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Question 1
Incorrect
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A participant of a metabolism study is to be fed only granulated sugar and water for 48 hours. What would be his expected respiratory quotient at the end of the study?
Your Answer: 0.9
Correct Answer: 1
Explanation:The respiratory quotient is the ratio of CO2 produced to O2 consumed while food is being metabolized:
RQ = CO2 eliminated/O2 consumed
Most energy sources are food containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Examples include fat, carbohydrates, protein, and ethanol. The normal range of respiratory coefficients for organisms in metabolic balance usually ranges from 1.0-0.7.
Granulated sugar is a refined carbohydrate with no significant fat, protein or ethanol content.
The RQ for carbohydrates is = 1.0
The RQ for the rest of the compounds are:
Fats RQ = 0.7
The chemical composition of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that fats contain considerably fewer oxygen atoms in proportion to atoms of carbon and hydrogen.Protein RQ = 0.8
Due to the complexity of various ways in which different amino acids can be metabolized, no single RQ can be assigned to the oxidation of protein in the diet; however, 0.8 is a frequently utilized estimate. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about fluid balance?
Your Answer: The microvascular endothelium separating interstitial fluid from the intravascular compartment is freely permeable to water
Correct Answer: After intravenous administration of crystalloids, the distribution of these fluids throughout the body depends on its osmotic activity
Explanation:When there is capillary leakage as seen in dependent oedema or ascites, oncotic pressure becomes a problem.
The intracellular sodium concentration is very sensitive to the extracellular sodium concentrations. When there is an imbalance, osmosis occurs resulting in shifts in water between the two compartments.
The microvascular endothelium relies upon osmosis and other processes as it is not freely permeable to water.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is true or false regarding to the respiratory tract?
Your Answer: Tithe oesophagus passes through the diaphragm at the level of the twelfth thoracic vertebra
Correct Answer: The sympathetic innervation of the bronchi is derived from T2 - T4
Explanation:The diaphragm has three opening through which different structures pass from the thoracic cavity to the abdominal cavity:
Inferior vena cava passes at the level of T8.
Oesophagus, oesophageal vessels and vagi at T10.
Aorta, thoracic duct and azygous vein through T12.
Sympathetic trunk and pulmonary branches of vagus nerve form a posterior pulmonary plexus at the root of the lung. Fibres continue posteriorly from superficial cardiac plexus to form Anterior pulmonary plexus. It contains vagi nerves and superficial cardiac plexus. These fibres then follow the blood vessel and bronchi into the lungs.
The lower border of the pleura is at the level of:
8th rib in the midclavicular line
10th rib in the lower level of midaxillary line
T12 at its termination.
Both lungs have oblique fissure while right lung has transverse fissure too.
The trachea expands from the lower edge of the cricoid cartilage (at the level of the 6th cervical vertebra) to the carina.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 4
Correct
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A patient was brought to the emergency room after passing black tarry stools. The initial diagnosis was upper gastrointestinal bleeding. The patient was placed on temporary nil per os (NPO) for the next 24 hours, his weight was 110 kg, and the required volume of intravenous fluid for the him was 3 litres. His electrolytes and other biochemistry studies were normal.
If you were to choose the intravenous fluid regimen that would closely mimic his basic electrolyte and caloric requirements, which one would be the best answer?Your Answer: 3000 mL 0.45% N. saline with 5% dextrose, each bag with 40 mmol of potassium
Explanation:The patient in the case has a fluid volume requirement of 30 mL/kg/day. His basic electrolyte requirement per day is:
Sodium at 2 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 220 mmol/day
Potassium at 1 mmol/kg/day x 110 = 110 mmol/dayHis energy requirement per day is:
35 kcal/kg/day x 110 kg = 3850 kcal/day
One gram of glucose in fluid can provide approximately 4 kilocalories.
The following are the electrolyte components of the different intravenous fluids:
Fluid Na (mmol/L) K (mmol/L)
0.9% Normal saline (NSS) 154 0
0.45% NSS + 5% dextrose 77 0
0.18% NSS + 4% dextrose 30 0
Hartmann’s 131 5
5% dextrose 0 01000 mL of 5% dextrose has 50 g of glucose
Option B is inadequate for his sodium and caloric requirements (30 mmol of Na+ and 560 kcal). It is adequate for his K+ requirement (120 mmol of K+).
