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  • Question 1 - Point of entry of the vagal trunk into the abdomen: ...

    Correct

    • Point of entry of the vagal trunk into the abdomen:

      Your Answer: Oesophageal hiatus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is located in the muscular part of the diaphragm a T10 and is above, in front and a little to the left of the aortic hiatus. It transmits the oesophagus, the vagus nerves and some small oesophageal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - From which source does the lingual artery originate? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which source does the lingual artery originate?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid

      Correct Answer: External carotid

      Explanation:

      The lingual artery arises from the external carotid between the superior thyroid artery and facial artery. It can be located easily on the lower surface of the tongue. The terminal branch of the lingual artery is the deep lingual artery. On its course the lingual artery gives off side branches: dorsal lingual branches that supply the dorsum of the tongue till the epiglottis; sublingual artery that supplies the sublingual gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with: ...

    Correct

    • Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep is typically associated with:

      Your Answer: Penile erections

      Explanation:

      Normal sleep comprises of alternate cycles between slow-wave sleep (non-REM sleep) and REM sleep. REM sleep is characterized by increased metabolic brain activity and EEG desynchronization. Somnambulism (sleepwalking), enuresis (bedwetting) and night terrors all occur during slow-wave sleep or during arousal from slow-wave sleep. In comparison, REM sleep is characterized by hypotonia of major muscle groups (excluding ocular muscles), dreams, nightmares and penile erection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the...

    Incorrect

    • A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the urinary bladder. Which of the following abdominal wall layers will the surgeon NOT traverse?

      Your Answer: Anterior rectus sheath

      Correct Answer: Posterior rectus sheath

      Explanation:

      Pfannenstiel incision (a transverse suprapubic incision) is made below the arcuate line. Thus, there is no posterior layer of the rectus sheath here, only the transversalis fascia lines the inner layer of the rectus abdominis. The layers traversed include: skin, superficial fascia (fatty and membranous), deep fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus abdominis muscle, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal connective tissue and peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The majority of gallstones are mainly composed of: ...

    Correct

    • The majority of gallstones are mainly composed of:

      Your Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Bile salts are formed out of cholesterol in the liver cells. Occasionally, precipitation of cholesterol occurs resulting into cholesterol stones developing in the gall bladder.

      These cholesterol gallstones are the most common type and account for 80% of all gallstones. Another type, accounting for 20% gallstones is pigment stones which are composed of bilirubin and calcium salts. Occasionally, stones of mixed origin are also seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 34-year-old woman is diagnosed with cerebral oedema after suffering a severe head...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman is diagnosed with cerebral oedema after suffering a severe head trauma. Which of the following conditions is not likely to be associated with the extracellular oedema?

      Your Answer: Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure

      Explanation:

      Cerebral oedema is extracellular fluid accumulation in the brain. Increased capillary permeability, increased capillary pressure, increased interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure and lymphatic blockage would increase fluid movement into the interstitial spaces. Increased plasma colloid osmotic pressure, however, would oppose fluid movement from the capillaries into the interstitial compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of...

    Correct

    • A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of the mouth. Which structure will experience decreased blood flow?

      Your Answer: The sublingual gland

      Explanation:

      The paired sublingual glands are major salivary glands in the mouth. They are the smallest, most diffuse, and the only unencapsulated major salivary glands. They provide only 3-5% of the total salivary volume. The gland receives its blood supply from the sublingual and submental arteries. The sublingual artery is a branch of the lingual artery, thus damage to the lingual artery will decrease the blood flow to the sublingual gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old girl fractured a bone in her left foot. Upon examination the clinician discovered that the fracture affected the insertion of the peroneus brevis muscle. Which of the following bones was most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Base of the fifth metatarsal

      Explanation:

      The peroneus brevis muscle originates from the lower two-thirds of the lateral body of the fibula and has inserts at the base of the fifth metatarsal. Fractures to this bone are common and can be due to infection, trauma, overuse and repetitive use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the...

