-Bunnell test was positive. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP)

      Correct Answer: Glandular fever

      Explanation:

      Glandular fever (Infectious Mononucleosis) is caused by Epstein–Barr virus (EBV). Leucocytosis rules in infectious mononucleosis and thrombocytopenia is not an uncommon association. ESR is elevated in most of the cases. Paul-Bunnell test is a rapid test for infectious mononucleosis due to Epstein–Barr virus (EBV).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      60.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The following is true about the constituents of breast milk: ...

    Correct

    • The following is true about the constituents of breast milk:

      Your Answer: Main protein in breast-milk is whey, which is more digestible than cow’s milk protein casein.

      Explanation:

      Mature human breast milk is nutrient and enzyme rich, optimal for human infants. The average calorie requirement for a one month old infant is about 100kcal/kg/day. Lactose, the most abundant carbohydrate, is beneficial for the baby’s developing gastro intestinal system. The proteins in mature milk are mostly whey (as compared to a high proportion of casein in cows milk), which digests easily. Other proteins found in breast milk include immunoglobulin, lysozyme, lactoferrin and lactalbumin. In terms of micronutrients, while Vitamin K levels are low in breast milk, Vitamin A, C and E are found in higher concentrations than in cow’s milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency by his parents. Which of the following would be a contraindication for the baby's discharge from the hospital?

      Your Answer: Temperature of 38.5 oC

      Correct Answer: Any one of the above

      Explanation:

      Any 2-month-old child presenting with any of the above signs, should be assessed and have a history taken and physical examination made before discharge. As these may all be signs and symptoms for a condition requiring hospitalisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?

      Your Answer: Caecum

      Explanation:

      The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 15-year-old boy is referred to you as his primary physician had incidentally...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy is referred to you as his primary physician had incidentally noticed protein in the urine on two occasions when the child came to see him after school. The boy is otherwise healthy and has no signs of oedema or recent infection. The urine dipstick you obtain is negative for protein when you review him in the early morning hours. What is the most likely cause of proteinuria in this child?

      Your Answer: Orthostatic proteinuria

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical presentation, the child probably has orthostatic proteinuria.Orthostatic proteinuria occurs when the kidneys can conserve urine when the patient is recumbent, such as sleeping at night, but leak protein with standing or in exercise. This results in early morning urine being negative for protein but late in the day urine being positive. It is mostly seen in tall thin adolescents and is benign. Other options:- Alport’s syndrome is a hereditary condition associated with haematuria and deafness. – Urinary tract infections can cause proteinuria, but leucocyte esterase and nitrites would also be expected in a child of this age. – Nephritic syndrome can be associated with proteinuria, but haematuria would also be present. – In nephrotic syndrome, proteinuria would be present on all occasions and associated with oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities? ...

    Correct

    • Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Silver-Russell syndrome

      Explanation:

      Macrosomia can be defined as either a birth weight greater than 4kg or birth weight greater than 90% for the gestational age. Risk factors for macrosomia include maternal diabetes, excessive gestational weight gain, pre-pregnancy obesity, male gender, ethnicity, and advanced gestational age. Genetic conditions associated with macrosomia are Bardet-Biedl syndrome, Perlman syndrome, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Silver-Russell syndrome is associated with intrauterine growth retardation and post-natal failure to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of eating disorders? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of eating disorders?

      Your Answer: Evidence-based self-help programme is first line in patients with bulimia

      Explanation:

      Most individuals with eating disorders do not receive treatment. The treatment gap may involve individuals’ attitudes about accessing various types of treatment, as well as perceived barriers to seeking treatment. Therapies to be considered for the psychological treatment of anorexia nervosa include cognitive analytic therapy (CAT), cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT), interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), focal psychodynamic therapy and family interventions focused explicitly on eating disorders.The first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. Antidepressants may be helpful for patients with substantial concurrent symptoms of depression, anxiety, obsessions, or certain impulse disorder symptoms. They may be particularly good for patients who have not benefited from or had suboptimal response to suitable psychosocial therapy or who have a chronic, difficult course in combination with other treatments.Acute pharmacologic treatment of anorexia nervosa is rarely required. However, vitamin supplementation with calcium should be started in patients, and although oestrogen has no established effect on bone density in patients with anorexia nervosa, oestrogen replacement (i.e., oral contraceptives) has been recommended for the treatment of osteopenia. Note: Oestrogen should not be used in children (due to premature fusion of the bones).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following are not a recognized feature of Down's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are not a recognized feature of Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: A third fontanelle

      Correct Answer: Ataxic gait

      Explanation:

      Ataxic gait is not a direct association of Down’s syndrome. All other given responses are associated with Down’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of developmental...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)?

      Your Answer: Polyhydramnios

      Correct Answer: Breech presentation

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia (DDH) of the hip refers to patients who are born with a dislocated or unstable hip due to abnormal development of the hip. Female infants and first born infants are most likely to present with DDH. Other risk factors for DDH include, breech positioning, oligohydramnios, high birth weight or post date babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body?

      Your Answer: Zona fasciculata of the adrenal

      Explanation:

      Zona fasciculata of the adrenal produces the maximum levels of cortisol in the body.Functions of cortisol:- Increases blood pressure: permits normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles.- Inhibits bone formation: decreases osteoblasts, type 1 collagen and absorption of calcium from the gut, and increases osteoclastic activity.- Increases insulin resistance.- Increases gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis.- Inhibits inflammatory and immune responses.- Maintains function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.An excess of corticosteroids in the body causes various symptoms that are a part of Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a...

    Correct

    • Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration. Which of these changes will decrease the rate of diffusion of a substance?

      Your Answer: An increase in the molecular weight of the substance

      Explanation:

      Unless given IV, a drug must cross several semipermeable cell membranes before it reaches the systemic circulation. Drugs may cross cell membranes by diffusion, amongst other mechanisms. The rate of diffusion of a substance is proportional to the difference in the concentration of the diffusing substance between the two sides of the membrane, the temperature of the solution, the permeability of the membrane and, in the case of ions, the electrical potential difference between the two sides of the membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluid And Electrolytes
      26.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Child Development (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (5/6) 83%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Neonatology (2/5) 40%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Emergency Medicine (1/2) 50%
Paediatric Surgery (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (0/2) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (1/1) 100%
Adolescent Health (1/1) 100%
Fluid And Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Passmed