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Question 1
Incorrect
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?
Your Answer: Pudendal Nerve
Explanation:The pudendal nerve arises from the S2-S4 nerve roots and it lies medial to the internal pudendal artery while exiting the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen. It curves around the sacrospinous ligament and re-enters the pelvis via the lesser sciatic foramen and from there it runs medial to the ischial tuberosity over the obturator internus in the pudendal canal to the deep perineal pouch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A midwife is concerned regarding CTG changes and suggests a fetal blood sample (FBS). At what dilatation would you NOT perform FBS?
Your Answer: Less than 5cm
Correct Answer: Less than 3cm
Explanation:Fetal Blood Sampling (FBS) should only be performed when the cervix is >3cm dilated.
Indications for FBS:
1. Pathological CTG in labour
2. Suspected acidosis in labourContraindications to FBS
– Maternal infection e.g. HIV, HSV and Hepatitis
– Known fetal coagulopathy
– Prematurity (< 34 weeks gestation)
– Acute fetal compromiseInterpretation of FBS results:
pH >7.25 = Normal -Repeat in 1 hour if CTG remains abnormal
7.21 to 7.24 = Borderline – Repeat in 30 minutes
<7.20 = Abnormal - Consider delivery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the incidence of hyperthyroidism in complete molar pregnancy?
Your Answer: 3%
Explanation:As B-HCG and TSH have similar structures, increased B-HCG can lead to hyperthyroidism, however there is only a 3% chance of this happening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 5
Correct
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The UK childhood vaccination schedule includes vaccination against HPV for girls aged 12 to 13. What HPV subtypes are vaccinated against with the vaccine Gardasil®?
Your Answer: 6, 11, 16, and 18
Explanation:HPV Gardasil® is a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV Types 6, 11, 16, and 18. HPV types16 and 18 are responsible for 70% of cases of HPV related cancers. They are considered the most important high risk genotypes of HPV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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The typical female breast contains how many lobes?
Your Answer: 1
Correct Answer: 15-20
Explanation:The female breast is made of about 15 to 20 individual lobes. The lobules each consists of alveoli which drain into a single lactiferous duct. The ductal system leads to lactiferous sinuses and collecting ducts which expel milk from openings in the nipple.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 7
Correct
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A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the right ovary drain into?
Your Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The right ovarian vein travels through the suspensory ligament of the ovary and generally joins the inferior vena cava whereas the left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who recently got married presents to your clinic.
She has a history of extremely irregular menstrual cycles with the duration varying between four and ten weeks.
She had attended her routine review appointment one week prior to her current presentation.
At that time she had stated that her last period had occurred six weeks previously.
You had recommended the following tests for which the results are as shown below:
Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): 3 IU/L (<13)
Serum luteinising hormone (LH): *850 IU/L (4-10 in follicular phase, 20-100 at mid-cycle)
Serum prolactin (PRL): 475 mU/L (50-500)
Which one of the following is the most probable reason for her amenorrhoea?Your Answer: Premature ovarian failure_
Correct Answer: Early pregnancy.
Explanation:All of the options provided could cause amenorrhoea and therefore need to be evaluated.
The luteinising hormone (LH) level reported here is exceedingly elevated. A patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is unlikely to have such a raised level, but it could be because of a LH-producing adenoma. Such tumours are, however, extremely rare.
Early pregnancy (correct answer) is the most likely cause of this woman’s elevated LH level. This would be due to the presence of beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) hormone that is produced during pregnancy.
LH and beta-HCG both have similar beta-subunits and cross-reactions are commonly noted in LH assays.
The serum prolactin (PRL) level is at the upper end of the normal range and this correlates to the levels observed in the early stages of pregnancy.
The follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels remain low during early pregnancy.
If her amenorrhea had been caused by stress from her recent marriage, the LH level would have been normal or low.
If the cause was premature ovarian failure, the FSH level would have been significantly higher.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 37-year-old woman visits a gynaecological clinic for a check-up. A cervical screening test is performed by the doctor. HPV Type Non-16/18 is detected in her cervical cytology. Squamous cells and other abnormalities were found to be absent in the reflex liquid-based cytology.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?Your Answer: Repeat Cervical screening test in 12 months
Explanation:A cervical screening test was performed on this patient, and the result revealed the presence of the Human Papilloma Virus Type non-16/18. Reflex liquid base cytology was conducted, but no further abnormalities were seen. In this case, the patient should be offered a 12-month repeat cervical screening cytology. If the patient’s repeated cervical screening cytology after 12 months revealed LSIL, she should be referred for a colposcopy.
If HPV is discovered at 12 months, regardless of the LBC result, some women may be at higher risk of having high-grade abnormalities and should be referred to colposcopy. These include:
– women 2 or more years overdue for screening at the time of the initial screen
– women who identify as being of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander
– women aged 50 years or older.Summary of recommended actions based on the level of risk
Intermediate danger:
– HPV non-16/18 positive, intermediate risk (with negative or low-grade cytology)
If feasible, repeat the HPV test after 12 months.
