-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 7-year-old asthmatic boy presented to the pulmonologist with an exacerbation of shortness of breath for 3 days. At the time of admission, he was still experiencing breathlessness with oxygen saturation found to be less than 90%. CXR shows bilateral hyperinflation. Which of the following should be done?
Your Answer: Arterial blood gas
Explanation:Arterial blood gas is useful for the evaluation of oxygen and carbon dioxide gas exchange, respiratory function including hypoxia, and acid/base balance. This will quickly indicate if assisted ventilation is required for this patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true regarding eczema herpeticum?
Your Answer: It may be caused by enterovirus infections
Correct Answer: Herpes virus 1 and 2, Ebstein-Barr virus, Cytomegalovirus, and Varicella Zoster virus are all species of Herpesviridae
Explanation:Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is the name given to a distinct cutaneous eruption caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1, HSV-2, coxsackievirus A16, or vaccinia virus that infects a pre-existing dermatosis. Most commonly, it is caused by a disseminated HSV infection in patients with atopic dermatitis (AD) and, for this reason, is often referred to as eczema herpeticum (EH).Kaposi varicelliform eruption (KVE) is now known to occur in children of any age and in adults, however, most patients (56%) are aged 15-24 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 13-month-old boy presents to the hospital with a rash and breathing difficulties following routine vaccination. On examination, it was noted that he was developing swelling around the mouth and neck.What is the most appropriate next step to manage this child?
Your Answer: IM adrenaline 300 mcg (0.3ml of 1 in 1,000)
Correct Answer: IM adrenaline 150 mcg (0.15ml of 1 in 1,000)
Explanation:The IM dose of adrenaline for anaphylaxis in:< 6 months: 150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)6 months - 6 years: 150 micrograms (0.15ml 1 in 1,000)6 - 12 years: 300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000)Adult and child > 12 years: 500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000)Anaphylaxis:Anaphylaxis is an acute, rapidly progressing, potentially life-threatening IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reaction.It involves the release of mediators from mast cells, basophils and inflammatory cells. It is characterised by oedematous swelling of the airway mucosa giving rise to dyspnoea and respiratory distress. The most common cause of anaphylaxis in children is a food allergy.Risk factors for death in patients with anaphylaxis include asthma, age 11+, peanut allergy, and delay in adrenaline administration.Management of anaphylaxis includes:- ABCD- Remove the allergen- IM adrenaline or Nebulised adrenaline- IV Hydrocortisone – pro re nata IV fluid support. – Followed by observation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old girl with an abnormal facial appearance has an ejection systolic murmur radiating to between her scapulae. A radio-femoral delay was also found. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Williams' syndrome
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:These cardiovascular findings are suggestive of coarctation of the aorta, which is common among patients with Turner’s syndrome. Physical features of Turner’s syndrome include a short neck with a webbed appearance, a low hairline at the back of the head, low-set ears, and narrow fingernails and toenails that are turned upward.Atrioventricular septal defect is the most common cardiac anomaly in Down’s syndrome. Structural heart defects at birth (i.e., ventricular septal defect, atrial septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus) are common in Edward’s syndrome. Pulmonary stenosis with or without dysplastic pulmonary valve and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are common in Noonan’s syndrome. Supravalvar aortic stenosis and peripheral pulmonary stenosis are found in William’s syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having injured his hand with a metal spike. Examination reveals a puncture wound 0.5 cm deep. His immunization schedule is uptodate. How will you manage this patient?
Your Answer: Antibiotics
Correct Answer: Tetanus Ig + antibiotics
Explanation:Cleansing and debridement is paramount in dealing with tetanus-prone wounds (severe crushing injuries, piercing wounds, blisters and burns are outstanding examples, particularly if contaminated with dirt, grass or other debris).Prophylaxis then is relatively easy in persons who have been actively immunized by toxoid injections. For them, a “booster” injection is indicated. There is experimental evidence that antibiotics of the tetracycline group, given soon after injury, may have prophylactic effect against tetanus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Which of the given choices accurately defines perinatal mortality rate?
