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  • Question 1 - What is the mode of spread of chickenpox? ...

    Correct

    • What is the mode of spread of chickenpox?

      Your Answer: Airborne

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is a highly communicable viral disease caused by human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus, VZV). It is transmitted from person to person by direct contact (touching the rash), droplet or air born spread (coughing and sneezing).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 15-year-old girl presented with generalised excessive hair growth, especially on her limbs....

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl presented with generalised excessive hair growth, especially on her limbs. Which one of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: She is on phenytoin to control seizures

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are most likely due to phenytoin intake.Note:Hypertrichosis occurs in 5–12% of patients on phenytoin and is most prominent on the extremities. Other options:- Hypertrichosis is the excess hair growth, whereas hirsutism is the development of male-pattern-dependent hair growth, as seen in polycystic ovarian syndrome. – A Becker’s naevus is associated with localised hypertrichosis in the naevus. – Cyclosporine intake can typically lead to diffuse hair growth that begins within 2–4 weeks of starting the drug. – Hereditary gingival fibromatosis is associated with variable hypertrichosis occurring on the eyebrows, face, limbs and mid-back.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 17-year-old boy is brought to the endocrinologist by his parents who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old boy is brought to the endocrinologist by his parents who are worried that he might have delayed growth as all his friends are taller than him. On examination, he has a preadolescent body habitus and no evidence of development of secondary sexual characteristics. Serum LH, FSH, and testosterone all match prepubertal range. Following an injection of GnRH, the LH and FSH concentrations increase only slightly. However, when the GnRH is given daily for 7 days, a normal response is elicited. Which of the following is the most likely causing this boy's delayed puberty?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: A hypothalamic disorder

      Explanation:

      Hypogonadotropic hypogonadismIn Kallmann syndrome: impaired migration of GnRH cells and defective olfactory bulb → ↓ GnRH in hypothalamus → ↓ FSH and ↓ LH → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogenIn hypothalamic and/or pituitary lesions: ↓ pituitary gonadotropins (↓ FSH and ↓ LH) → ↓ testosterone and ↓ oestrogen

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the most likely cause for bloody diarrhoea of 3 days duration...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely cause for bloody diarrhoea of 3 days duration in a 10-year-old child?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter

      Explanation:

      The most common cause for acute bloody diarrhoea in a 10-year-old child is Campylobacter.Note:Campylobacter is the most common bacterial cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. It typically presents with bloody diarrhoea, fever, abdominal pain and vomiting. The primary source of Campylobacter is uncooked poultry. Treatment is generally supportive unless the child is immunosuppressed or the symptoms are persistent.Other options:- E. coli 0157:H7: It causes acute haemorrhagic diarrhoea, usually afebrile. It can lead to haemolytic uremic syndrome (haemolytic anaemia, acute renal failure and thrombocytopenia), which is the commonest cause of acute renal failure in children.- Rotavirus: It rarely causes bloody diarrhoea.- Salmonella and Yersinia: While they can cause bloody diarrhoea, they are much less common compared to Campylobacter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?...

    Correct

    • Isolated atrial septal defect is NOT characterized by which of the given findings?

      Your Answer: Diastolic murmur

      Explanation:

      ASD is an acyanotic congenital heart disease, characterized by the failure of the interatrial septum to form completely, which results in the mixing of left and right-sided blood. There are various types of ASD, some of them are ostium primum septal defect and patent foramen ovale. Clinical findings associated with ASD are a systolic ejection murmur, fixed splitting of second heart sound, prolonged PR interval, both left and right axis deviation (primum and secundum ASD, respectively). The most common finding is an incomplete right bundle branch block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 3-year-old girl with febrile convulsions was given IV Lorazepam. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl with febrile convulsions was given IV Lorazepam. What is the single most serious side effect associated with IV Lorazepam?