A three-to-six-month delay would be acceptable. Delays of longer than six months are discouraged.
Follow up HPV test – HPV non 16/18 (possible high grade cytology or high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) – Treated as Higher risk.High-risk:
HPV non-16/18 positive on follow-up HPV test (with negative or low-grade cytology)
Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.If your patient is: 2 years or more past due for screening at the time of the initial screening, and identifies as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander aged 50 or older, they may be at higher risk and should be referred to a professional at once for additional evaluation.
HPV 16/18 positive with any of the following non–16/18 positive: a glandular anomaly in high-grade cytology high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) cancer. Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.
Currently, several colposcopy facilities are experiencing strong demand and extended wait times. If you are concerned that your patient will be delayed, you should call the specialist or clinic to which your patient has been referred.
On the Cure Test Pathway, wherever possible, continue testing as planned. A woman who has been treated for HSIL (CIN2/3) should have a 12-month follow-up co-test and annual tests after that. She can resume standard 5-yearly screening after receiving two consecutive negative co-tests. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What form is 99% of body calcium found in?
Your Answer: Calcium Carbonate
Correct Answer: Calcium Phosphate
Explanation:Calcium phosphate salts are the most abundant form of calcium in the body, making up 99%. The majority of these salts are stored in the skeleton in different forms, mostly, hydroxyapatite, a lattice-like crystal composed of calcium, phosphates and hydroxide. The remaining calcium can be found in the extracellular fluid, tissues and skeletal muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your clinic with a recent history of, four days ago, contact with a child suffering from parvovirus infection. She is concerned whether her baby might be affected.
A serum analysis for lgM and lgG antibody for parvovirus came back as negative.
Which among the following would be the most appropriate next step of management in this case?Your Answer: Repeat serologic tests in two weeks
Explanation:Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA virus, which is the causative organism for erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped cheek syndrome.
Maternal infection with parvovirus B19 is almost always associated with an increased risk of transplacental fetal infection throughout the pregnancy. Fetal infection results in fetal parvovirus syndrome, which is characterized by anemia hydrops with cardiac failure and possibly death.
The earlier the exposure occurs, it is more likely to result in fetal parvovirus syndrome and stillbirth is the common outcome in case of third trimester infection.Women who have been exposed to parvovirus in early pregnancy should be informed on the possible risk of fetal infection and also should be screened for parvovirus B19 specific lgG.
– If parvovirus specific lgG is positive reassure that pregnancy is not at risk
– If parvovirus specific lgG is negative, serology for lgM should be performed
After infection with parvovirus, patient’s lgM is expected to become positive within 1 to 3 weeks and it will remain high for about 8-12 weeks. lgG levels will start to rise within 2 to 4 weeks after the infection.This woman has a negative lgG titer which indicates that she is not immune to the infection. Although her lgM titer is negative now, this does not exclude the chance of infection as it takes approximately 1 to 3 weeks after infection for lgM to become positive, and will then remain high for 8 to 12 weeks. In such cases, it is recommended the serologic tests be repeated in 2 weeks when the lgM may become positive while lgG starts to rise.
– Positive lgM titers confirm maternal parvovirus infection. If that is the case, the next step would be fetal monitoring with ultrasound for development of hydrops at 1-2 weeks intervals for the next 6-12 weeks(needs referral). Once the fetus is found to have hydrops, fetal umbilical cord sampling and intrauterine blood transfusion are considered the treatment options.
– Positive lgG and negative lgM indicates maternal immunity to parvovirus.Interpretation of serologic tests results and the further actions recommended are as follows:
If both IgM and IgG are negative, it means mother is not immune to parvovirus B19 infection, and an infection is possible. Further action will be Repetition of serological tests in 2 weeks.
If IgM is positive and IgG is negative, it means the infection is established. Fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks must be done.
If both IgM and IgG are positive, it means infection is established, and an infection is possible. Further action will be fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks.
If IgM is negative and IgG is positive, it means the mother is immune to parvovirus infection. In this case it is important to reassure the mother that the baby is safe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following increases during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Tidal Volume
Explanation:Ventilation begins to increase significantly at around 8 weeks of gestation, most likely in response to progesterone-related sensitization of the respiratory centre to carbon dioxide and the increased metabolic rate. Significant alterations occur in the mechanical aspects of ventilation during pregnancy. Minute ventilation (or the amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in 1 minute) is the product of tidal volume and respiratory rate and increases by approximately 30–50 per cent with pregnancy. The increase is primarily a result of tidal volume, which increases by 40 per cent (from 500 to 700 mL), because the respiratory rate remains unchanged. The increase in minute ventilation is perceived by the pregnant woman as shortness of breath, which affects 60–70 per cent of women. This physiological dyspnoea is usually mild and affects 50 per cent of women before 20 weeks gestation, but resolves immediately postpartum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the time. It started initially as some leakage of urine with sneezing or coughing, but now she leaks while walking to the bathroom. She voids frequently during the day and several times each night, also sometimes patient feels an intense urge to urinate but passes only a small amount when she tries to void. She now wears a pad every day and plans her social outings based on bathroom access. Patient had no history of dysuria or hematuria and had 2 vaginal deliveries in her 20s. She drinks alcohol socially, takes 2 or 3 cups of coffee each morning, and “drinks lots of water throughout the day.” When asked about which urinary symptoms are the most troublesome, the patient is unsure.