Your Answer: Number of stillbirths and deaths within 7 days of life divided by 1000 births
Explanation:The perinatal mortality rate is defined as the number of perinatal deaths per 1000 total births. Perinatal death includes the death of a live-born neonate within 7-days of life (early neonatal death) and the death of a fetus ≥ 22 weeks of gestation (stillbirth). Hence, the perinatal mortality rate is calculated by dividing the number of still births+ the number of early neonatal deaths by 1000 births.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Baby Jasmine is 3 months old. At this age she should be exhibiting which of the following hearing and speech milestones?
Your Answer: Crying when uncomfortable and annoyed
Explanation:By the age of 3 months Jasmine should startle to loud noises, recognise her parents voices and turn to them when they are speaking, and should quiet down or smile at the sound of a familiar voice when crying. She should also cry when she is uncomfortable or irritated. By the time Jasmine is 9 months old she would begin to understand and respond to the word ‘no’ as well as other easy commands. She would be able vocalise and babble with repetitive sounds, and imitate adults’ playful sounds. She would be much less likely startled by loud noises.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 5 year old girl presents with widespread, itchy, excoriated papules that appeared three months ago. They are symmetrically distributed and more profound on the extensor surfaces of the elbows and knees. The papules are present on the trunk as well but are less remarkable. She doesn’t have it anywhere else on her body and seems to be in a good health. The itchiness results in the girl to often scratching and popping the fluid-filled blisters that are present. There is no family history of atopy or other skin conditions. Which of the following is accurate?
Your Answer: Darrier’s sign will be positive
Correct Answer: Coeliac antibodies should be measured
Explanation:This is the clinical picture of dermatitis herpetiformis associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy. To establish the diagnosis, you should measure the coeliac antibodies. Darrier’s sign (where the skin urticates when it is stroked) is positive in urticaria pigmentosa.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
Which is a sign of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)?
Your Answer: Eosinophilia
Correct Answer: Splinter haemorrhages
Explanation:Infective endocarditis (IE) is defined as an infection of the endocardial surface of the heart.Fever, possibly low-grade and intermittent, is present in 90% of patients with IE. Heart murmurs are heard in approximately 85% of patients.One or more classic signs of IE are found in as many as 50% of patients. They include the following:- Petechiae: Common, but nonspecific, finding- Subungual (splinter) haemorrhages: Dark-red, linear lesions in the nail beds -Osler nodes: Tender subcutaneous nodules usually found on the distal pads of the digits- Janeway lesions: Nontender maculae on the palms and soles- Roth spots: Retinal haemorrhages with small, clear centres| rareSigns of neurologic disease, which occur in as many as 40% of patients, include the following:- Embolic stroke with focal neurologic deficits: The most common neurologic sign- Intracerebral haemorrhage- Multiple microabscessesOther signs of IE include the following:- Splenomegaly- Stiff neck- Delirium- Paralysis, hemiparesis, aphasia- Conjunctival haemorrhage- Pallor- Gallops- Rales- Cardiac arrhythmia- Pericardial rub- Pleural friction rub
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.
Your Answer: Oral penicillin should be administered
Correct Answer: No action is required
Explanation:According to the US immunisation schedule, the child is immunised. So this boy does not need any extra immunisation for tetanus now.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin used in Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) treatment?
Your Answer: Increases insulin production
Explanation:Metformin works by improving the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin, which results in a reduction of circulating insulin levels. Metformin inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis and it also increases the glucose uptake by peripheral tissues and reduces fatty acid oxidation. Metformin has a positive effect on the endothelium and adipose tissue independent of its action on insulin and glucose levels.Metformin was the first insulin sensitising drug (ISD) to be used in PCOS to investigate the role of insulin resistance in the pathogenesis of the syndrome Several effects have been reported as related to metformin in PCOS patients including restoring ovulation, reducing weight, reducing circulating androgen levels, reducing the risk of miscarriage and reducing the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). Other studies have reported that the addition of metformin to the ovarian stimulation regime in invitro fertilization (IVF) improves the pregnancy outcome. These effects will be addressed individually.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl develops central precocious puberty. Which of the following conditions is the most likely aetiology for her condition?
Your Answer: Hepatoblastoma
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. Central precocious puberty is mostly idiopathic, but other causes include congenital or prolonged, untreated hypothyroidism, congenital or acquired central nervous system pathologies, and several genetic syndromes like Silver-Russell syndrome. The other mentioned choices cause peripheral or false precocious puberty.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?