    Correct

    • A man had noticed weakness in his left arm causing flexion of the elbow and supination of the forearm. Which nerve in this case was injured?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Explanation:

      The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the biceps brachii and the brachialis muscles. The first one flexes the elbow and the shoulder. It is also involved in supination. The brachialis muscle flexes the forearm. The injury to the musculocutaneous nerve results in paralysis of these muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old male patient with a long history of alcoholism developed liver cirrhosis that has led to portal hypertension. Which of the following plexuses of veins is most likely dilated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoidal plexus

      Explanation:

      The haemorrhoidal plexus or also known as the rectal plexus is a venous plexus that surrounds the rectum. This venous plexus in males communicates anteriorly with the vesical plexus and uterovaginal plexus in females. This venous plexus forms a site of free communication between the portal and systemic venous systems. In the case of portal hypertension this plexus would most likely dilate due to the increased pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What principal artery that supplies the meninges is susceptible to rupture following trauma...

    Correct

    • What principal artery that supplies the meninges is susceptible to rupture following trauma to the side of the head over the temporal region:

      Your Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery normally arises from the first or mandibular segment of the maxillary artery. The artery runs in a groove on the inside of the cranium, this can clearly be seen on a lateral skull X-ray. An injured middle meningeal artery is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid: ...

    Correct

    • Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:

      Your Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose

      Explanation:

      The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the: ...

    Correct

    • The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the:

      Your Answer: Pectoralis minor

      Explanation:

      Situated at the upper part of the thorax beneath the pectoralis major, is a thin pectoralis minor, triangular muscle. It originates from the third, fourth and fifth ribs, near the cartilage and from the aponeurosis which covers the intercostals. These fibres move upwards and laterally to join and form a flat tendon. This is inserted into the medial border and upper surface of the coracoid process of the scapula. Through this medial anterior thoracic nerve, fibres from the pectoralis minor are received from the eighth cervical and first thoracic nerves. This pectoralis minor pushes down on the point of the shoulder (glenoid fossa), drawing the scapula downward and medially towards the thorax which throws the inferior angle backwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is responsible for the activation of pepsinogen released in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is responsible for the activation of pepsinogen released in the stomach?

      Your Answer: Acid pH and pepsin

      Explanation:

      Pepsinogen is the inactive precursor of pepsin. Once secreted, it comes in contact with hydrochloric acid and pepsin, previously formed, and undergoes cleavage to form active pepsin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A victim of assault in a domestic violence is stabbed in the left...

    Correct

    • A victim of assault in a domestic violence is stabbed in the left chest. The tip of the pen knife entered the pleural space just above the cardiac notch. Luckily the lung was spared as it would only occupy this space during deep inspiration. Which of these structures was pierced by the knife?

      Your Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Explanation:

      The costomediastinal recess is located immediately next to the cardiac notch. The medial aspect of the superior lobe of the left lung, when fully inflated expands to this place. The lung wouldn’t enter the anterior or the posterior mediastinum which are found between the two pleural cavities.

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity where the inferior lobes of the lungs would expand into in deep inhalation.

      The cupola, is the part of the pleural cavity that extends above the first rib into the root of the neck. The superior most part of the superior lobe of the lung might extend into this part.

      Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold that is located below the root of the lung where the visceral pleura and the mediastinal pleura are in continuity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A histological examination of a lump showed an abnormal amount and arrangement of...

    Correct

    • A histological examination of a lump showed an abnormal amount and arrangement of normal tissue in an otherwise normal area. This condition is known as?

      Your Answer: Hamartoma

      Explanation:

      A hamartoma is a condition best described as tissue normally present in an area arranged haphazardly in an disorganized, abnormal fashion. They are never malignant and do not metastasis.

      All the neoplastic, cancerous lesions comprise of a mixture of different cells that are not normal to that area.

      Metaplasia is a change in the type of the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 16-year old boy was brought in an unconscious state to the emergency department. Clinical evaluation pointed in favour of acute adrenal insufficiency. On enquiry, it was revealed that he was suffering from a high grade fever 24 hours prior. On examination, extensive purpura were noted on his skin. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer: Meningococcaemia

      Explanation:

      Findings described are suggestive of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome which develops secondary to meningococcaemia. The reported incidence of Addison’s disease is 4 in 100,000. It affects both sexes equally and is seen in all age groups. It tends to show clinical symptoms at the time of metabolic stress or trauma. The symptoms are precipitated by acute infections, trauma, surgery or sodium loss due to excessive perspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 59-year-old man was brought to the emergency department by his family after...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man was brought to the emergency department by his family after complaining of sudden, severe upper back pain and a ripping sensation, that radiated to his neck. On arrival, his pulse was weak in one arm compared with the other however his ECG result was normal. Which of the following is most probably the cause of these findings and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Acute aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Acute aortic dissection is a serious condition in which the inner layer of the aorta tears and the blood flows in between the inner and middle layers of the aorta causing their separation (dissection). Aortic dissection can lead to rupture or decreased blood flow to organs. Clinical manifestations most often include the sudden onset of severe, tearing or ripping chest pain that can radiate to the shoulder, back or neck; syncope; altered mental status; dyspnoea; pale skin; stroke symptoms etc. The diagnosis of acute aortic dissection is based on clinical findings, imaging studies, electrocardiography and laboratory analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Etoposide is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of different types of...