Option C is in excess of his Na+ requirement (462 mmol of Na+). Moreover, it does not provide any K+ replacement.
Option D is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal) and K+ requirement (60 mmol of K+). Moreover it does not provide any Na+ replacement.
Option E is in excess of his Na+ requirement (393 mmol of Na+), and is inadequate for his potassium requirement (15 mmol of K+)
Option A has adequate amounts for his Na+ (231 mmol of Na+) and K+ (120 mmol of K+) requirements. It is inadequate for his caloric requirement (600 kcal).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 5
Correct
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Given the following values:
Expired tidal volume = 800 ml
Plateau pressure = 50 cmH2O
PEEP = 10 cmH2O
Compute for the static pulmonary compliance.Your Answer: 20 ml/cmH2O
Explanation:Compliance of the respiratory system describes the expandability of the lungs and chest wall. There are two types of compliance: dynamic and static.
Dynamic compliance describes the compliance measured during breathing, which involves a combination of lung compliance and airway resistance. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the presence of flow.
Static compliance describes pulmonary compliance when there is no airflow, like an inspiratory pause. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the absence of flow.
For example, if a person was to fill the lung with pressure and then not move it, the pressure would eventually decrease; this is the static compliance measurement. Dynamic compliance is measured by dividing the tidal volume, the average volume of air in one breath cycle, by the difference between the pressure of the lungs at full inspiration and full expiration. Static compliance is always a higher value than dynamic
Static compliance can be computed using the formula:
Cstat = Tidal volume/Plateau pressure – PEEP
Substituting the values given,
Cstat = 800/50-10
Cstat = 20 ml/cmH2O -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A transport ventilator connected to a size CD oxygen cylinder has a setting of air/oxygen entrainment ratio of 1:1 and a minute volume set at 10 litres/minute.
Which value best approximates to the FiO2?Your Answer: 0.4
Correct Answer: 0.6
Explanation:A nominal volume of 2 litres is contained in a CD cylinder. It has a pressure of 230 bar when full and contains litres 460 L of useable oxygen at STP.
For every 1000 mL 100% oxygen there will be an entrainment of 1000 mL or air (20% oxygen) in an air/oxygen mix.
The average concentration is, therefore, 120/2=60% or 0.6.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following, at a given PaO2, increases the oxygen content of arterial blood?
Your Answer: Pyrexia
Correct Answer: A reduced erythrocyte 2,3-diphosphoglycerate level
Explanation:The oxygen content of arterial blood can be calculated by the following equation:
(10 x haemoglobin x SaO2 x 1.34) + (PaO2 x 0.0225).
This is the sum of the oxygen bound to haemoglobin and the oxygen dissolved in the plasma.Oxygen content x cardiac output = The amount of oxygen delivered to the tissues in unit time which is known as the oxygen flux.
Any factor that increases the metabolic demand will encourage oxygen offloading from the haemoglobin in the tissues and this causes the oxygen dissociation curve (ODC) to shift to the right. This subsequently reduced the oxygen content of arterial blood.
Conditions like fever, metabolic or respiratory acidosis lowers the oxygen content and shifts the ODC to the right.
A low level of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is usually related to an increased oxygen content as there is less offloading, and so the ODC is shifted to the left.So for a given PaO2, a high blood oxygen content is related to any factors that can shift the ODC to the left and not to the right.
A low haematocrit usually means that there is a decreased haemoglobin concentration, and therefore is associated with decreased oxygen binding to haemoglobin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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The following is normally higher in concentration extracellularly than intracellularly
Your Answer: Sodium
Explanation:The ions found in higher concentrations intracellularly than outside the cells are:
ATP
AMP
Potassium
Phosphate, and
Magnesium Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)Sodium is a primarily extracellular ion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 20-year old male was involved in an accident and has presented to the Emergency Department with a pelvic crush injury.
The clinical exam according to ATLS protocol revealed the following:
Airway-patent
Breathing - respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute. Breath sounds are vesicular and there are no added sounds.
