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  • Question 1 - Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon?

      Your Answer: Low serum concentration of glucose

      Explanation:

      The most potent stimulus for secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia whereas hyperglycaemia is a stimulus for insulin release. Glucagon secretion also occurs in response to high levels of amino acids. Somatostatin inhibits glucagon secretion. Parasympathetic stimulation increases pancreatic acinar secretion, but not of α-cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Physiology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the...

    Correct

    • Signals pass through neuromuscular junctions via the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. After release from the skeletal neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine:

      Your Answer: Causes postsynaptic depolarisation

      Explanation:

      Acetylcholine is released from the presynaptic membrane into the cleft where it binds to the ion gated channels on the post synaptic membrane, causing them to open. This results in sodium entering into the fibre and further depolarizing it, creating an action potential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is the most likely cause of prolonged thrombin clotting...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the most likely cause of prolonged thrombin clotting time?

      Your Answer: Hypofibrinogenemia

      Explanation:

      Thrombin clotting time, also called thrombin time (TT), is test used for the investigation of possible bleeding or clotting disorders. TT reflects the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and it’s also very sensitive to the presence of the anticoagulant heparin. A prolonged thrombin time may indicate the presence of hypofibrinogenemia (decreased fibrinogen level ), dysfibrinogenaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), end stage liver disease or malnutrition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Radial

      Correct Answer: Lower subscapular

      Explanation:

      The muscle is the subscapularis muscle which is supplied by the lower subscapular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      65.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the: ...

    Correct

    • The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer: Postcentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus and is the largest cortical receiving area for information from somatosensory receptors. Through corticocortical fibres, it then sends the information to other areas of the neocortex and further analysis takes place in the posterior parietal association cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient with this type of tumour is advised to follow up regularly...

    Correct

    • A patient with this type of tumour is advised to follow up regularly for monitoring of tumour size as there is a strong correlation with malignant potential and tumour size. Which of the following is the most likely tumour in this patient?

      Your Answer: Renal adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      The distinction between a benign renal adenoma and renal adenocarcinoma is commonly made on the basis of size. Tumours less than 2 cm in size rarely become malignant as opposed to those greater than 3 cm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 76-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus after a urine test revealed...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus after a urine test revealed she has glucosuria. Glucosuria may occur due to inadequate glucose reabsorption at:

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Glucose is reabsorbed almost 100% via sodium–glucose transport proteins (apical) and GLUT (basolateral) in the proximal convoluted tubule. Glycosuria or glucosuria is a condition of osmotic diuresis typical in those suffering from diabetes mellitus. Due to a lack of insulin, plasma glucose levels are above normal. This leads to saturation of receptors in the kidneys and glycosuria usually at plasma glucose levels above 11 mmol/l. Rarely, glycosuria is due to an intrinsic problem with glucose reabsorption within the kidneys (such as Fanconi syndrome), producing a condition termed renal glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that the hernial sac is protruding out of the superficial inguinal ring. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?

      Your Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique just above and lateral to the pubic crest. The opening is oblique and corresponds to the fibres of the aponeurosis. It is bound inferiorly by the pubic crest, on either side by the margins of the opening in the aponeurosis and superiorly by the curved intercrural fibres.

      The inferior crus is formed by the portion of the inguinal ligament that is inserted into the pubic tubercle.

      The falx inguinalis is made of arching fibres of the transversalis fascia and the internal abdominal oblique muscle. It forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      The internal abdominal oblique forms the root of the inguinal canal.

      Scarpa’s and Camper’s fascia are the membranous and fatty layers, respectively of subcutaneous fascia.

      Transversalis fascia covers the posterior surface of the rectus abdominis muscle inferior to the arcuate line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following associations is correctly matched with the body's defence mechanism...

    Correct

    • Which of the following associations is correctly matched with the body's defence mechanism in fighting infection?

      Your Answer: Specific cellular mechanism → cytotoxic T cells

      Explanation:

      The immune system has certain levels of defence against pathogens. First line includes simple barriers such as skin, mucosa and stomach acid that prevent the pathogen from entering into the body. If this barrier is breached then the innate immune system is activated which includes leukocytes (macrophages, neutrophils, mast cells, eosinophils, basophils, natural killer cells). If the pathogens invade the second layer of defence then the third layer, adaptive immunity is activated, which includes B and T lymphocytes. B cells provide a humoral response whereas cytotoxic T cells have specific cellular mechanisms. They maintain a memory of past infections and are activated faster following a recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A biopsy is performed on a 67-year-old-man with testicular seminoma; it reveals that...