      Your Answer: Cardiac arrhythmia

      Correct Answer: Amnesia

      Explanation:

      The most serious side effects of IV Lorazepam include hallucinations, agitation, confusion, amnesia and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old athlete presents to the clinic with pain and swelling over the medial aspect of the right knee joint. The pain occurs when climbing the stairs, but is not present when walking on flat ground. Clinically there is pain over the medial aspect of the proximal tibia, and the McMurray test is negative.What is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prepatellar bursitis

      Correct Answer: Pes Anserinus Bursitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s symptoms would be pes anserine bursitis.Translated, pes anserinus means goose feet. It is the term used to describe the unified bursa enclosing the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis and semitendinous muscles inserting into the anteromedial proximal tibia.Pes anserine bursitis is common in people doing sports due to overuse injuries. The main sign is of pain in the medial part of the proximal tibia. As the McMurray test is negative, medial meniscal injury is excluded.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      118.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with nausea, vomiting and abdominal swelling....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents to the physician with nausea, vomiting and abdominal swelling. Physical examination also reveals digital clubbing and linea nigra on her abdomen. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Clinical signs of early pregnancy-Amenorrhoea-Nausea and vomiting -Breast enlargement and tenderness -Hyperpigmentation of the areola and formation of linea nigra: Most likely due to increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone produced by the placenta -Increased urinary frequency-Fatigue-Cravings for or aversions to certain foods-Abdominal bloating and constipation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
      121.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 9 year old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started...

    Correct

    • A 9 year old boy was admitted with gastroenteritis. The boy's symptoms started two days ago with profound diarrhoea and emesis. Blood exams show the following: Sodium=148mmol/l, Potassium=2.2mmol/l, Urea=20mmol/l, Glucose=4.3mmol/l. What would be the best management?

      Your Answer: V normal saline and potassium supplement

      Explanation:

      The boy needs re-hydration and hydro-electrolytic re-balancing due to fluid losses from the gastroenteritis and subsequent dehydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      91.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is false regarding H. pylori?

      Your Answer: Splitting urea to release nitrogen decreases the pH in the stomach

      Explanation:

      H. pylori release the enzyme urease that has the ability to split urea releasing nitrogen. This process increases the pH in the gastric antrum making the gastric pH less acidic.Helicobacter pylori:It is a spiral, microaerophilic, gram-negative bacterium. It is one of the most common causes of antral gastritis in children. Ulcers are less common in children compared with adults| however, when they occur, they are more common in the duodenum.The presence of H.pylori can be confirmed by:- Stool antigen test (preferred)- Serology- Endoscopy with biopsy and culture- Rapid urease testsH.pylori gastritis may be associated with:- Iron deficiency anaemia- Gastric malignancy Management:The treatment is with triple therapy- two antibiotics, and an antacid.Treatment failure is often attributed to a possible worldwide increase in macrolide resistance. Interestingly, children have higher antibiotic resistance compared with adults.Note:Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (ZES) causes gastrin-secreting tumours and can present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)- an autosomal dominant disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Where would you visualise the azygous lobe on an antero-posterior (A-P) chest X-ray?...

    Correct

    • Where would you visualise the azygous lobe on an antero-posterior (A-P) chest X-ray?

      Your Answer: Right upper zone

      Explanation:

      The azygos lobe is usually well seen on the chest radiograph, where it is limited by the azygos fissure, a fine, convex (relative to the mediastinum) line that crosses the apex of the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 5 year old girl presents with a wart-like lesion on her thigh...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old girl presents with a wart-like lesion on her thigh and a hyperpigmented, rhabdoid whorl rash. She has a history of seizures since she was three years old and warts similar to the one she has now. Family history reveals the mother had two in utero stillbirths. The doctor observes small vesicles on the anterior surface of her left wrist. Other findings include mild scoliosis, thin wiry hair, and peg-shaped teeth. Her gait is normal and she is otherwise healthy. Ruth Griffiths score reveals a reduced sub quotient in terms of social skills, performance, and language and hearing skills. The doctor takes a biopsy sample which shows many intradermal eosinophils in the absence of inflammatory cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Incontinentia pigmenti

      Explanation:

      Incontinentia pigmenti is a genetic condition that affects females more than males. It usually manifests in the skin but can affect other parts of the body as well. It presents with a blistering rash that may evolve into wart-like growths. Hyperpigmentation and hair loss are also present, as well as eye and teeth abnormalities. Clinically there are three phases: 1- the bullous phase – crops of vesicles appear in the first 2 weeks of life|2- the papular phase – warty papules that flatten out over the skin| and 3- the hyperpigmented phase – pigmentary changes in the form of whorls and streaks that are hypo- and hyperpigmented in nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      90.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old rugby player is brought to the emergency by his teammates after suffering a blow to the face. He is applying pressure on his nose with a towel which is saturated with blood. Direct compression results in cessation of bleeding. On examination, a pink/blue mass can be seen occupying the right nostril. The rest of the ENT examination is not significant. The patient reports a blocked nose for the past few weeks. The boy is most likely suffering from which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Juvenile Angiofibroma

      Explanation:

      Juvenile angiofibroma (JA) is a rare benign vascular lesion of the skull base that affects young adolescent males. The management of JA is challenged by the abundant vascular blood supply of the lesion, along with the complex anatomy of the skull base and the young age of the affected population. JA typically affects the male population, most commonly between 9 and 19 years of age. The most frequent symptoms are nasal obstruction and epistaxis. Nasal obstruction may be bilateral despite the unilaterality of the lesion, due to nasopharyngeal extension as well as deviation of the nasal septum by the expansile lesion. Epistaxis is usually brisk and intermittent. Purulent nasal discharge and facial pain can be due to sinus drainage pathway obstruction, and conductive hearing loss indicates obstruction of the eustachian tube.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe...

    Incorrect

    • A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe jaundice within the first 24 hours of delivery. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ABO incompatibility

      Correct Answer: Rh incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Jaundice is considered pathologic if it presents within the first 24 hours after birth. Although up to 60 percent of term new-borns have clinical jaundice in the first week of life, few have significant underlying disease.1,2 However, hyperbilirubinemia in the new-born period can be associated with severe illnesses such as haemolytic disease, metabolic and endocrine disorders, anatomic abnormalities of the liver, and infections. The risk factors here is the mothers blood ground which suggests the cause is fetal-maternal blood group incompatibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Communicating hydrocephalus is found in which of the following clinical conditions? ...

    Correct

    • Communicating hydrocephalus is found in which of the following clinical conditions?

      Your Answer: Bacterial meningitis

      Explanation:

      Hydrocephalus is a serious medical condition resulting from excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain leading to abnormal pressure build-up inside the brain. Hydrocephalus can be categorized into two types according to the flow of CSF between the ventricles. When the CSF flows freely between the ventricles, but is blocked after it exits the ventricular system, the hydrocephalus is said to be a communicating hydrocephalus. When the flow of CSF within the ventricles is blocked, the resulting hydrocephalus is termed as obstructive, or non-communicating. The communicating hydrocephalus is caused by insufficient reabsorption of CSF in the subarachnoid space, which is also observed in cases of bacterial meningitis, in which inflammatory process leads to the thickening of the leptomeninges and thereby reduces CSF reabsorption. Arnold Chiari malformation is associated with obstructive hydrocephalus due to blocked ventricles. Congenital aqueduct stenosis causes the blockage of third and lateral ventricles. Congenital atresia of the foramen of Monro leads to blocked lateral ventricles and thus results in obstructive hydrocephalus. Tumour of the posterior fossa is associated with blockage of the fourth ventricle outflow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 12 year old boy is shot in the abdomen with a pellet...

    Correct

    • A 12 year old boy is shot in the abdomen with a pellet gun. He hides the injury for over a week before he is taken to his doctor. CT scan shows that the pellet is lodged in his liver's left lobe. His abdomen is soft and non-tender on examination and he seems well. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Do not operate and review the patient several weeks later

      Explanation:

      Answer: Do not operate and review the patient several weeks laterAir weapon injuries in children should be managed in the same way as any low velocity gun shot injury. Subcutaneous pellets are best removed. Urgent specialist referral is indicated for cranial, ocular, chest, abdominal, or vascular injuries as they may require emergency surgery. Cardiac injuries may be rapidly fatal. Penetrating abdominal injuries involving hollow viscera or major blood vessels need prompt exploration and repair. Intracranial air weapon pellets should be removed if possible. A pellet in lung parenchyma or muscle may be safely left in situ but there is a risk of infection. A pellet that has penetrated a joint or is associated with a fracture requires skilled orthopaedic management. A pellet lodged near a major blood vessel or nerve should ideally be removed. The possibility of intravascular embolism must be considered if the pellet is absent from a suspected entry site and there is no exit wound| numerous examples of arterial and venous embolism of an air weapon pellet in children have been described.In this case, the child seems well so there is no need to operate. He should be reviewed several weeks later.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 13-year-old child who is undergoing assisted ventilation following traumatic brain injury develops...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old child who is undergoing assisted ventilation following traumatic brain injury develops new-onset bradycardia and hypertension.Which of the following can improve his current condition?

      Your Answer: Mannitol 20%

      Explanation:

      All of the presenting features of the child are suggestive raised intracranial pressure. Thus, urgent treatment with 20% Mannitol can improve the child’s condition. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is used in the treatment of raised intracranial pressure. It should be avoided in hypovolaemia because of its diuretic effects. Other options:- Head up at 15°: Keeping the head up at 20° in the midline will aid venous drainage. – Maintain CO2 at 5 kPa: If there is an acute rise in intracranial pressure, then lowering the CO2 to 4–4.5 kPa as a temporary measure can be beneficial. However, this must be only short-lived since it causes vasoconstriction and can impair cerebral blood flow. – 10% glucose bolus: Maintaining normoglycemia in traumatic brain injury is important. – 0.9% saline infusion: Hypertonic saline infusion of 3% can reduce intracranial pressure. 0.9% saline as a bolus could be beneficial if there were hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A baby born at 25 weeks gestation around 24 hours ago is reported...

    Incorrect

    • A baby born at 25 weeks gestation around 24 hours ago is reported to be in a critical state. Birth weight is 550g and the baby shows a poor respiratory effort. The membranes ruptured just prior to the delivery with no signs of maternal fever or sepsis. The infant received no antenatal steroids. After delivery, the neonate was subsequently intubated, resuscitated and given a dose of Curo surf. he was extubated onto CPAP within 6 hours. UVC and UAC access was established and benzylpenicillin and gentamicin were administered. Small amounts of maternal breast milk were given for mouthcare. The baby's cardiovascular system was stable and early ABG samples were within acceptable ranges. At 24 hours of age the baby deteriorates with numerous desaturations and bradycardias requiring reintubation. First gas following reintubation shows pH 7.19, CO2 8.6 kPa, BE -10. Oxygen requirement is 60%. FBC is unremarkable. The baby is cool peripherally and central CRT is 3-4 seconds. There is a loud machinery murmur. Abdominal radiograph shows a football sign. What is the most likely cause of the baby's deterioration?

      Your Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous intestinal perforation

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous intestinal perforation (SIP) of the new-born, also referred to as isolated perforation or focal intestinal perforation (FIP) of the new-born, is a single intestinal perforation that is typically found at the terminal ileum. SIP occurs primarily in preterm infants with very low birth weight (VLBW, birth weight <1500 g) and extremely low birth weight (ELBW, birth weight <1000 g), umbilical catheter placement, maternal drug use and twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome. SIP is a separate clinical entity from necrotizing enterocolitis, the most severe gastrointestinal complication of preterm infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      127.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 10-year-old boy with faecal soiling secondary to constipation and overflow incontinence has...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with faecal soiling secondary to constipation and overflow incontinence has not responded to over a year of medical management.A colonoscopy-guided biopsy has ruled out Hirschsprung's disease.Which of the following procedures would be appropriate in the surgical management of this child?