Circulation - Capillary refill time - 4 seconds. Peripheries are cool. Pulse 125 beats/min. BP - 125/95 mmHg.
Disability - GSC 15, anxious and in pain.
Secondary survey reveals no other injuries. The patient is administered high flow oxygen and IV access is established.
The most appropriate IV fluid regimen in this case will be which of the following?Your Answer: Judicious infusion of Hartmann's solution to maintain a systolic blood pressure greater than 90mmHg
Explanation:These clinical signs suggest that 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.
Pelvic fractures are associated with significant haemorrhage (>2000 ml) that can be concealed. This may require aggressive fluid resuscitation which is initially with crystalloids and then blood. What is also important is including stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.
The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:
Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
<750 ml of blood loss
Minimal tachycardia
No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
Patients do not normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma, this needs to be correct.Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines).
There are minimal systolic pressure changes.
There may be associated anxiety, fright or hostilityClass III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
Complicated haemorrhagic state – crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
There are classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure.
Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
Mental state is markedly depressed
Skin cold and pale.
Needs rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.A blood loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.
Fluid resuscitation following trauma is a controversial area.
This clinical scenario points to a 15-30% blood loss. However, further crystalloid and blood replacement may be required after assessing the clinical situation. There is increasing evidence to suggest that transfusion of large volumes of crystalloid in the hospital setting are likely to be deleterious to the patient and hypotensive resuscitation and judicious blood and blood product resuscitation is a more appropriate option. A ratio of 1 unit of plasma to 1 unit of red blood cells is used to replace fluid volume in adults.
This patient does not require immediate transfusion of O negative blood and there is time for a formal crossmatch. The argument about colloids versus crystalloids has existed for decades. However, while they have a role in fluid resuscitation, they are not first line.
There is a risk of anaphylaxis, Hypernatraemia, and acute renal injury with colloidal solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle (also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle)?
Your Answer: Krebs' cycle can function under anaerobic conditions
Correct Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule
Explanation:Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions in which acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA) is metabolised and this results in carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms production.
This series of reactions occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells, not the cytoplasm. The cycle requires oxygen and so, cannot function under anaerobic conditions.
It is the common pathway for carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids oxidation and is required for high energy phosphate bond formation in adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
When pyruvate enters the mitochondria, it is converted into acetyl-CoA. This represents the formation of a 2 carbon molecule from a 3 carbon molecule. There is loss of one CO2 but formation of one NADH molecule. Acetyl-CoA is condensed with oxaloacetate, the anion of a 4 carbon acid, to form citrate which is a 6 carbon molecule.
Citrate is then converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.
The only 5 carbon molecule in the cycle is alpha-ketoglutarate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A global cerebral blood flow (CBF) of 35 ml/100 g/min (Normal CBF = 54 ml/100 g/min) can lead to which of the following?
Your Answer: Irreversible brain damage
Correct Answer: Poor prognostic EEG
Explanation:CBF is defined as the blood volume that flows per unit mass per unit time in brain tissue and is typically expressed in units of ml blood/100 g tissue/minute. The normal average CBF in adults human is about 50 ml/100 g/min, with lower values in the white matter (,20 ml/100 g/min) and greater values in the gray matter (,80 ml/100 g/min).
Low CBF levels between 30-40 ml/100 g/min may begin to show poor prognostic EEG. EEG findings consistently associated with a poor outcome are isoelectric EEG, low voltage EEG, and burst suppression (specifically burst suppression with identical bursts), as well as the absence of EEG reactivity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Of the following, which option best describes the muscle type that has the fastest twitch response to stimulation?
Your Answer: Smooth muscle
Correct Answer: Type IIb skeletal muscle
Explanation:Human skeletal muscle is composed of a heterogeneous collection of muscle fibre types which differ histologically, biochemically and physiologically.
It can be biochemically classified into 2 groups. This is based on muscle fibre myosin ATPase histochemistry. These are:
Type 1 (slow twitch): Muscle fibres depend upon aerobic glycolytic metabolism and aerobic oxidative metabolism. They are rich in mitochondria, have a good blood supply, rich in myoglobin and are resistant to fatigue.