Among the following which is the best next step in management of this patient?Your Answer: Urodynamic testing
Correct Answer: Voiding diary
Explanation:This patient experiences a stress based mixed urinary incontinence presented as leakage of urine while sneezing or coughing and urgency which is an intense urge to urinate with small voiding volume as her symptoms. Urinary incontinence is common and may cause significant distress in some, as seen in this patient who wears a pad every day. Initial evaluation of mixed incontinence includes maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify the predominant type of urinary incontinence and thereby to determine an optimal treatment by tracking the fluid intake, urine output and leaking episodes.
All patients with mixed incontinence generally require bladder training along with lifestyle changes like weight loss, smoking cessation, decreased alcohol and caffeine intake and practicing pelvic floor muscle exercises like Kegels. Depending on the predominant type, patients who have limited or incomplete symptom relief with bladder training may benefit from pharmacotherapy or surgery.
In patients with urgency-predominant incontinence, timed voiding practice like urinating on a fixed schedule rather than based on a sense of urgency along with oral antimuscarinics are found to be useful.
Surgery with a mid-urethral sling is performed in patients with stress-predominant incontinence which is due to a weakened pelvic floor muscles as in cystocele.
In patients with a suspected urethral diverticulum or vesicovaginal fistula, a cystoscopy is usually indicated but is not used in initial evaluation of urinary incontinence due to its cost and invasiveness.
Urodynamic testing involves measurement of bladder filling and emptying called as cystometry, urine flow, and pressure (eg, urethral leak point). This testing is typically reserved for those patients with complicated urinary incontinence, who will not respond to treatment or to those who are considering surgical intervention.
Initial evaluation of mixed urinary incontinence is done by maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify predominant type of urinary incontinence into stress predominant or urgency predominant and thereby to determine the optimal treatment required like bladder training, surgical intervention, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Correct
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The following are presumptive skin signs of pregnancy, except:
Your Answer: Maculo-papular rash
Explanation:Skin signs during pregnancy may include: dark spots on the breasts, nipples and inner thighs, melasma (chloasma), linea nigra, stretch marks, acne, spider telangiectasis and varicose veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following procedures allow the earliest retrieval of DNA for prenatal diagnosis in pregnancy:
Your Answer: Fetal biopsy
Correct Answer: Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS)
Explanation:CVS has decreased in frequency with the recent increased uptake of cell-free DNA screening. It remains the only diagnostic test available in the first trimester and allows for diagnostic analyses, including fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), karyotype, microarray, molecular testing, and gene sequencing. CVS is performed between 10 and 14 weeks’ gestation. CVS has been performed before 9 weeks in the past, though this has shown to increase the risk of limb deformities and, therefore, is no longer recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the leading cause of Down Syndrome?
Your Answer: Robertsonian Translocation
Correct Answer: Nondisjunction maternal gamete
Explanation:Most of the cases of down syndrome occur due to non disjunction trisomy 21 which is associated with increased maternal age. The non disjunction occurs in the maternal gametes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?
Your Answer: Ductus Arteriosus
Correct Answer: Foramen Ovale
Explanation:Blood enters the right atrium of the fetal heart and most passes through the foramen ovale into the left atrium. From there it is pumped through the aorta. The foramen ovale is the major structure for bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation. Some of the blood in the right atrium does enters the right ventricle and then into the pulmonary artery however most of this passes through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta thus bypassing the fetal pulmonary circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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When is the earliest appropriate gestational age to perform amniocentesis?
Your Answer: 13+6 weeks
Correct Answer: 15+0 weeks
Explanation:The best time to perform amniocentesis is at the gestational age of 15 weeks or more. There is increased risk of abortion, respiratory problems and fetal talipes if amniocentesis is performed before the gestational age of 14 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 19
Correct
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Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered pathological
Your Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:Diastolic murmurs should be considered pathological until proven otherwise. The following are common and typically benign findings in pregnancy: A third heart sound after mid-pregnancy. Systolic flow murmurs are common. Left axis deviation on ECG is common, Sagging ST segments and inversion or flattening of the T wave in lead III may also occur
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 20
Correct
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Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?
Your Answer: Atrial depolarisation
Explanation:In an ECG the P wave represents atrial depolarization. The QRS complex represents the ventricular depolarization, T waves represent ventricular repolarization and the U wave represents repolarization of the interventricular septum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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