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Question 1
Incorrect
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Regarding nerve supply to the vocal cords, which of the following provides sensation to the area above the vocal cords?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Correct Answer: Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
Explanation:The laryngeal folds are comprised of two types of folds; the vestibular fold and the vocal fold. The vocal folds are mobile, and concerned with voice production. They are formed by the mucous membrane covering the vocal ligament. They are avascular, hence, are white in colour.
The internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve provides sensation above the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may lead to loss of sensation above the vocal cords and loss of taste on the epiglottis.
The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies the lateral and posterior cricoarytenoid, the thyroarytenoid. It also provides sensation below the vocal cords. Lesions to this nerve may cause respiratory obstruction, hoarseness, inability to speak and loss of sensation below the vocal cords.
The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve supplies the cricothyroid muscle.
The glossopharyngeal nerve contains both sensory and motor components, and provides somatic innervation to the stylopharyngeus muscle, visceral motor innervation to the parotid gland, and carries afferent sensory fibres from the posterior third of the tongue, pharynx and tympanic cavity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 2
Incorrect
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With respect to the peripheral nerve stimulators, which one is used to perform nerve blocking?
Your Answer: Prior to injecting the local anaesthetic the ideal current is 1-2 mili amperes at a frequency of 1-2 Hz
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The nerve stimulators deliver a stimulus lasting for 1-2 milliseconds (not second) to perform nerve blockage.
There are just 2 leads (not 3); one for the skin and other for the needle.
Prior to the administration of the local anaesthesia, a current of 0.25 – 0.5 mA (not 1-2mA) at the frequency of 1-2 Hz is preferred.
If the needle tip is close to the nerve, muscular contraction could be possible at the lowest possible current.
Insulated needles have improved the block success rate, as the current is only conducting through needle tip.
Stimulus to the femoral nerve which is placed in the mid lingual line causes withdrawer of the quadriceps and knee extension, that’s the dancing patella ( not plantar flexion).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50-year-old man has complained of persistent hoarseness and dry cough. He has a history of smoking 20 cigarettes per day. The examination reveals no significant clinical signs of cranial nerve damage.
Referred to an ENT specialist, the patient is explained how coughing is usually a defence mechanism of the body which is activated more than usual by the chemical irritants in cigarette smoke. However, the ENT doctor suspects a nerve involvement in the cough reflex as the patient also presents with hoarseness with the dry cough.
Which nerves is the ENT doctor suspecting to have been affected in this patient?Your Answer: CN IX and X
Explanation:Cough is an important defensive reflex that helps clear secretions and particulates from the airways. A complex reflex arc generates each cough.
The cough reflex begins with irritation of the cough receptors present in the epithelium of the trachea, main carina, branching points of large airways, and more distal smaller airways. These receptors are responsive to both mechanical and chemical stimuli.
Afferent pathway:
Impulses from stimulated receptors are transmitted via sensory nerve fibres of the vagus nerve (mainly) and glossopharyngeal nerve and travel to the medulla diffusely. CN 5 is also thought to contribute to the afferent limb. However, the vagus is the main nerve.Central pathway:
The cough centre is located in the upper brain stem and ponsEfferent pathway:
Impulses from the centre travel via the vagus, phrenic nerve, and spinal motor nerves to the diaphragm, abdominal wall, and muscles. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true about the in-hospital management of ventricular fibrillation?
Your Answer: Calcium gluconate has a role in the management of hyperkalaemia.
Correct Answer: Amiodarone may be administered following a third DC shock
Explanation:Ventricular fibrillation (VT) is an arrhythmia caused by a distortion in the organized contraction of the ventricles leading to an inability to pump blood out into the body.
Amiodarone is an anti arrhythmic drug used for the treatment of ventricular and atrial fibrillations. It is the gold standard of treatment for refractory pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) and ventricular fibrillation (VF).
Guidelines for emergency treatment state that only the rescuer carrying out chest compressions on the patient may stand near the defibrillator as it charges.
Cardio-pulmonary resuscitation (CPR) during cardiac arrest is required for 2 minute cycles.
Hypovolaemia is as a cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA) can be reversed using fluid resuscitation, whereas hypotension during cardiac arrest is either persistent or undetectable and is therefore irreversible.
Hyperkalaemia and hypocalcaemia are treated using calcium salts, but calcium chloride is often preferred over calcium gluconate.
During a pulseless VT or VF, a single precordial thump will be effective if administered within the first seconds of the occurrence of a shockable rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 5
Correct
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The external urethral sphincter arises from which nerve root?
Your Answer: S2, S3, S4
Explanation:The external urethral sphincter functions to provide voluntary control of urine flow from the bladder to the urethra.