Type II (fast twitch): Muscle fibres are sub-divided into:
Type IIa – relies on aerobic/oxidative metabolism
Type IIb – relies on anaerobic/glycolytic metabolism.Fast twitch muscle fibres produce short bursts of power but are more easily fatigued.
Cardiac and smooth muscle twitches are relatively slow compared with skeletal muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in an adult?
Your Answer: Is mainly regulated by the autonomic nervous system
Correct Answer: Accounts for 15% of the cardiac output
Explanation:While the brain only weighs 3% of the body weight, 15% of the cardiac output goes towards the brain.
Between mean arterial pressures (MAP) of 60-130 mmHg, autoregulation of cerebral blood flow (CBF) occurs. Exceeding this, the CBF is maintained at a constant level. This is controlled mainly by the PaCO2 level, and the autonomic nervous system has minimal role.
Beyond these limits, the CBF is directly proportional to the MAP, not the systolic blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Concerning forced alkaline diuresis, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Involves infusing 200 ml of 8.4% sodium bicarbonate
Correct Answer: Can be used in a barbiturate overdose
Explanation:In situations of poisoning or drug overdose with acid dugs like salicylates and barbiturates, forced alkaline diuresis may be used.
With regards to overdose with alkaline drugs, forced acid diuresis is used.
By changing the pH of the urine, the ionised portion of the drug stays in the urine, and this prevents its diffusion back into the blood. Charged molecules do not readily cross biological membranes.
The process involves the infusion of specific fluids at a rate of about 500ml per hour. This requires monitoring of the central venous pressure, urine output, plasma electrolytes, especially potassium, and blood gas analysis.
The fluid regimen recommended is:
500ml of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate (not 200ml of 8.4%)
500ml of 5% dextrose and
500ml of 0.9% sodium chloride. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 15
Correct
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Which plasma protein will bind the thyroid hormone triiodothyronine (T3) more readily?
Your Answer: Thyroxine binding globulin
Explanation:Secreted T4 and T3 circulate in the bloodstream almost entirely bound to proteins. Normally only about 0.03% of total plasma T4 and 0.3% of total plasma T3 exist in the free state. Free T3 is biologically active and mediates the effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissues in addition to exerting negative feedback on the pituitary and hypothalamus. The major binding protein is thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which is synthesized in the liver and binds one molecule of T4 or T3. About 70% of circulating T4 and T3 is bound to TBGl 10% to 15% is bound to another specific thyroid-binding protein called transthyretin (TTR). Albumin binds 15% to 20%, and 3% to lipoproteins. Ordinarily only alterations in TBG concentration significantly affect total plasma T4 and T3 levels.
Two important biological functions have been ascribed to TBG. First, it maintains a large circulating reservoir of T4 that buffers any acute changes in thyroid gland function. Second, binding of plasma T4 and T3 to proteins prevents loss of these relatively small hormone molecules in urine and thereby helps conserve iodide. TTR transports T4 in CSF and provides thyroid hormones to the CNS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The Fick principle can be used to determine the blood flow to any organ of the body.
At rest, which one of these organs has the highest blood flow (ml/min/100g)?Your Answer: Kidney
Correct Answer: Thyroid gland
Explanation:After the carotid body, the thyroid gland is the second most richly vascular organ in the body.
The global blood flow to the thyroid gland can be measured using:
1. Colour ultrasound sonography
2. Quantitative perfusion maps using MRI of the thyroid gland using an arterial spin labelling (ASL) method.This table shows the blood flow to various organs of the body at rest:
Organ Blood Flow(ml/minute/100g)
Hepatoportal 58
Kidney 420
Brain 54
Skin 13
Skeletal muscle 2.7
Heart 87
Carotid body 2000
Thyroid gland 560 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In the fetal circulation, the cerebral and coronary circulations are preferentially supplied by oxygen-rich blood over other organs. This is possible because of which phenomenon?