      Your Answer: Defunctioning Ileostomy

      Correct Answer: Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate procedure in the surgical management of this child would be to perform an appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas (Malone procedure).Idiopathic constipation leading to faecal incontinence is managed in a stepwise progression, first with laxatives such as movicol, enemas and stronger laxatives and in younger children inter-sphincteric injection of botox may be performed. Following this either anal irrigation or antegrade continence enemas are performed. Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas allow colonic washouts and thereby rapid achievement of continence.Other options:- Defunctioning Ileostomy: Although an option in extreme cases, an ACE stoma would be more appropriate in this child.- Laparotomy for resection of the megarectum is performed if ACE stoma fails due to megarectum.- Left hemicolectomy is a procedure reserved for slow-transit colons to increase transit time.- Bishop-Koop stoma: It is a procedure of historical significance. It is a way of washing out and managing meconium ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      165.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 6 year old boy presented in the emergency department with a cough...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old boy presented in the emergency department with a cough and knee swelling after falling on the road. He had a non-blanching rash on his buttocks and investigations revealed: PT=13, APTT=71, Hgb=11, WBC=8, Plt=200. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia

      Explanation:

      From the options mentioned here, the closest diagnosis is haemophilia. This is a mixed picture, as a purpuric rash on the buttocks does not correlate with this diagnosis. However, the most appropriate diagnosis is haemophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following conditions is NOT autosomal dominant? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is NOT autosomal dominant?

      Your Answer: Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

      Correct Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a condition that occurs almost exclusively in males. This condition is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern It is characterized by neurological and behavioural abnormalities and the overproduction of uric acid. Uric acid is a waste product of normal chemical processes and is found in blood and urine. Excess uric acid can be released from the blood and build up under the skin and cause gouty arthritis (arthritis caused by an accumulation of uric acid in the joints). Uric acid accumulation can also cause kidney and bladder stones.The nervous system and behavioural disturbances experienced by people with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome include abnormal involuntary muscle movements, such as tensing of various muscles (dystonia), jerking movements (chorea), and flailing of the limbs (ballismus). People with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome usually cannot walk, require assistance sitting, and generally use a wheelchair. Self-injury (including biting and head banging) is the most common and distinctive behavioural problem in individuals with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 12-year-old boy sustains a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy sustains a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle following a fall from his bicycle.Which vessel is at the highest risk of injury?

      Your Answer: External carotid artery

      Correct Answer: Subclavian vein

      Explanation:

      Being anatomically situated immediately posterior to the subclavius muscle and the medial part of the clavicle, the subclavian vein is at the highest risk of injury in the above patient.As a direct tributary of the brachiocephalic vein, it’s injury poses a high risk of massive bleeding.The brachiocephalic vein rests on the first rib, below and in front of the third part of the subclavian artery, and then on scalenus anterior which separates it from the second part of the artery (posteriorly).Anatomy of the clavicle:The clavicle extends from the sternum to the acromion and helps prevent the shoulder falling forwards and downwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      257.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents, who are...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents, who are concerned that he is shorter than the other boys at school, despite having attained puberty. His father is 1.70 m tall, and his mother is 1.50 m tall. Given his parents height, what is his adult height potential?

      Your Answer: 1.67 m

      Explanation:

      The adult height potential may be calculated for a male child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then add 7 cm.In the scenario provided: (170 + 150)/2 + 7 = 167 cm = 1.67 m.For a female child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then minus 7 cm.This can then be plotted on a height centile chart to find the mid-parental centile.Causes of short stature include:- Normal variant (often familial)- Constitutional delay of growth and puberty- Chronic illness, e.g. cystic fibrosis, inflammatory bowel disease- Endocrine: growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, steroid excess syndromes: Turner’s, Down’s, Prader-Willi- Skeletal dysplasias, e.g. achondroplasia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency due to fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency due to fever and urinary urgency. The temperature is recorded to be 39C. Which of the following is the best investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: IVU

      Correct Answer: Clean catch of urine

      Explanation:

      Urine culture and sensitivity is used to diagnose a urinary tract infection (UTI). A mid-stream clean catch urine sample is the most common type of sample collected. It is important to follow the clean catch process to have accurate results from an uncontaminated sample. Urine cultures can also check for infections of the bladder or kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Choose the karyotype associated with short stature: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the karyotype associated with short stature:

      Your Answer: 45,XO

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome (TS) is one of the most common genetic disorders| occurs with an incidence of I: 2,500 female live births. It results from complete or partial chromosome X monosomy. TS is associated with abnormalities of the X chromosome and characteristic clinical features of short stature, gonadal dysgenesis, sexual developmental deficiencies, cardiac and/or renal defects, webbed neck, low-set ears, skeletal deformities including cubitus valgus, a propensity to ear infections and hearing deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is incorrect?