Your Answer: Type II hypersensitivity
Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 13 yr. old boy presented with difficulty in breathing on exertion. According to his mother who was also present, his exercise tolerance has been gradually worsening for the past weeks. It has reached the point where he is unable to participate in his weekly soccer match. Cardiac catherization was performed and the results are given below. Oxygen Saturation Levels:
- Superior vena cava: 73%
- Right atrium: 71%
- Right ventricle: 72%
- Pulmonary artery: 86%
- Left ventricle: 97%
- Aorta: 96%
- Right atrium: 6 mmHg
- Pulmonary artery: 53/13 mmHg
- PCWP (Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure): 15 mmHg
- Left ventricle: 111/10 mmHg
- Aorta: 128/61 mmHg
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Explanation:Key observations in the results:
- Oxygen Saturation Step-Up:
- There is a significant step-up in oxygen saturation from the right ventricle (72%) to the pulmonary artery (86%). This suggests the presence of left-to-right shunting of blood.
- Pressure Differences:
- The pressure in the pulmonary artery is elevated (53/13 mmHg), indicating pulmonary hypertension.
Differential Diagnosis:
- Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA):
- PDA can cause increased pulmonary blood flow, leading to a step-up in oxygen saturation in the pulmonary artery. The pulmonary artery pressures can also be elevated due to increased blood flow.
- Primary Pulmonary Hypertension:
- Typically presents with elevated pulmonary pressures but does not usually show a step-up in oxygen saturation.
- Pulmonary Stenosis:
- Would result in elevated right ventricular pressure but would not explain the step-up in oxygen saturation.
- Septum Primum Atrial Septal Defect (ASD):
- Would result in a step-up in oxygen saturation from the right atrium to the right ventricle, not between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery.
- Tetralogy of Fallot:
- Characterized by right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, VSD, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an overriding aorta. Oxygen saturation levels would typically be lower in the systemic circulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Persistent hypoglycaemia in the new-borns is caused by which of the given choices?
Your Answer: Cystinosis
Correct Answer: Medium chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
Explanation:Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common yet serious condition characterized by blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. There are multiple aetiologies and various risk factors that lead to hypoglycaemia in new-borns like prematurity, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, and maternal diabetes- induced hyperinsulinism in the new-born. Among the inborn errors of metabolism, fatty acid oxidation defects can lead to persistent hypoglycaemia in new-borns. One such defect is the medium- chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency, which is the enzyme needed for the breakdown of medium- chain fatty acids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A woman gives birth to a baby at 40 weeks of gestation via Caesarean section because of pathological cardiotocography. The baby looks healthy and she has an Apgar score of 9, however, her RR is increased. The mother's antenatal history is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Neonatal pneumonia
Correct Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN)
Explanation:Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN) is the commonest cause of respiratory distress in new-borns and self-limiting. It can affect any new-born shortly after birth. Its most prominent feature is tachypnoea. Nasal flaring, grunting, or intercostal retractions may also be present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
An infant, 5 weeks and 6 days old born with a large sub-aortic ventricular septal defect, is prepared for pulmonary artery banding through a left thoracotomy (the child is not fit for a surgical closure). The surgeon initially passes his index finger immediately behind two great arteries in the pericardial sac to mobilise the great arteries in order to pass the tape around the pulmonary artery. Into which space is the surgeon's finger inserted?
Your Answer: Transverse pericardial sinus
Explanation:Cardiac notch: is an indentation on the left lung of the heart.
Coronary sinus: a venous sinus on the surface of the heart (the posterior aspect) that receives blood from the smaller veins that drain the heart.
Coronary sulcus: a groove on the heart between the atria and ventricles.
Transverse pericardial sinus: located behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and anterior to the superior vena cava.
Oblique pericardial sinus: located behind the left atrium. Accessed from the inferior side (or the apex) of the heart upwards.