Your Answer: Fetal brain receives a higher proportion of cardiac output
Correct Answer: Well oxygenated blood from the inferior vena cava is preferentially streamed across the patent foramen ovale
Explanation:During fetal development, blood oxygenated by the placenta flows to the foetus through the umbilical vein, bypasses the fetal liver through the ductus venosus, and returns to the fetal heart through the inferior vena cava.
Blood returning from the inferior vena cava then enters the right atrium and is preferentially shunted to the left atrium through the patent foramen ovale. Blood in the left atrium is then pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The oxygenated blood ejected through the ascending aorta is preferentially directed to the fetal coronary and cerebral circulations.
Deoxygenated blood returns from the superior vena cava to the right atrium and ventricle to be pumped into the pulmonary artery. Fetal pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR), however, is higher than fetal systemic vascular resistance (SVR); this forces deoxygenated blood to mostly bypass the fetal lungs. This poorly oxygenated blood enters the aorta through the patent ductus arteriosus and mixes with the well-oxygenated blood in the descending aorta. The mixed blood in the descending aorta then returns to the placenta for oxygenation through the two umbilical arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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If a large volume of 0.9% N. saline is administered during resuscitation, it is most likely to cause?
Your Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Crystalloids recommended for fluid resuscitation include 0.9% N saline and Hartmann’s solution(a physiological solution). 0.9% N. saline is not a physiological solution for the following reasons:
Compared with the normal range of 98-102 mmol/L, its chloride concentration is high (154 mmol/L)
It lacks calcium, magnesium, glucose and potassium
It does not have bicarbonate or bicarbonate precursor buffer necessary to maintain plasma pH within normal limitsThere is a difference in the activity (concentration) of strong ions at a physiological pH. This imbalance can explain abnormalities of acid base balance. A normal strong ion difference (SID) is in the order of 40.
SID = ([Na+] + [K+] + [Ca2+] + [Mg2+]) – ([Cl-] + [lactate] + [SO42-])
This imbalance is made up with the weaker anions to maintain electrical neutrality.
Administration of a large volume of 0.9% normal saline during resuscitation results in excessive chloride administration and this impairs renal bicarbonate reabsorption. The SID of 0.9% normal saline is 0 (Na+ = 154mmol/L and Cl- = 154mmol/L = 154 – 154 = 0). A large volume of NS will decrease the plasma SID causing an acidosis.Other causes of a hyperchloremic acidosis are:
Diabetic ketoacidosis
Total Parenteral Nutrition
Overdose of ammonium chloride and hydrochloric acid
Gastrointestinal losses of bicarbonate like in diarrhoea and pancreatic fistula
Proximal renal tubular acidosis with failure of bicarbonate reabsorption -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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The statement that best describes lactic acidosis is:
Your Answer: Skeletal muscles are important sites of lactate metabolism
Correct Answer: It can be precipitated by intravenous fructose
Explanation:An elevated arterial blood lactate level and an increase anion gap ([Na + K] – [Cl + HCO3]) of >20mmol gives rise to lactic acidosis. It can also be a result of overproduction and/or reduced metabolism of lactic acid.
The liver and kidney are the main sites of lactate metabolism, not skeletal muscle.
The two types of lactic acidosis that are known are:
Type A – due to tissue hypoxia, inadequate tissue perfusion and anaerobic glycolysis. These may be seen in cardiac arrest, shock, hypoxaemia and anaemia. The management of type A lactic acidosis involves reversing the underlying cause of the tissue hypoxia.
Type B – occurs in the absence of tissue hypoxia. Some of the causes of this include hepatic failure, renal failure, diabetes mellitus, pancreatitis and infection. Some drugs can also cause this lie aspirin, ethanol, methanol, biguanides and intravenous fructose.
The mainstay of treatment involves:
1. Optimising tissue oxygen delivery
2. Correcting the cause
3. Intravenous sodium bicarbonateIn resistant cases, peritoneal dialysis can be performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true in the Kreb's cycle?
Your Answer: Oxidative phosphorylation occurs within the cytoplasm
Correct Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule
Explanation:Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions to release stored energy through oxidation of acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA). Some of the products are carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms.
The sequence of reactions, known collectively as oxidative phosphorylation, only occurs in the mitochondria (not cytoplasm).