    Correct

    • A biopsy is performed on a 67-year-old-man with testicular seminoma; it reveals that the tumour affects the tunica vaginalis. The tumour stage in this case is:

      Your Answer: T2

      Explanation:

      The primary tumour staging for testicular seminoma is as follows, according to AJCC guidelines:

      Tis: intratubular germ cell neoplasia (carcinoma in situ)

      T1: tumour limited to testis/epididymis without vascular or lymphatic invasion; the tumour can invade into the tunica albuginea but not the tunica vaginalis

      T2: tumour limited to testis/epididymis with vascular or lymphatic invasion or tumour extending through the tunica albuginea with involvement of the tunica vaginalis

      T3: tumour invading the spermatic cord, with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion

      T4: tumour invading the scrotum, with or without vascular/lymphatic invasion.

      According to these guidelines, the tumour in this case has a T2 stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Urology
      57
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A retroperitoneal structure is: ...

    Correct

    • A retroperitoneal structure is:

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      Retroperitoneal structures are those that are found behind the peritoneum. They include: kidneys, suprarenal glands, bladder, ureter, inferior vena cava, rectum, oesophagus (part of it), part of the pancreas, 2nd, 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum and ascending and descending parts of the colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an irregular pulse and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an irregular pulse and shortness of breath. Electrocardiography findings show no P waves, normal QRS complexes and an irregularly irregular rhythm. The patient most probably has:

      Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common arrhythmias, characterised by an irregular and rapid heart rate. Due to the decreased cardiac output, atrial fibrillation increases the risk of heart failure. It can also lead to thrombus formation which may lead to thromboembolic events. Clinical findings include palpitations, shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain and confusion. The diagnosis is made by electrocardiographic findings which include absent P wave, fibrillatory (f) waves between QRS complexes and irregularly irregular R-R intervals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood...

    Correct

    • A patient came into the emergency in a state of shock. His blood group is not known, but on testing it clotted when mixed with Type A antibodies. Which blood should be transfused?

      Your Answer: B +ve

      Explanation:

      There are two stages to determine the blood group, known as ABO typing. The first stage is called forward typing. In this method, RBCs are mixed with two separate solutions of type A or type B antibodies to see if they agglutinate. If this blood clumps, this indicates the presence of antigens within the blood sample. For example, a sample of type B blood will clump when tested with type A antibodies as it contains type B antigens. Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group B – has only the B antigen on red cells (and A antibody in the plasma)

      Group AB – has both A and B antigens on red cells (but neither A nor B antibody in the plasma)

      Group O – has neither A nor B antigens on red cells (but both A and B antibody are in the plasma). Many people also have a Rh factor on the red blood cell’s surface. This is also an antigen and those who have it are called Rh+. Those who have not are called Rh–. A person with Rh– blood does not have Rh antibodies naturally in the blood plasma (as one can have A or B antibodies, for instance) but they can develop Rh antibodies in the blood plasma if they receive blood from a person with Rh+ blood, whose Rh antigens can trigger the production of Rh antibodies. A person with Rh+ blood can receive blood from a person with Rh– blood without any problems. The patient’s blood group is B positive as he has antigen B, antibody A and Rh antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the name of the cutaneous branch of the posterior primary ramus...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the cutaneous branch of the posterior primary ramus of C2?

      Your Answer: Superior ramus of the ansa cervicalis

      Correct Answer: Greater occipital nerve

      Explanation:

      The dorsal primary ramus of the spinal nerve C2 is the greater occipital nerve which provides cutaneous innervation to the skin of the back of the head. The ventral primary ramus gives off the great auricular nerve, the lesser occipital nerve and the ansa cervicalis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A patient is suspected to have Blastomyces dermatidis infection. The patient contracted the...

    Correct

    • A patient is suspected to have Blastomyces dermatidis infection. The patient contracted the disease most likely through which port of entry?

      Your Answer: Respiratory tract

      Explanation:

      Blastomycosis disease is a fungal infection acquired through inhalation of the spores. It caused by the organism Blastomyces dermatitidis and manifests as a primary lung infection in about 70% of cases. The onset is relatively slow and symptoms are suggestive of pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Fine-needle aspiration is a type of biopsy procedure. When performing a fine-needle aspiration...

    Correct

    • Fine-needle aspiration is a type of biopsy procedure. When performing a fine-needle aspiration of the lungs, which is the most common complication of the procedure?