Horizontal pericardial sinus: this is a made-up term. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 4 year old boy presented with bruises on bilateral buttocks and thighs. His mother denied any history of trauma. The boy had a sore throat a few weeks ago. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Your Answer: Skeletal survey
Correct Answer: Coagulation profile
Explanation:This history is suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein Purpura following a respiratory infection. A typical rash involving thighs and buttocks is often seen in this age group. Coagulation profile is the suitable answer from the given answers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A baby born at 25 weeks gestation around 24 hours ago is reported to be in a critical state. Birth weight is 550g and the baby shows a poor respiratory effort. The membranes ruptured just prior to the delivery with no signs of maternal fever or sepsis. The infant received no antenatal steroids. After delivery, the neonate was subsequently intubated, resuscitated and given a dose of Curo surf. he was extubated onto CPAP within 6 hours. UVC and UAC access was established and benzylpenicillin and gentamicin were administered. Small amounts of maternal breast milk were given for mouthcare. The baby's cardiovascular system was stable and early ABG samples were within acceptable ranges. At 24 hours of age the baby deteriorates with numerous desaturations and bradycardias requiring reintubation. First gas following reintubation shows pH 7.19, CO2 8.6 kPa, BE -10. Oxygen requirement is 60%. FBC is unremarkable. The baby is cool peripherally and central CRT is 3-4 seconds. There is a loud machinery murmur. Abdominal radiograph shows a football sign. What is the most likely cause of the baby's deterioration?
Your Answer: Group B streptococcus infection
Correct Answer: Spontaneous intestinal perforation
Explanation:Spontaneous intestinal perforation (SIP) of the new-born, also referred to as isolated perforation or focal intestinal perforation (FIP) of the new-born, is a single intestinal perforation that is typically found at the terminal ileum. SIP occurs primarily in preterm infants with very low birth weight (VLBW, birth weight <1500 g) and extremely low birth weight (ELBW, birth weight <1000 g), umbilical catheter placement, maternal drug use and twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome. SIP is a separate clinical entity from necrotizing enterocolitis, the most severe gastrointestinal complication of preterm infants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 13 year old patient presents in the A&E with a fracture of his left femur. He was a passenger in a car involved in a traffic accident. Upon clinical examination, his left posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis arteries are not palpable. Which of the following is most probably injured?
Your Answer: Femoral vein
Correct Answer: Femoral artery
Explanation:The femoral artery is the one accompanying the femoral shaft, being the most important blood supplier of the leg. Femoral artery injury during a femur shaft fracture is quite common as a result of blunt trauma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
Which of the following vaccinations is contraindicated in patients with malignancy undergoing chemotherapy?
Your Answer: Rubella
Explanation:MMR vaccine is a live vaccine. It contains measles, mumps and rubella. These vaccines should be avoided during chemotherapy and for 6 months after.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rectal atresia
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old male presents complaining of gradually increasing fatigue. He says that he turned vegan a year ago. He explains that he takes vitamin B12 supplements every day. Considering iron deficiency anaemia as a possible cause, you order some blood tests to confirm. Which of the following would increase the ability of the body to absorb dietary iron?
Your Answer: Iron overload
Correct Answer: Consuming iron in its ferrous (Fe2+) form
Explanation:Consuming iron in its Fe2+ (ferrous form) form can improve the ability to absorb dietary iron in patients with iron deficiency anaemia (IDA). Clinical features of IDA include:- Koilonychia- Atrophic glossitis- Post-cricoid webs- Angular stomatitisThe peripheral blood smear shows the following abnormal RBC morphologies:- Target cells- Pencil poikilocytes- Microcytic-hypochromic cells
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
What developmental milestones would you expect to observe during the assessment of a normally developing 6-month-old boy?
Your Answer: Have a good pincer grip
Correct Answer: Lost Moro reflex
Explanation:Among the provided options, we would expect a normally developing six-month-old child to have lost Moro’s reflex.Note:The Moro reflex is present from birth and persists until 4 months of age. It is abnormal for the Moro reflex to persist much beyond this stage, and if it does, cerebral palsy should be considered.A normal 6-month old baby should be able to roll over from front to back, readily follow objects with their eyes, transfer objects from hand to hand, recognise parental voices and babble and laugh.Other options:- Having a pincer grip is more typical of a 9-12-month-old.- Although at 6 months babies are often able to sit briefly or with support, sitting steadily is typically seen at 9 months.- Starting to stand with support is more typical of a 9-12-month-old.- Waving bye-bye is more typical of a 9-12-month-old.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
Which of the given statements is correct regarding carbon monoxide?