    Correct

    • Etoposide is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of different types of cancer. Which of the following is the correct indication for this drug?

      Your Answer: Lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Etoposide phosphate is an inhibitor of the enzyme topoisomerase II. It is used as a form of chemotherapy for malignancies such as lung cancer, testicular cancer, lymphoma, non-lymphocytic leukaemia and glioblastoma multiforme. Side effects are very common and can include low blood cell counts, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhoea, hair loss, and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line. Thus, there might be an increase in blood flow downward to the systemic venous system via anastomoses with the inferior rectal vein. This is a tributary of?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric vein

      Correct Answer: Internal pudendal vein

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectal vein drains into the internal pudendal vein. In addition the external iliac vein is one of the two branches of the common iliac vein however the internal iliac vein and it’s tributaries (including the pudendal vein) are much more important in draining the pelvic structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department suffering from extreme dehydration,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department suffering from extreme dehydration, and subsequent hypotension and tachycardia. Which part of the kidney will compensate for this loss?

      Your Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      The collecting duct system of the kidney consists of a series of tubules and ducts that physically connect nephrons to a minor calyx or directly to the renal pelvis. The collecting duct system is the last component of the kidney to influence the body’s electrolyte and fluid balance. In humans, the system accounts for 4–5% of the kidney’s reabsorption of sodium and 5% of the kidney’s reabsorption of water. At times of extreme dehydration, over 24% of the filtered water may be reabsorbed in the collecting duct system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Abnormal breathing is noticed in a of victim of a road traffic accident,...

    Correct

    • Abnormal breathing is noticed in a of victim of a road traffic accident, who sustained a head injury. The breathing pattern is characterised by alternate periods of waxing and waning tidal volumes with interspersed periods of apnoea. This breathing pattern is known as:

      Your Answer: Cheyne–Stokes breathing

      Explanation:

      Cheyne-Stokes breathing is an abnormal breathing pattern with breathing periods of gradually waxing and waning tidal volumes, with apnoeic periods interspersed. It is usually the first breathing pattern to be seen with a rise in intracranial pressure and is caused by failure of the respiratory centre in the brain to compensate quickly enough to changes in serum partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide. The aetiology includes strokes, head injuries, brain tumours and congestive heart failure. It is also a sign of altitude sickness in normal people, a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning or post-morphine administration. Biot’s respiration (cluster breathing) is characterized by cluster of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnoea. It is different from ataxic respiration, which has completely irregular breaths and pauses. It results due to damage to the medulla oblongata by any reason (stroke, uncal herniation, trauma) and is a poor prognostic indicator. Kussmaul breathing, also known as ‘air hunger’, is basically respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis and is characterized by quick, deep and laboured breathing. It is most often seen in in diabetic ketoacidosis. Due to forced inspiratory rate, the patients will show a low p(CO2). Ondine’s curse is congenital central hypoventilation syndrome or primary alveolar hypoventilation, which can be fatal and leads to sleep apnoea. It involves an inborn failure to control breathing autonomically during sleep and in severe cases, can affect patients even while awake. It is known to occur in 1 in 200000 liveborn children. Treatment includes tracheostomies and life long mechanical ventilator support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old man underwent sigmoid resection with diverting colostomy for a ruptured sigmoid...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man underwent sigmoid resection with diverting colostomy for a ruptured sigmoid diverticulum 10 days ago. He received gentamicin and ampicillin post-op. 2 days after he was discharged from the hospital, he was readmitted because of high grade fever and chills. His blood culture grew Gram-negative bacilli. Which organism is most likely responsible for the patient's infection?

      Your Answer: Bacteroides fragilis

      Explanation:

      Bacteroides fragilis is an anaerobic, Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacterium. It is part of the normal flora of the human colon and is generally a commensal, but can cause infection if displaced into the bloodstream or surrounding tissue following surgery, disease, or trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The wound healing process is documented in patients undergoing laparoscopic procedures. The port...