The Krebs cycle can only take place when oxygen is present, though it does not require oxygen directly, because it relies on the by-products from the electron transport chain, which requires oxygen. It is therefore considered an aerobic process. It is the common pathway for the oxidation of carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids, required for the formation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
Pyruvate enters the mitochondria and is converted into acetyl-CoA. Acetyl-CoA is then condensed with oxaloacetate, to form citrate which is a six carbon molecule. Citrate is subsequently converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.
The only five carbon molecule in the cycle is Alpha-ketoglutarate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman with myasthenia gravis is admitted to the ER with type II respiratory failure. There is a suspicion of myasthenic crisis.
She is in a semiconscious state. Her blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, pulse is 110 beats per minute, temperature is 37°C, and oxygen saturation is 84 percent.
With a PaCO2 of 75 mmHg (10 kPa) breathing air, blood gas analysis confirms she is hypoventilating.
Which of the following values is the most accurate representation of her alveolar oxygen tension (PAO2)?Your Answer: 9
Correct Answer: 7.3
Explanation:The following is the alveolar gas equation:
PAO2 = PiO2 − PaCO2/R
Where:
PAO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli.
PiO2 is the partial pressure of oxygen inhaled.
PaCO2 stands for partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arteries.
The amount of carbon dioxide produced (200 mL/minute) divided by the amount of oxygen consumed (250 mL/minute) equals R = respiratory quotient. With a normal diet, the value is 0.8.By subtracting the partial pressure exerted by water vapour at body temperature, the PiO2 can be calculated:
PiO2 = 0.21 × (100 kPa − 6.3 kPa)
PiO2 = 19.8Substituting:
PAO2 = 19.8 − 10/0.8
PAO2 = 19.8 − 12.5
PAO2 = 7.3k Pa -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 27-year old man loses 1000ml blood after being stabbed on his thigh.
The most impactful physiological response occurring at the start to combat the decline in the intravascular blood volume of this man is?Your Answer: Transcapillary absorption of interstitial fluid
Correct Answer: Venoconstriction
Explanation:In contrast to the arterial system, which contains 15% of the circulating blood volume, the body’s veins contain 70% of it.
In severe haemorrhage, when sympathetic stimulation causes venoconstriction, venous tone is important in maintaining the return of blood to the heart.
Because the liver receives about 30% of the resting cardiac output, it is a very vascular organ. The hepatic vascular system is dynamic, which means it can store and release blood in large amounts – it acts as a reservoir within the general circulation.
In a normal situation, the liver contains 10-15% of total blood volume, with the sinusoids accounting for roughly 60% of that. The liver dynamically adjusts its blood volume when blood is lost and can eject enough blood to compensate for a moderate amount of haemorrhage.
In the portal venous and hepatic arterial systems, sympathetic nerves constrict the presinusoidal resistance vessels. More importantly, sympathetic stimulation lowers the portal system’s capacitance, allowing blood to flow more efficiently to the heart.
Net transcapillary absorption of interstitial fluid from skeletal muscle into the intravascular space compensates for blood loss effectively during haemorrhage. The decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure (Pc), caused by reflex adrenergic readjustment of the ratio of pre- to postcapillary resistance, is primarily responsible for fluid absorption. Within a few hours of blood loss, these fluid shifts become significant, further diluting haemoglobin and plasma proteins.
Albumin synthesis begins to increase after 48 hours.
The juxtamedullary complex releases renin in response to a drop in mean arterial pressure, which causes an increase in aldosterone level and, eventually, sodium and water resorption. Increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) levels also contribute to water retention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Anaesthetic awareness is most probable in general anaesthesia for which surgical operation?
Your Answer: Emergency DC cardioversion
Correct Answer: Emergency surgery for major trauma
Explanation:Awareness during general anaesthesia is a frightening experience, which may result in serious emotional injury and post-traumatic stress disorder.
The incidence of awareness during general anaesthesia with current anaesthetic agents and techniques has been reported as 0.2-0.4% in nonobstetric and noncardiac surgery, as 0.4% during caesarean section, and as 1.5% in cardiac surgery.