Your Answer: CO increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood
Correct Answer: CO combines with haemoglobin to form carboxyhaemoglobin
Explanation:Carbon monoxide is a colourless gas, which is toxic to animals. It has a high affinity for haemoglobin (around 250 times greater than oxygen). It combines with haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin, which decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to a left-shift in the oxygen-dissociation curve. CO is produced endogenously in limited amounts (0.4ml per hour), but the toxic levels are higher.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a large swelling on the side of her neck with associated lymph node swellings in her neck and axilla. Which if the following investigations will you order next?
Your Answer: Lymph node biopsy
Explanation:As there is lymphadenopathy already present in this patient, doing a biopsy of the lymph nodes will rule out metastasis of any underlying tumour.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 13-month-old infant is admitted to the hospital and scheduled for an elective cardiac surgery. There is no respiratory distress, but cyanosis is present with oxygen saturations at 80s. There is a midline sternotomy scar. On auscultation there is a 4/6 ejection systolic murmur on the upper left sternal edge and a sternal heave is felt on palpation. Which of the following is the child most likely suffering from and what is the likely treatment?
Your Answer: Aortic stenosis with VSD closure
Correct Answer: Ventricular septal defect with pulmonary artery band
Explanation:The murmur and thrill indicate a right outflow tract murmur, coupled with the right ventricular heave suggests right ventricular hypertrophy. The VSD would not have been amenable to surgery due to the child’s size/weight and so instead would have been palliated with a PA band. As the child grows, this band progressively restricts pulmonary blood flow until the left to right shunt has reversed. Then it is time for the band to be removed and the VSD to be closed.Pulmonary atresia is a cyanotic condition, which may be palliated with an arterial duct stent. This answer is incorrect as the stent placement would not require a midline sternotomy and would give a continuous machinery type murmur. Pulmonary stenosis with PDA ligation is incorrect. The murmur, thrill, and heave all match a pulmonary stenosis but in the absence of an additional shunt lesion the child would not be cyanosed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
Proteinuria is NOT a recognized feature of which of the following conditions?
Your Answer: Landau-Kleffner syndrome
Explanation:Proteinuria refers to an increased amount of protein excretion in urine, which should be greater than 100mg/m2 per day on a single spot urine collection. The limit is even more relaxed for infants and neonates. Proteinuria is a prominent manifestation of cystinosis, acute tubular necrosis, Fanconi syndrome, and celiac disease. Landau-Kleffner syndrome is a rare childhood convulsive disorder, associated with acquired aphasia and auditory verbal agnosia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 30-day-old female was diagnosed with a case of breast milk jaundice. She has no other symptoms. Which is the most suitable next step of management?
Your Answer: Phototherapy
Correct Answer: Continue breastfeeding
Explanation:Breast feeding should be continued for babies with breast milk jaundice as this is a benign condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 5 week old boy is vomiting excessively, suggesting a pyloric stenosis. Which of the following risk factors might be present?
Your Answer: Older maternal age
Correct Answer: Maternal smoking
Explanation:Maternal smoking is one of the most significant risk factors for pyloric stenosis.Remember the three Ps for Pyloric Stenosis:P – palpable massP – peristalsisP – projectile vomiting
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
A 19-year-old male newly diagnosed with HIV is initiated on highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). He was previously well and had no past medical or psychiatric history. A few days after starting the medication, he develops poor sleep and nightmares, with low mood and suicidal ideation. Which antiretroviral agent is most probably responsible for the side effects mentioned?
Your Answer: Lamivudine
Correct Answer: Efavirenz
Explanation:The antiretroviral agent for the side effects mentioned is most probably, efavirenz.Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and the most likely cause of new-onset psychiatric symptoms in someone taking HAART. In this scenario the patient had no pre-existing mental health problems, as other antiretrovirals can cause depression and suicidal ideation in those who have a past psychiatric history. Symptoms usually subside after a few weeks of treatment.Other options:- Emtricitabine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and is also not known to cause psychiatric side effects. The most common side effects of Emtricitabine are rash and darkening of the palms or soles.- Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, which can cause insomnia, but does not commonly cause other psychiatric symptoms.- Rilpivirine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, which can cause depression. However, this is more common in those with a history of mental health problems.- Tenofovir is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. The most common side effect of Tenofovir is gastrointestinal upset. It is not known to cause psychiatric side effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A 2-day old neonate is brought to the hospital with complaint of not having opened his bowels. On examination, the anus is not visible, and meconium is coming out of the urethra. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is most accurate?