    Correct

    • The wound healing process is documented in patients undergoing laparoscopic procedures. The port incisions are sutured closed and the wounds observed every few weeks for re-epithelialisation and tensile strength. Which substance is mostly likely to be found at a cellular level involved in wound healing?

      Your Answer: Tyrosine kinase

      Explanation:

      Cell surface growth factor receptors require intercellular proteins such as tyrosine kinase which are necessary to initiate a series of events that eventually lead to cell division and growth. Tyrosine kinase is an enzyme that transfers a phosphate group to the tyrosine residue in a protein. This phosphorylation will lead to an up regulation of the enzyme activity.

      Fibronectin acts in the extracellular matrix to bind macromolecules (such as proteoglycans) via integrin receptors to aid attachment and migration of cells.

      Laminin is an extracellular matrix component that is abundant in basement membranes.

      Hyaluronic acid is one of the proteoglycans in the extracellular matrix.

      Collagen fibres are part of the extracellular matrix that gives strength and stability to connective tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral...

    Correct

    • In which of the following compartments of the femoral sheath is the femoral artery located?

      Your Answer: Lateral compartment

      Explanation:

      The femoral sheath also known as the crural sheath is made up of three compartments; lateral, intermediate and the medial. The femoral artery is contained in the lateral compartment of the femoral sheath while the femoral vein is in the intermediate compartment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Skeletal muscle fibres are divided into two basic types, type I (slow-twitch fibres)...

    Correct

    • Skeletal muscle fibres are divided into two basic types, type I (slow-twitch fibres) and type II (fast-twitch fibres). Fast muscle fibres do which of the following:

      Your Answer: Use anaerobic metabolism

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscles are divided into two types:

      1) type I also known as the slow twitch fibres. They use oxygen for their metabolism and as a result they have a high endurance potential. To support this they have abundant mitochondria and myoglobin, so they appear red/dark.

      2) type II fibres also called fast twitch fibres, are low endurance fibres used during anaerobic metabolism. They are required for short bursts of strength and cannot sustain contractions for long periods of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 58-year-old woman has had a headache, fever, lethargy and nausea for the...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman has had a headache, fever, lethargy and nausea for the last 10 days. He undergoes a CT scan which reveals a lesion in his frontal lobe, which, after a biopsy, is found to be formed by granulation tissue with collagenisation, gliosis and oedema. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic brain abscess

      Explanation:

      A cerebral abscess can result from direct extension of cranial infections, penetrating head trauma, haematogenous spread, or for unknown causes. An abscess forms when an area of cerebral inflammation becomes necrotic and encapsulated by glial cells and fibroblasts. Oedema around the abscess can increase the intracranial pressure. Symptoms result from increased intracranial pressure and mass effects. In a CT scan, an abscess appears as an oedematous mass with ring enhancement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Where is the mental foramen located? ...

    Correct

    • Where is the mental foramen located?

      Your Answer: In the mandible

      Explanation:

      The mental foramen is found bilaterally on the anterior surface of the mandible adjacent to the second premolar tooth. The mental nerve and terminal branches of the inferior alveolar nerve and mental artery leave the mandibular canal through it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following chemotherapy regimens is most likely to be used in colorectal cancer?

      Your Answer: FOLFOX

      Explanation:

      Chemotherapy regimens are often identified by acronyms, identifying the agents used in the drug combination. However, the letters used are not consistent across regimens. FOLFOX is a chemotherapy regimen used for the treatment of colorectal cancer, made up of the following drugs: • FOL: fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil or 5-FU) • F: folinic acid (leucovorin) • OX: oxaliplatin (Eloxatin®).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain....

    Correct

    • The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain. This sinuses are located between which structures?

      Your Answer: Meningeal and periosteal layers of the dura mater

      Explanation:

      The dural venous sinuses lies between the periosteal and meningeal layer of the dura mater. Dural venous sinuses is unique because it does not run parallel with arteries and allows bidirectional flow of blood intracranially as it is valve-less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Abdomen (1/2) 50%
Anatomy (11/14) 79%
Head & Neck (4/5) 80%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Physiology (8/8) 100%
Gastroenterology (2/2) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (2/2) 100%
Lower Limb (2/2) 100%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Pelvis (1/2) 50%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (2/2) 100%
Pathology (8/8) 100%
Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (2/2) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
General (1/1) 100%
Passmed