      Your Answer: The perinatal mortality rate is the number of stillbirths and deaths within 7 days of life divided by 1000 births

      Correct Answer: The embryonic phase is the first 20 weeks in utero

      Explanation:

      The embryonic period comprises of the first 8 weeks of pregnancy. It is divided into a preembryonic phase (from the 1st to the 3rd week), in which the three germinal layers arise, and into the embryonic phase proper (from the 4th to 8th week), in which the embryonic organ anlagen arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      152.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 19-year-old male newly diagnosed with HIV is initiated on highly active antiretroviral...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male newly diagnosed with HIV is initiated on highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). He was previously well and had no past medical or psychiatric history. A few days after starting the medication, he develops poor sleep and nightmares, with low mood and suicidal ideation. Which antiretroviral agent is most probably responsible for the side effects mentioned?

      Your Answer: Efavirenz

      Explanation:

      The antiretroviral agent for the side effects mentioned is most probably, efavirenz.Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and the most likely cause of new-onset psychiatric symptoms in someone taking HAART. In this scenario the patient had no pre-existing mental health problems, as other antiretrovirals can cause depression and suicidal ideation in those who have a past psychiatric history. Symptoms usually subside after a few weeks of treatment.Other options:- Emtricitabine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and is also not known to cause psychiatric side effects. The most common side effects of Emtricitabine are rash and darkening of the palms or soles.- Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, which can cause insomnia, but does not commonly cause other psychiatric symptoms.- Rilpivirine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, which can cause depression. However, this is more common in those with a history of mental health problems.- Tenofovir is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. The most common side effect of Tenofovir is gastrointestinal upset. It is not known to cause psychiatric side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch?

      Your Answer: Stylopharyngeus muscle

      Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      Also known as the hyoid arch, it forms the side and front of the neck. From its cartilage develops the styloid process, stylohyoid ligament and lesser cornu of the hyoid bone. The muscular derivatives include the muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid and the posterior belly of the digastric. All these are innervated by cranial nerve VII but migrate into the area of the mandibular arch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 17-year-old female, who works at a day-care centre presents to the physician...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old female, who works at a day-care centre presents to the physician with vomiting, joint pains, diarrhoea and crampy abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals a purpuric rash on her legs and over the belt area. She has microscopic haematuria, proteinuria and RBC casts on urine testing. Which of the underlying diagnoses is most likely in this case?

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), also known as IgA vasculitis, is a disease of the skin, mucous membranes, and sometimes other organs that most commonly affects children. In the skin, the disease causes palpable purpura (small, raised areas of bleeding underneath the skin), often with joint pain and abdominal pain. It is an acute immunoglobulin A (IgA)–mediated disorder. The tetrad of purpura, arthritis, kidney inflammation, and abdominal pain is often observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 30 - A 16-year-old schoolboy presents for a regular medical check-up. He complains of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old schoolboy presents for a regular medical check-up. He complains of a red patch of skin on his chest, that is surrounded by an area of skin scaling. This was followed by the development of oval macules over the rest of his trunk, arms and thighs three days later. he has just returned to school for the start of Spring term. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pityriasis rosea

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis rosea is a common, acute exanthem of uncertain aetiology. Viral and bacterial causes have been sought, but convincing answers have not yet been found. Pityriasis rosea typically affects children and young adults. It is characterized by an initial herald patch, followed by the development of a diffuse papulosquamous rash. The herald patch often is misdiagnosed as eczema. Pityriasis rosea is difficult to identify until the appearance of characteristic smaller secondary lesions that follow Langer’s lines (cleavage lines). Several medications can cause a rash similar to pityriasis rosea, and several diseases, including secondary syphilis, are included in the differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (3/3) 100%
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Neurology And Neurodisability (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Surgery (1/2) 50%
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Neonatology (0/2) 0%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/2) 50%
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Nephro-urology (1/1) 100%
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