Your Answer: This is an anorectal malformation with a recto-urethral fistula. Primary anorectoplasty as first procedure is indicated
Correct Answer: This is an anorectal malformation with a recto urethral fistula, urgent defunctioning colostomy needed
Explanation:Anorectal malformations (ARMS) are also known as imperforate anus (IA). This is an umbrella term for a group of birth defects which affect the anorectal area.During a normal bowel movement, solid waste passes from the colon (large intestine) to the rectum (the final section the colon) and through the anus. When a child has an ARM, the rectum and the anus do not develop properly.Some types of ARM can cause constipation, faecal and / or urinary incontinence, infections and other problems. Some of these problems are very minor and easy to treat, with great long-term prognosis. Others are complex and affect multiple areas of life, such as sexual function and urinary and bowel control.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
In a new drug trial, 1 out of 27 individuals who were given the treatment experienced a side effect, compared to 0 out of the 25 patients given the placebo. Which of the following is true?
Your Answer: The treatment should be discontinued
Correct Answer: Fisher’s exact test should be used to compare the significance of the difference
Explanation:The Chi-squared test would have been a useful test to compare the proportions in the scenario. However, due to the small sample size, Fisher’s exact test can be applied to analyse the significance of the difference. Adequate information is not given to determine what sample sizes were used to test the efficacy of the treatment, and to tell whether the treatment should be discontinued without further analysis on the data.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
Which of the following patient populations is most likely to present with primary vesicoureteric reflux?
Your Answer: Prepubertal boys
Correct Answer: New-born girls
Explanation:Vesicoureteric reflex (VUR) is described as the retrograde flow of urine from the bladder into the ureter due to an incompetent uterovesical junction. In primary VUR the lower urinary tract functions normally, while secondary VUR is associated with a poorly functioning lower urinary tract. The incidence of VUR is highest in new-born girls. They can present with hydronephrosis, or urinary tract infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother, who is worried that her daughter might be using illicit substances. The patient is sweating and appears agitated, talkative and is repeatedly clenching her jaw. She has generalized piloerection. She has most likely taken which of the following substances?
Your Answer: Ketamine
Correct Answer: MDMA (ecstasy)
Explanation:3,4-methylenedioxy-methamphetamine (MDMA) is a synthetic drug that alters mood and perception (awareness of surrounding objects and conditions). It is chemically similar to both stimulants and hallucinogens, producing feelings of increased energy, pleasure, emotional warmth, and distorted sensory and time perception. MDMA’s effects last about 3 to 6 hours, although many users take a second dose as the effects of the first dose begin to fade. Over the course of the week following moderate use of the drug, a person may experience:irritabilityimpulsiveness and aggressiondepressionsleep problemsanxietymemory and attention problemsdecreased appetitedecreased interest in and pleasure from sex
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old male presents to the emergency with severe testicular pain and is diagnosed with suspected testicular torsion. He is scheduled for surgical exploration. The surgeon makes an incision on the skin and then the dartos muscle. Which of the following tissue layers will be incised next?
Your Answer: Visceral layer of the tunica vaginalis
Correct Answer: External spermatic fascia
Explanation:Coverings of the spermatic cord:Spermatic cord is covered by three concentric layers of fasciae, derived from the layers the of anterior abdominal wall. Developmentally, each covering is acquired as the processus vaginalis descends into the scrotum through the layers of the abdominal wall. The layers are:External spermatic fascia: It is derived from the external oblique muscle. It attaches to the margins of superficial inguinal ring.Cremasteric fascia: It is derived from the internal oblique muscle. It covers the cremaster muscle.Internal spermatic fascia: It is derived from the fascia transversalis (fascia covering the transversus abdominis muscle). It is attached to the margins of the deep inguinal ring.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old girl presents with hyperkeratotic plaques on the extensor aspects of the skin and the scalp margin. A skin scraping KOH mount and fungal culture in Sabouraud Dextrose Agar from the skin and hair revealed no growth.What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Correct Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms is psoriasis. Psoriasis:Chronic plaque psoriasis is characterised by pinkish-red hyperkeratotic plaques, which occur mainly on extensor surfaces such as knees and elbows. The lower back, ears and scalp can also be involved. Koebner phenomenon: Psoriasis typically exhibits this phenomenon where new plaques of psoriasis occur particularly at sites of skin trauma. Diagnosis:Skin biopsy of psoriatic plaques reveals acanthosis and parakeratosis, reflecting increased skin turnover. Capillary dilatation within the dermis also occurs, surrounded by a mixed neutrophilic and lymphohistiocytic perivascular infiltrate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
Which of the given statements is characteristic of meningomyeloceles?