The incidence during major trauma surgery is higher. Incidence of recall has been reported to be as high as 11-43% in major trauma cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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An intravenous infusion is started with a 500 mL bag of 0.18 percent N. saline and 4% dextrose.
Which of the following best describes its make-up?Your Answer: Osmolarity 293 mOsmol/L, sodium 15 mequivalents and glucose 40 g
Correct Answer: Osmolarity 284 mOsmol/L, sodium 15 mequivalents and glucose 20 g
Explanation:30 mmol Na+ and 30 mmol Cl- are found in 1 litre of 0.18 percent N. saline with 4% dextrose. Percent (percent) refers to the number of grammes of a compound per 100 mL, so a litre of 4 percent dextrose solution contains 40 grammes.
As a result, a 500 mL bag of 1/5th N. saline and 4% dextrose contains approximately 15 mequivalents of sodium and 20 g of glucose. It is hypotonic due to its osmolarity of 284.
Because of the risk of hyponatraemia, it is no longer considered the crystalloid of choice for fluid maintenance in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The action potential in a muscle fibre is initiated by which of these ions?
Your Answer: Chloride ions
Correct Answer: Sodium ions
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 26
Correct
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A patient on admission is given an infusion of 1000 mL of 10% glucose and 500 mL of 20% lipid over a 24 hour period.
Which of these best approximates to the energy input over this time period?Your Answer: 1300 kcal
Explanation:1% solution contains 1 g of substance per 100 mL.
A solution of 10% glucose is 10 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this glucose solution will contain 100 g.
1 g of glucose yields about 4 kcal of energy. One litre of 10% glucose will therefore release approximately 4x100g = 400 kcal of energy.
A solution of 20% fat is 20 g/100mL. Therefore 1000 mL of this fat solution will have 200 g and 500 mL will contain 100 g.
1 g of fat yields approximately 9 kcal. 500 mL of 20% fat therefore has the potential to yield 900 kcal of energy.
The total energy input over this 24 hour period is approximately 400kcal + 900kcal = 1300 kcal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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One litre of water at 0°C and a pressure of 1 bar is in a water-bath. A 1 kW element is used in heating it.
Given that the specific heat capacity of water is 4181 J/(kg°C) or J/(kg K), how long will it take to raise the temperature of the water by 10°C?Your Answer: 70 minutes
Correct Answer: 42 seconds
Explanation: -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 28
Correct
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The solutions that contains the most sodium is?
Your Answer: 3500 mL 0.9% N saline
Explanation:Sodium concentration for different fluids
3% N saline 513 mmol/L
5% N saline 856 mmol/L
0.9% N saline 154 mmol/L
Hartmann’s solution 131 mmol/L
0.45% N saline with 5% glucose 77 mmol/LThis means that:
500 mL 5% N saline contains 428 mmol of sodium
1000 mL 3% N saline contains 513 mmol of sodium
3500 mL 0.9% N saline contains 539 mmol of sodium
4000 mL Hartmann’s contains 524 mmol of sodium
6000 mL 0.45% N saline with 5% glucose contains 462 mmol of sodium. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.
Which one of the following factors has most impact on systemic vascular resistance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small arterioles
Explanation:Systemic vascular resistance (SVR), also known as total peripheral resistance (TPR), is the amount of force exerted on circulating blood by the vasculature of the body. Three factors determine the force: the length of the blood vessels in the body, the diameter of the vessels, and the viscosity of the blood within them. The most important factor that determines the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is the tone of the small arterioles.
These are otherwise known as resistance arterioles. Their diameter ranges between 100 and 450 µm. Smaller resistance vessels, less than 100 µm in diameter (pre-capillary arterioles), play a less significant role in determining SVR. They are subject to autoregulation.
Any change in the viscosity of blood and therefore flow (such as due to a change in haematocrit) might also have a small effect on the measured vascular resistance.
Changes of blood temperature can also affect blood rheology and therefore flow through resistance vessels.
Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is measured in dynes·s·cm-5
It can be calculated from the following equation:
SVR = (mean arterial pressure − mean right atrial pressure) × 80 cardiac output
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main determinant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ca2+
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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