      Your Answer: Pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Pneumothorax is the most common complication of a fine-needle aspiration procedure. Various factors, such as lesion size, have been associated with increased risk of pneumothorax .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Respiratory
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old male has a mass on the right lung with involvement of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male has a mass on the right lung with involvement of the right mediastinal lymph nodes. What is the nodal staging according to the TNM staging?

      Your Answer: N2

      Explanation:

      The N stages for lung cancer are from NO to N3 : NO, there is no lung cancer in any lymph nodes: N1, there is lung cancer in the proximal lymph nodes: N2, there is lung cancer in the mediastinal hilar lymph nodes, but on the same side as the affected lung or there is lung cancer in the carinal lymph nodes: N3, there is metastatic lung cancer in lymph nodes on the opposite side of the chest, in the cervical or apical lymph nodes. In this patient the ipsilateral mediastinal node is involved, thus it is classified as N2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the 5 year survival rate of a patient who is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • What is the 5 year survival rate of a patient who is diagnosed with stage III colon cancer, who underwent successful resection and completed the prescribed session of adjuvant chemotherapy?

      Your Answer: 30%–60%

      Explanation:

      In this patient who has stage III colon cancer, the survival rate is 30-60%. For stage I or Dukes’ stage A disease, the 5-year survival rate after surgical resection exceeds 90%. For stage II or Dukes’ stage B disease, the 5-year survival rate is 70%–85% after resection, with or without adjuvant therapy. For stage III or Dukes’ stage C disease, the 5-year survival rate is 30%– 60% after resection and adjuvant chemotherapy and for stage IV or Dukes’ stage D disease, the 5-year survival rate is poor (approximately 5%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50 year-old man, who sustained a head injury experienced sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 50 year-old man, who sustained a head injury experienced sudden onset of horizontal double vision. He is diagnosed with lateral rectus palsy. Which of the following nerves is affected in this condition?

      Your Answer: Abducent

      Explanation:

      The lateral rectus muscle is one of the 6 extra-ocular muscles that control eye movements. It is responsible for abduction and is the only muscle that is innervated by the abducens nerve (CN VI).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein?

      Your Answer: Right gonadal

      Correct Answer: Left suprarenal

      Explanation:

      The left suprarenal vein empties into the left renal vein which crosses the vertebral column to reach the inferior vena cava. The left renal vein also receives the left gonadal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      92.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 40-year old lady presented to the hospital with fever and mental confusion...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old lady presented to the hospital with fever and mental confusion for 1 week. On examination, she was found to have multiple petechiae all over her skin and mucosal surfaces. Blood investigations revealed low platelet count and raised urea and creatinine. A platelet transfusion was carried out, following which she succumbed to death. Autopsy revealed pink hyaline thrombi in myocardial arteries. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

      Explanation:

      Hyaline thrombi are typically associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), which is caused by non-immunological destruction of platelets. Platelet transfusion is contraindicated in TTP. Platelets and red blood cells also get damaged by loose strands of fibrin deposited in small vessels. Multiple organs start developing platelet-fibrin thrombi (bland thrombi with no vasculitis) typically at arteriocapillary junctions. This is known as ‘thrombotic microangiopathy’. Treatment consists of plasma exchange.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?...

    Correct

    • The gradual depolarization in-between action potentials in pacemaker tissue is a result of?

      Your Answer: A combination of gradual inactivation outward IK along with the presence of an inward ‘funny’ current (If) due to opening of channels permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions

      Explanation:

      One of the characteristic features of the pacemaker cell is the generation of a gradual diastolic depolarization also called the pacemaker potential. In phase 0, the upstroke of the action potential caused by an increase in the Ca2+ conductance, an influx of calcium occurs and a positive membrane potential is generated. The next is phase 3 which is repolarization caused by increased K+ conductance as a result of outwards K+ current. Phase 4 is a slow depolarization which accounts for the pacemaker activity, caused by increased conductance of Na+, inwards Na+ current called IF. it is turned on by repolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - If a patient takes long-term corticosteroid therapy, which of the following diseases is...

    Correct

    • If a patient takes long-term corticosteroid therapy, which of the following diseases is most likely to develop?

      Your Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      One of the complications of long-term intake of corticosteroids is osteoporosis. Some guidelines recommend prophylactic calcium and vitamin D supplementation in patients who take more than 30 mg hydrocortisone or 7.5 mg of prednisolone daily.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve. ...

    Correct

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve.

      Your Answer: It gives rise to the nerve that supplies the anterior compartment leg muscles

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal nerve divides beneath the peroneus longus muscle and gives off articular and lateral sural cutaneous nerves which supply muscular branches to the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg which are the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum, peroneus tertius and extensor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Medulloblastoma usually occurs in children between 5 to 9 years old. Where does...