Your Answer: The lesion should not be occluded due to increased risk of sepsis
Correct Answer: A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak is common
Explanation:Myelomeningocele is the most common type of open neural tube defect and a serious central nervous system disorder associated with significant morbidity. It is also called open spina bifida since the dura, and arachnoid matter herniates through the defect in the vertebral column. The commonest association is the decreased folate levels during early pregnancy. The alpha-fetoprotein levels are raised in the amniotic fluid. CSF leak is a common presentation with associated macrocephaly and hydrocephaly. Prenatal surgical repair is linked to a better prognosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:
Your Answer: Contains less chloride
Correct Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose
Explanation:The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluid And Electrolytes
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old presents to the physician with 2-week history of fever, chest pan, generalized stiffness, swollen wrists and fingers and lower extremity oedema bilaterally. There is a facial rash over her cheeks and palms. She complains that while combing her hair, she has started to notice hair loss. Based on these clinical findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anticardiolipin antibodies
Correct Answer: Low serum complement levels
Explanation:Complement activation plays a key role in the pathophysiology of SLE and it is recommended to continue monitoring serum levels of C3 and C4 to assess for disease activity. However, it is important to note that decreased serum complement is not consistently associated with disease flares.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 4 year old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints of generalized pallor, loss of weight and loose stools. The baby's stools were frothy in nature and difficult to flush. Which investigation can help in diagnosing this patient?
Your Answer: LFT
Correct Answer: Anti-endomysial antibodies
Explanation:The presence of anti-endomysial antibodies confirms the diagnosis of Celiac disease, which is the primary cause of illness in this patient. The sweat chloride test is performed with cystic fibrosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
-
-
Question 42
Correct
-
A 10 year old boy is being bullied by his classmates because he's obese and he is the shortest in his class. His mother is worried and brings him in to the clinic. History reveals he had a renal transplant last year. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cushing’s syndrome
Explanation:The boy had a renal transplant, for which he needs immune suppression. For the exogenous immune suppression an exogenous steroid is needed, which in this case is responsible for the primary Cushing syndrome manifesting with short stature. The administration of steroids before the physiological fusion of the growth plate can lead to premature fusion with permanent cessation of bone growth.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 43
Correct
-
A new-born baby has a loud murmur, grade 3/6, at the upper left sternal edge. Which one of the following statements about examination techniques is correct?
Your Answer: Feeling femoral pulses is mandatory
Explanation:Heart murmurs are common in healthy infants, children, and adolescents. Although most are not pathologic, a murmur may be the sole manifestation of serious heart disease. Historical elements that suggest pathology include family history of sudden cardiac death or congenital heart disease, in utero exposure to certain medications or alcohol, maternal diabetes mellitus, history of rheumatic fever or Kawasaki disease, and certain genetic disorders. Physical examination should focus on vital signs| age-appropriate exercise capacity| respiratory or gastrointestinal manifestations of congestive heart failure| and a thorough cardiovascular examination, including features of the murmur, assessment of peripheral perfusion, and auscultation over the heart valves. Red flags that increase the likelihood of a pathologic murmur include a holosystolic or diastolic murmur, grade 3 or higher murmur, harsh quality, an abnormal S2, maximal murmur intensity at the upper left sternal border, a systolic click, or increased intensity when the patient stands. Electrocardiography and chest radiography rarely assist in the diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. What is the most appropriate management for this child?
Your Answer: He should have his mumps serology assessed now
Correct Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age
Explanation:Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 45
Correct
-
A 2-week-old infant is suffering from hydrocephalus that has developed secondary to congenital spina bifida. Where in the brain is the CSF formed?