It receives its innervation from the branches of the pudendal nerve which originate from S2, S3 and S4.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 6
Correct
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Dinamap is an automated blood pressure monitoring device. Which of these statements best fit its properties?
Your Answer: The cuff should be positioned at the same level as the heart
Explanation:Dinamap continuously measures the systolic, diastolic and mean arterial pressure along with pulse rate, thereby providing a continuous monitoring of the blood pressure using the osscillitonometric principle of measurement.
The device loses accuracy towards the extremes of BP and is more accurate with systolic compared with diastolic pressure. In arrhythmias such as AF, the devices are also inaccurate due to the major fluctuations associated with the individual pulse pressure variations.
The manual BP device is still the gold standard for BP measurement and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 7
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy that has ruptured.
The following is a description of the clinical examination:
Anxious
Capillary refill time of 3 seconds
Cool peripheries
Pulse 120 beats per minute
Blood pressure 120/95 mmHg
Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these clinical findings?Your Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%
Explanation:The following is the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock:
Class I haemorrhage:
It has blood loss up to 15%. There is very less tachycardia, and no changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure. Usually, fluid replacement is not required.Class II haemorrhage:
It has 15-30% blood loss, equivalent to 750 – 1500 ml. There is tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure. Patient may be frightened, hostile and anxious. It can be stabilised by crystalloid and blood transfusion.Class III haemorrhage:
There is 30-40% blood loss. It portrays inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, altered mental state and fall in systolic pressure. It requires blood transfusion.Class IV haemorrhage:
There is > 40% blood volume loss. It is a preterminal event, and the patient will die in minutes. It portrays tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and pulse pressure, altered mental state, and cold clammy skin. There is need for rapid transfusion and surgical intervention. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood disorders?
Your Answer: Tranylcypromine
Explanation:Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that binds irreversibly to target enzyme.
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are responsible for blocking the monoamine oxidase enzyme. The monoamine oxidase enzyme breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and tyramine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of these neurotransmitters thus, increasing their levels and allowing them to continue to influence the cells that have been affected by depression.
There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MAO A is mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MAO B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Serotonin and noradrenaline are substrates of MAO A, but phenylethylamine, methylhistamine, and tryptamine are substrates of MAO B. Dopamine and tyramine are metabolized by both MAO A and B. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.
MAOIs prevent the breakdown of tyramine found in the body and certain foods, drinks, and other medications. Patients that take MAOIs and consume tyramine-containing foods or drinks will exhibit high serum tyramine level. A high level of tyramine can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, called the tyramine pressor response. Even though it is rare, a high tyramine level can trigger a cerebral haemorrhage, which can even result in death.
Eating foods with high tyramine can trigger a reaction that can have serious consequences. Patients should know that tyramine can increase with the aging of food; they should be encouraged to have fresh foods instead of leftovers or food prepared hours earlier. Examples of high levels of tyramine in food are types of fish and types of meat, including sausage, turkey, liver, and salami. Also, certain fruits can contain tyramine, like overripe fruits, avocados, bananas, raisins, or figs. Further examples are cheeses, alcohol, and fava beans; all of these should be avoided even after two weeks of stopping MAOIs. Anyone taking MAOIs is at risk for an adverse hypertensive reaction, with accompanying morbidity. Patients taking reversible MAOIs have fewer dietary restrictions.
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and citalopram and escitalopram are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Standard error of the mean can be defined as:
Your Answer: Standard deviation / square root (mean)
Correct Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 10
Correct
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Concerning the pathway of endothelial nitric oxide (eNO), one of the following best describes it.
Your Answer: Stimulation of guanylyl cyclase, increases cGMP concentration leading to vasodilation
Explanation:Nitric oxide (NO), an endothelial-derived relaxant factor (EDRF), is a powerful vasodilator. Its cell-signalling molecule is calcium-dependant and generated endogenous by nitric oxide synthetases from the precursor L-arginine, oxygen and NADPH. Three main isoforms have been isolated and they are inducible (iNO), neuronal (nNO) and endothelial (eNO).
Endothelial NO stimulates intracellular guanylyl cyclase which generates cyclic GMP (cGMP) from its action on guanylyl tri-phosphate (GTP). The cGMP goes on to activate protein kinase G (PKG). PKG phosphorylates cell membrane proteins that regulate intracellular calcium concentrations and level of calcium sensitisation.
Smooth muscle vasodilatation results from:
1. Light chain phosphatase activation.
2. Inhibition of calcium entry into the cell (reducing Ca2+ concentrations) and
3. Hyperpolarisation of cells by activation of H+ channels. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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