    Correct

    • Medulloblastoma usually occurs in children between 5 to 9 years old. Where does medulloblastoma commonly originate from?

      Your Answer: Cerebellar vermis

      Explanation:

      Medulloblastoma is the most common malignant brain tumour in children, accounting for 10-20% of primary CNS neoplasms. Most of the tumours originate in the cerebellar vermis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which is the most common benign germ-cell tumour that could occur in a...

    Correct

    • Which is the most common benign germ-cell tumour that could occur in a premenopausal woman?

      Your Answer: Dermoid cyst

      Explanation:

      A dermoid cyst is a teratoma of a cystic nature that contains an array of developmentally mature and solid tissues. Dermoid cysts grow slowly and this type of cystic teratoma is nearly always benign.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent pain, bloating, nausea and vomiting, was scheduled for surgery to have the gallbladder removed. During the cholecystectomy, the registrar conducting the procedure accidentally punctured a blood vessel that lies immediately posterior to the omental foramen and blood filled the operating field. Which of the following blood vessels was likely punctured?

      Your Answer: Portal vein

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The omental foramen is the pathway that connects the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. The omental foramen is bordered posteriorly by the inferior vena cava. This is the blood vessel that would most likely be punctured.

      The aorta and its branch, the renal artery, lie postero-lateral to the omental foramen and are deeper than the inferior vena cava hence making them less likely to be injured.

      The hepatic portal vein, the hepatic artery and the superior mesenteric vein borders the omental foramen anteriorly and would not be injured by a jab on the posterior border of the omental foramen.

      Finally, the splenic artery is found in the splenorenal ligament that borders the omental foramen laterally to the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 40-year old lady with a flail chest due to trauma was breathing...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old lady with a flail chest due to trauma was breathing with the help of a mechanical ventilator in the ICU, and was heavily sedated on muscle relaxants. Due to sudden power failure, a nurse began to hand-ventilate the patient with a Ambu bag. What change will occur in the following parameters: (Arterial p(CO2), pH) in the intervening period between power failure and hand ventilation?

      Your Answer: Increase, Decrease

      Explanation:

      Respiratory acidosis occurs due to alveolar hypoventilation which leads to increased arterial carbon dioxide concentration (p(CO2)). This in turn decreases the HCO3 –/p(CO2) and decreases pH. Respiratory acidosis can be acute or chronic. In acute respiratory acidosis, the p(CO2) is raised above the upper limit of normal (over 45 mm Hg) with low pH. However, in chronic cases, the raised p(CO2) is accompanied with a normal or near-normal pH due to renal compensation and an increased serum bicarbonate (HCO3 – > 30 mmHg). The given problem represents acute respiratory acidosis and thus, will show a increase in arterial p(CO2) and decrease in pH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have...

    Correct

    • A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have a small effusion in the lowest extent of the pleural cavity, into which no lung tissue extends. What is the name of this part of the pleural cavity?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the part of the pleural cavity where the costal pleura is in continuity with the diaphragmatic pleura. It forms the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.

      Costomediastinal recess: a tiny recess that is anteriorly located, where the costal pleura becomes continuous with the mediastinal pleura.

      The cupola is the pleural cavity that extends above the first rib.

      The inferior mediastinum refers to the posterior, middle and anterior mediastinal divisions together.

      The pulmonary ligament on the other hand, is a pleural fold that is situated beneath the root of the lung on the medial aspect of the lung.

      Oblique pericardial sinus is not part of the pleural cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport...

    Correct

    • Glucose is the most important source of energy for cellular respiration. The transport of glucose in the renal tubular cells occurs via:

      Your Answer: Secondary active transport with sodium

      Explanation:

      In 1960, Robert K. Crane presented for the first time his discovery of the sodium-glucose cotransport as the mechanism for glucose absorption. Glucose transport through biological membranes requires specific transport proteins. Transport of glucose through the apical membrane of renal tubular as well as intestinal epithelial cells depends on the presence of secondary active Na+–glucose symporters, SGLT-1 and SGLT-2, which concentrate glucose inside the cells, using the energy provided by co-transport of Na+ ions down their electrochemical gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      32.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Physiology (9/9) 100%
General (4/4) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Pathology (12/12) 100%
Anatomy (5/9) 56%
Upper Limb (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Neoplasia (5/5) 100%
Renal (2/2) 100%
Abdomen (2/4) 50%
Urology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (1/2) 50%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (2/2) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Passmed