Your Answer: Choroid plexuses
Explanation:CSF is produced mainly by a structure called the choroid plexus in the lateral, third and fourth ventricles. CSF flows from the lateral ventricle to the third ventricle through the interventricular foramen (also called the foramen of Monro). The third ventricle and fourth ventricle are connected to each other by the cerebral aqueduct (also called the Aqueduct of Sylvius). CSF then flows into the subarachnoid space through the foramina of Luschka (there are two of these) and the foramen of Magendie (only one of these).Absorption of the CSF into the blood stream takes place in the superior sagittal sinus through structures called arachnoid villi . When the CSF pressure is greater than the venous pressure, CSF will flow into the blood stream.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old child who is undergoing assisted ventilation following traumatic brain injury develops new-onset bradycardia and hypertension.Which of the following can improve his current condition?
Your Answer: Maintain CO2 at 5 kPa
Correct Answer: Mannitol 20%
Explanation:All of the presenting features of the child are suggestive raised intracranial pressure. Thus, urgent treatment with 20% Mannitol can improve the child’s condition. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is used in the treatment of raised intracranial pressure. It should be avoided in hypovolaemia because of its diuretic effects. Other options:- Head up at 15°: Keeping the head up at 20° in the midline will aid venous drainage. – Maintain CO2 at 5 kPa: If there is an acute rise in intracranial pressure, then lowering the CO2 to 4–4.5 kPa as a temporary measure can be beneficial. However, this must be only short-lived since it causes vasoconstriction and can impair cerebral blood flow. – 10% glucose bolus: Maintaining normoglycemia in traumatic brain injury is important. – 0.9% saline infusion: Hypertonic saline infusion of 3% can reduce intracranial pressure. 0.9% saline as a bolus could be beneficial if there were hypotension.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?
Your Answer: Fixed splitting of S2
Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur
Explanation:ASD is an acyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by the failure of the interatrial septum to form completely, which results in the mixing of left and right-sided blood. There are various types of ASD, some of them are ostium primum septal defect and patent foramen ovale. Clinical findings associated with ASD are a systolic ejection murmur, fixed splitting of second heart sound, prolonged PR interval, both left and right axis deviation (primum and secundum ASD, respectively). The most common finding is an incomplete right bundle branch block.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
A patient was diagnosed with a fast-growing pituitary adenoma. Magnetic resonance image (MRI) scanning reveals a suprasellar extension. Which structure is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Third ventricle
Correct Answer: Optic nerve
Explanation:Cranial nerve II (CN II or optic nerve) runs along the midline of the ventral surface of the brain and conveys visual information from the retina of each eye to the corresponding region of the primary visual cortex. The right half of the visual field of both eyes is processed by the left half of the retina, while the right half of the retina processes the left half of the visual field. These retinal ganglion cells project myelinated axons, carrying CN II sensory afferent fibres, through the optic chiasm, where optic nerve fibres from the nasal half of each retina decussate to the contralateral side of the brain for processing. After passing through the optic chiasm, the optic nerve becomes the optic tract that synapses to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus and subsequently projects optic radiations to the primary visual cortex (V1) of the occipital lobe. The optic tract also projects to the superior colliculus, pretectal nuclei, and suprachiasmatic nuclei. This part of the optic pathway serves the important light reflex.Due to the anatomical location of the optic chiasm superior to the pituitary gland, a suprasellar extension of a pituitary macroadenoma will lead to compression of the optic nerve fibres decussating at the optic chiasm. Impingement of these nerves prevents visual information from the temporal visual fields of each eye from reaching the processing centres in the brain, leading to peripheral vision loss
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
Where does Stensens duct primarily open?
Your Answer: Immediately lateral to the foramen caecum
Correct Answer: Opposite the second molar tooth
Explanation:The parotid duct (Stensen’s duct), which provides an exit for the gland’s secretions, passes through the anterior edge of the gland in the superficial lobe, turns medially at the anterior border of the masseter, penetrates the buccinator, then enters the oral cavity lateral to the second maxillary molar.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
A 9-year-old girl complains of perioral blisters and a burning sensation of her face. Some of the blisters are crusted and some are weeping. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impetigo
Explanation:Impetigo appears more commonly on the face than other exposed areas like the limbs. Its blisters are clustered and may have a fluid discharge.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)